Choice A: Apply Bilateral Wrist Restraints

Applying bilateral wrist restraints can be necessary in some cases to prevent the child from touching or interfering with the surgical site. However, restraints should be used as a last resort and only when absolutely necessary. They can cause distress and discomfort to the child and should be monitored closely to prevent any complications.

Choice B: Administer Opioids for Pain

Administering opioids for pain management is a common practice post-surgery to ensure the child is comfortable. However, opioids should be used cautiously due to the risk of side effects and potential for dependency. Non-opioid pain management strategies, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, are often preferred unless the pain is severe.

Choice C: Implement a Soft Diet

Implementing a soft diet is crucial for a child who is 24 hours postoperative following a cleft palate repair. The surgical site in the mouth is still healing, and a soft diet helps prevent any damage or irritation to the area. Soft foods are easier to swallow and less likely to cause pain or disrupt the healing process. Examples of soft foods include mashed potatoes, yogurt, and pureed fruits.

Choice D: Offer Fluids Through a Straw

Offering fluids through a straw is not recommended for a child who has undergone cleft palate repair. The suction created by using a straw can put pressure on the surgical site and potentially cause complications. Instead, fluids should be offered using a cup or a spoon to minimize any risk to the healing palate.

Choice A: Perform a Blind Finger Sweep

Performing a blind finger sweep is not recommended because it can push the foreign object further into the airway, making the obstruction worse. This method is only advised if the object is clearly visible and can be safely removed without causing further harm.

Choice B: Turn the Client to the Side

Turning the client to the side can be helpful in certain situations, such as when the client is unconscious or at risk of vomiting. However, in the case of a conscious client with a foreign body airway obstruction, this action does not directly address the obstruction and is not the first priority.

Choice C: Insert an Oral Airway

Inserting an oral airway is typically used to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient who cannot maintain their own airway. For a conscious client with a foreign body obstruction, this action is not appropriate and could cause further complications.

Choice D: Administer the Abdominal Thrust Maneuver

Administering the abdominal thrust maneuver (also known as the Heimlich maneuver) is the recommended first action for a conscious client with a foreign body airway obstruction. This technique involves standing behind the client, placing a fist just above their navel, and delivering quick, upward thrusts to expel the foreign object. This method is effective in creating an artificial cough that can dislodge the obstruction.

Choice A: Hypophosphatemia

Hypophosphatemia, or low phosphate levels, is not typically associated with prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Prerenal AKI is primarily related to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, which does not directly affect phosphate levels. Hypophosphatemia is more commonly seen in conditions such as refeeding syndrome, chronic alcoholism, and certain endocrine disorders.

Choice B: Hyperkalemia

Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, is a common electrolyte imbalance in prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). When kidney function is impaired, the kidneys are less able to excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This can result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and requires prompt management. Hyperkalemia is often seen in various types of AKI, including prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal causes.

Choice C: Hypercalcemia

Hypercalcemia, or high calcium levels, is not typically associated with prerenal AKI. In fact, AKI can sometimes lead to hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) due to impaired kidney function affecting calcium and phosphate metabolism. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with conditions such as hyperparathyroidism, malignancies, and certain medications.

Choice D: Hypernatremia

Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels, is also not a typical finding in prerenal AKI. Prerenal AKI is usually characterized by volume depletion, which can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the body’s attempt to retain water and maintain blood pressure. Hypernatremia is more commonly seen in conditions involving excessive water loss or inadequate water intake.

Choice A: Exophthalmos

Exophthalmos, or bulging eyes, is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism. Instead, it is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, particularly Graves’ disease. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to a different set of symptoms.

Choice B: Photophobia

Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is not a common symptom of hypothyroidism. While hypothyroidism can cause a variety of symptoms, photophobia is more often associated with conditions affecting the eyes or the nervous system.

Choice C: Lethargy

Lethargy, or extreme fatigue, is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. When the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, the body’s metabolism slows down, leading to feelings of tiredness and lack of energy. This is one of the hallmark symptoms of hypothyroidism and can significantly impact a person’s daily life.

Choice D: Weight Loss

Weight loss is not typically associated with hypothyroidism. In fact, weight gain is more common due to the slowed metabolism caused by an underactive thyroid. Individuals with hypothyroidism often experience difficulty losing weight and may gain weight even with a normal diet and exercise routine.

Choice A: Induce Sedation

Pancuronium is not used to induce sedation. It is a neuromuscular blocking agent (NMBA) that causes paralysis of skeletal muscles. Sedation is typically achieved using medications such as benzodiazepines or propofol, which act on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect.

Choice B: Suppress Respiratory Effort

Pancuronium is used to suppress respiratory effort in patients with ARDS who require mechanical ventilation. By causing muscle paralysis, pancuronium helps to synchronize the patient’s breathing with the ventilator, reducing the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury and improving oxygenation. This is particularly important in severe cases of ARDS where patient-ventilator dyssynchrony can be detrimental.

Choice C: Decrease Chest Wall Compliance

Decreasing chest wall compliance is not a purpose of pancuronium. In fact, pancuronium does not directly affect chest wall compliance. Instead, it works by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles, leading to muscle relaxation and paralysis.

Choice D: Decrease Respiratory Secretions

Pancuronium does not decrease respiratory secretions. Medications such as anticholinergics (e.g., atropine) are used to reduce secretions. Pancuronium’s primary role is to facilitate mechanical ventilation by ensuring complete muscle relaxation.

Choice A: Decrease the Infusion Rate on the IV

Decreasing the infusion rate on the IV is the appropriate action to take when a client experiences flushing of the neck and tachycardia while receiving vancomycin. These symptoms are indicative of vancomycin flushing syndrome (VFS), also known as “red man syndrome,” which is a reaction caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate allows the body more time to metabolize the drug and can help alleviate the symptoms.

Choice B: Document that the Client Experienced an Anaphylactic Reaction to the Medication

Documenting that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction is not accurate in this scenario. Vancomycin flushing syndrome is an anaphylactoid reaction, not an anaphylactic one. Anaphylactoid reactions are not mediated by IgE antibodies and do not require prior sensitization to the drug. Therefore, it is important to distinguish between the two and document the reaction correctly.

Choice C: Change the IV Infusion Site

Changing the IV infusion site is not necessary in this case. The symptoms of flushing and tachycardia are related to the rate of vancomycin infusion, not the site of infusion. Therefore, changing the site would not address the underlying issue.

Choice D: Apply Cold Compresses to the Neck Area

Applying cold compresses to the neck area may provide some symptomatic relief, but it does not address the root cause of the reaction. The primary intervention should be to slow the infusion rate to prevent further release of histamine and alleviate the symptoms.

Choice A: Veracity

Veracity refers to the ethical principle of truthfulness and honesty. In the context of nursing, it involves providing accurate and complete information to patients. While veracity is crucial in maintaining trust between the nurse and the patient, it is not directly related to the decision to discontinue a medication due to adverse effects.

Choice B: Fidelity

Fidelity involves being faithful to commitments and promises made to patients. It includes maintaining confidentiality and being loyal to the patient’s best interests. Although fidelity is important in the nurse-patient relationship, it does not specifically address the ethical considerations involved in discontinuing a harmful medication.

Choice C: Nonmaleficence

Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In this scenario, discontinuing the experimental chemotherapy medication due to evidence of rapidly advancing kidney failure aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence. The nurse and healthcare team are acting to prevent further harm to the patient by stopping a treatment that is causing significant adverse effects.

Choice D: Autonomy

Autonomy refers to respecting the patient’s right to make their own decisions about their healthcare. This includes providing the patient with all necessary information to make informed choices. While autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle, the decision to discontinue the medication in this case is primarily based on preventing harm, which aligns more closely with nonmaleficence.

Choice A: Botulism is Acquired Through Direct Contact with an Infected Person

Botulism is not acquired through direct contact with an infected person. It is caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. The most common forms of botulism are foodborne, wound, and infant botulism. Foodborne botulism occurs when a person ingests food containing the toxin, while wound botulism occurs when the bacteria infect a wound and produce the toxin. Infant botulism occurs when infants ingest spores of the bacteria, which then grow and produce the toxin in their intestines.

Choice B: Notify the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) When More Than Three Cases Are Confirmed

While notifying the CDC is crucial in the event of a botulism outbreak, the specific threshold for notification can vary. Generally, any suspected case of botulism should be reported to public health authorities immediately due to the severity of the disease and the potential for outbreaks. The CDC provides guidelines for reporting and managing botulism cases.

Choice C: Botulism Can Produce Paralysis Within 12 to 72 Hours Following Exposure

Botulism can indeed produce paralysis within 12 to 72 hours following exposure. The toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle paralysis. Early symptoms include weakness, dizziness, and dry mouth, followed by more severe symptoms such as blurred vision, difficulty swallowing, and muscle weakness. If left untreated, botulism can lead to respiratory failure and death.

Choice D: Vomiting and Diarrhea Are Expected Findings Following Exposure

Vomiting and diarrhea are not typical symptoms of botulism. The primary symptoms are related to muscle paralysis and neurological impairment. Gastrointestinal symptoms may occur in some cases of foodborne botulism, but they are not the hallmark signs of the disease.

Choice E: Botulism is a Toxin Found in Castor Beans

Botulism is not a toxin found in castor beans. The toxin found in castor beans is ricin, which is a different type of bioterrorism agent. Botulism is caused by the botulinum toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria.

Choice A: Low-Grade Fever

Low-grade fever is a common early symptom of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is often associated with the body’s inflammatory response to the autoimmune activity occurring in the joints. While it can persist throughout the disease, it is not considered a late manifestation.

Choice B: Weight Loss

Weight loss can occur in RA due to chronic inflammation and its effects on metabolism and appetite. However, it is more commonly seen in the early to middle stages of the disease rather than as a late manifestation. Persistent inflammation can lead to muscle wasting and weight loss, but these are not specific to the advanced stages of RA.

Choice C: Anorexia

Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is another symptom that can be present in RA. It is often related to the chronic inflammation and pain associated with the disease, which can reduce a person’s desire to eat. Like weight loss, anorexia can occur at various stages of RA and is not specifically a late manifestation.

Choice D: Knuckle Deformity

Knuckle deformity is a late manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. As RA progresses, the chronic inflammation can lead to joint damage and deformities, particularly in the hands and fingers. This includes changes such as ulnar deviation, swan neck deformities, and boutonnière deformities. These deformities result from the destruction of joint tissues and the formation of scar tissue, which can significantly impair hand function.

Choice A: Office of Emergency Management (OEM)

The Office of Emergency Management (OEM) is typically the first agency to be notified in the event of a nonbiological or chemical incident. The OEM coordinates the local response efforts and ensures that all necessary resources and personnel are mobilized. They work closely with other local, state, and federal agencies to manage the incident effectively. The OEM’s role includes assessing the situation, providing information to the public, and coordinating evacuation or shelter-in-place orders if necessary.

Choice B: Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) plays a crucial role in disaster response and recovery at the federal level. However, they are usually involved after the initial local response has been established. FEMA provides support and resources to local and state agencies, but the immediate notification should go to the local Office of Emergency Management.

Choice C: American Red Cross (ARC)

The American Red Cross (ARC) is a vital organization in disaster response, providing emergency shelter, food, and medical care. While they are an essential part of the response team, they are not typically the first agency to be notified. The ARC works in coordination with local emergency management agencies to support the affected community.

Choice D: U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) oversees national efforts to protect against and respond to various threats, including chemical incidents. However, like FEMA, DHS is generally involved at a higher level of coordination and support. The immediate response is managed by local agencies, with DHS providing additional resources and expertise as needed

Choice A: The Health Care Proxy Does Not Go Into Effect Until I Am Incapable of Making Decisions

This statement is correct. A health care proxy, also known as a durable power of attorney for health care, only becomes active when the individual is no longer capable of making their own medical decisions. Until that point, the individual retains full control over their health care choices1.

Choice B: I Have to Choose a Family Member as My Health Proxy

This statement indicates a need for clarification. It is not necessary to choose a family member as a health care proxy. An individual can select any trusted person, whether a family member or a friend, to act as their health care proxy. The most important factor is that the chosen person understands the individual’s wishes and is willing to advocate for them2.

Choice C: I Can Change Who I Designate as My Health Care Proxy at Any Time

This statement is correct. An individual can change their designated health care proxy at any time, as long as they are still capable of making their own decisions. It is important to ensure that any changes are documented properly and that all relevant parties are informed of the change3.

Choice D: If I Become Incapacitated, End-of-Life Choices Will Be Made by My Proxy

This statement is correct. If an individual becomes incapacitated and is unable to make their own medical decisions, the health care proxy will step in to make decisions on their behalf, including end-of-life choices. The proxy should be well-informed about the individual’s preferences and values to make decisions that align with their wishes4.

Choice A: A Client Who Has a Small Circular Partial-Thickness Burn of the Left Calf

A small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf is considered a minor injury in the context of a mass casualty event. This type of injury does not pose an immediate threat to life and can be managed after more critical cases are addressed. In mass casualty triage, patients with minor injuries are often categorized as “green” or “minimal” and are treated last.

Choice B: A Client Who Has Severe Respiratory Stridor and a Deviated Trachea

A client with severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea should be assessed first. These symptoms indicate a potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. In mass casualty triage, patients with compromised airways are given the highest priority and are categorized as “red” or “immediate” because their condition is critical and requires urgent medical attention.

Choice C: A Client Who Has a Splinted Open Fracture of the Left Medial Malleolus

A splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus is a serious injury but not immediately life-threatening if properly splinted. This client would be categorized as “yellow” or “delayed” in mass casualty triage, meaning they require medical attention but can wait until more critical patients are stabilized.

Choice D: A Client Who Has a Massive Head Injury and Is Experiencing Seizures

A client with a massive head injury and experiencing seizures is in a critical condition. However, in the context of mass casualty triage, the immediate priority is to secure the airway, breathing, and circulation. While this client is in dire need of medical attention, the presence of severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea in another client takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life.

Choice A: Generalized Urticaria

Generalized urticaria, or widespread hives, is a common sign of an allergic transfusion reaction. This reaction occurs when the recipient’s immune system reacts to proteins in the donor blood. Symptoms can range from mild, such as itching and hives, to severe, including anaphylaxis. Immediate intervention typically involves stopping the transfusion and administering antihistamines.

Choice B: Distended Jugular Veins

Distended jugular veins are not indicative of an allergic transfusion reaction. This finding is more commonly associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure or fluid overload. In the context of a blood transfusion, it could suggest circulatory overload rather than an allergic reaction.

Choice C: Blood Pressure 184/92 mm Hg

An elevated blood pressure reading, such as 184/92 mm Hg, is not specific to an allergic transfusion reaction. While blood pressure changes can occur during a transfusion, they are not a hallmark of an allergic response. This finding could be related to other factors, such as anxiety or pre-existing hypertension.

Choice D: Bilateral Flank Pain

Bilateral flank pain is not a typical symptom of an allergic transfusion reaction. This symptom is more commonly associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions, where the recipient’s immune system attacks the donor red blood cells, leading to hemolysis and subsequent kidney pain.

Choice A: A High Concentration of Carbon Monoxide Can Cause Death

This statement is correct. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas that can be deadly at high concentrations. It binds to hemoglobin in the blood more effectively than oxygen, leading to hypoxia (lack of oxygen) in body tissues. High levels of CO can cause severe symptoms such as confusion, loss of consciousness, and death if not treated promptly.

Choice B: I Should Purchase a Carbon Monoxide Detector for My Home

This statement is also correct. Installing a carbon monoxide detector in the home is a crucial safety measure. These detectors can alert individuals to the presence of CO, allowing them to take action before the gas reaches dangerous levels. It is recommended to place detectors near sleeping areas and to test them regularly to ensure they are functioning properly.

Choice C: Breathing in Carbon Monoxide Can Cause Headaches and Nausea

This statement is accurate. Early symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headaches, dizziness, nausea, and fatigue. These symptoms occur because CO interferes with the body’s ability to transport and use oxygen, leading to hypoxia. If exposure continues, symptoms can worsen and lead to more severe health issues.

Choice D: I Can Detect the Presence of Carbon Monoxide by a Metallic Odor

This statement indicates a need for further instruction. Carbon monoxide is odorless, which means it cannot be detected by smell. This is why CO is often referred to as a “silent killer.” Relying on the ability to smell CO is dangerous and ineffective. The only reliable way to detect CO is through the use of a carbon monoxide detector.

Choice A: I’ll Be Sure to Eat More Foods with Vitamin K

This statement indicates a misunderstanding. While vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, consuming large amounts of vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to avoid fluctuations in their INR levels.

Choice B: I’ll Take Aspirin for My Headaches

This statement also indicates a misunderstanding. Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Patients should consult their healthcare provider before taking any new medications, including over-the-counter drugs.

Choice C: I’ll Use My Electric Razor for Shaving

This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching. Using an electric razor instead of a traditional blade can help prevent cuts and bleeding, which is particularly important for patients on anticoagulant therapy like warfarin.

Choice D: It’s Okay to Have a Couple of Glasses of Wine with Dinner Each Evening

This statement indicates a misunderstanding. Alcohol can affect the metabolism of warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Patients on warfarin should limit their alcohol intake and discuss their drinking habits with their healthcare provider to ensure safe use of the medication.

Choice A: You Can Expect Swelling of the Ankles While Taking This Medication

Swelling of the ankles, or peripheral edema, is a known side effect of verapamil. This calcium channel blocker can cause fluid retention, leading to swelling in the lower extremities. While this is a common side effect, it is not an instruction that the nurse should include in discharge teaching. Instead, the nurse should inform the client to report any significant swelling to their healthcare provider.

Choice B: Do Not Take This Medication on an Empty Stomach

Verapamil can be taken with or without food, but taking it with food may help reduce stomach upset. Therefore, the instruction to avoid taking it on an empty stomach is not strictly necessary. The nurse should advise the client to follow their healthcare provider’s specific instructions regarding medication administration.

Choice C: Limit Your Fluid Intake to Meal Times

Limiting fluid intake to meal times is not a standard recommendation for clients taking verapamil. Adequate hydration is important for overall health, and there is no specific reason to restrict fluid intake while on this medication. The nurse should encourage the client to maintain a balanced fluid intake throughout the day.

Choice D: Increase Your Daily Intake of Dietary Fiber

Increasing daily intake of dietary fiber is a beneficial instruction for clients taking verapamil. Verapamil can cause constipation as a side effect, and a high-fiber diet can help mitigate this issue. Foods rich in fiber, such as fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, can promote regular bowel movements and improve digestive health.

Choice A: Administer the Medications 5 Minutes Apart

Administering the medications 5 minutes apart is crucial when using multiple eye drops. This practice ensures that each medication has enough time to be absorbed without being washed out by the subsequent drop. This is particularly important for medications like timolol and pilocarpine, which are used to manage intraocular pressure in glaucoma.

Choice B: Hold Pressure on the Conjunctival Sac for 2 Minutes Following Application of Drops

Holding pressure on the conjunctival sac (punctal occlusion) for 2 minutes after applying eye drops can help reduce systemic absorption and increase the local effect of the medication. However, this instruction is not as critical as the timing between administering different eye drops.

Choice C: It Is Not Necessary to Remove Contact Lenses Before Administering Medications

This statement is incorrect. Contact lenses should be removed before administering eye drops to prevent contamination and ensure proper absorption of the medication. The lenses can be reinserted after a sufficient amount of time has passed, usually around 15 minutes.

Choice D: Administer the Medications by Touching the Tip of the Dropper to the Sclera of the Eye

This statement is incorrect. The tip of the dropper should never touch the eye or any other surface to avoid contamination. The correct method is to hold the dropper above the eye and squeeze out the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctival sac.

Choice A: Use Wool Blankets on Your Bed

Using wool blankets is not recommended for clients on home oxygen therapy. Wool and other materials that can generate static electricity pose a fire hazard when used around oxygen. Instead, clients should use cotton or other non-static generating materials to reduce the risk of fire.

Choice B: Do Not Adjust the Oxygen Flow Rate

This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching. Clients should not adjust the oxygen flow rate unless instructed by their healthcare provider. The prescribed flow rate is set to meet the client’s specific needs, and any changes could lead to inadequate oxygenation or other complications.

Choice C: Store Unused Oxygen Tanks Horizontally

This statement is incorrect. Oxygen tanks should be stored upright and secured to prevent them from falling over. Storing tanks horizontally can increase the risk of damage and potential leaks, which can be hazardous.

Choice D: Check Your Oxygen Equipment Once Each Week

While it is important to regularly check oxygen equipment, doing so only once a week may not be sufficient. Clients should check their equipment daily to ensure it is functioning properly and to identify any issues that need to be addressed promptly.

Choice A: Ulnar Deviation

Ulnar deviation, or the bending of the fingers towards the ulna (the outer bone of the forearm), is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis rather than osteoarthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the joints symmetrically and can lead to deformities such as ulnar deviation due to chronic inflammation.

Choice B: Symmetric Joints Affected

Symmetric joint involvement is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis usually affects joints asymmetrically, meaning it can affect one joint more than the other. It commonly affects weight-bearing joints such as the knees, hips, and spine.

Choice C: Pain Worsens with Activity

Pain that worsens with activity is a hallmark symptom of osteoarthritis. This condition is caused by the breakdown of cartilage in the joints, leading to pain and stiffness, especially after physical activity. The pain typically improves with rest but can become more persistent as the disease progresses.

Choice D: Weight Loss

Weight loss is not a typical manifestation of osteoarthritis. In fact, being overweight or obese is a risk factor for developing osteoarthritis, particularly in weight-bearing joints. Weight management is often recommended to help reduce the stress on affected joints and alleviate symptoms.

Choice A: Relapse is an Indication that You Are Not Taking Your Medications Properly

This statement is not entirely accurate. While non-adherence to medication can be a factor in relapse, it is not the only cause. Schizophrenia is a complex condition, and relapses can occur even when medications are taken as prescribed. Stress, changes in routine, and other factors can also contribute to a relapse.

Choice B: You Should Keep Your Provider’s and Therapist’s Number with You

This statement indicates an understanding of the importance of having immediate access to professional help. Keeping contact information for healthcare providers and therapists readily available ensures that the client can quickly reach out for support if they notice early signs of relapse. This proactive approach can help manage symptoms before they escalate.

Choice C: Taking an Additional Dose of Medication is Appropriate as Soon as Signs of Relapse Appear

This statement is incorrect. Clients should not adjust their medication dosage without consulting their healthcare provider. Taking an additional dose can lead to adverse effects and may not address the underlying issue. It is crucial to follow the prescribed treatment plan and seek professional advice if symptoms worsen.

Choice D: You Should Be Aware that Excessive Sleeping is an Early Sign of Relapse

Excessive sleeping is not typically an early sign of schizophrenia relapse. Common early warning signs include insomnia, social withdrawal, difficulty concentrating, and increased paranoia. While changes in sleep patterns can be a symptom, it is more important to recognize the specific signs that have previously indicated a relapse for the individual.

Choice A: Take the Medication with Orange Juice

Taking betamethasone with orange juice is not specifically recommended. While orange juice can help with the taste of some medications, it does not have any particular benefit for betamethasone. Additionally, citrus juices can sometimes interfere with the absorption of certain medications.

Choice B: Take the Medication Between Meals

Taking betamethasone between meals is not advised. This medication can cause stomach upset, and taking it on an empty stomach can exacerbate this issue. It is generally recommended to take corticosteroids with food to minimize gastrointestinal discomfort.

Choice C: Take the Medication on an Empty Stomach

Taking betamethasone on an empty stomach is not recommended for the same reasons as above. It can lead to stomach irritation and discomfort. Taking the medication with food or milk helps to reduce these side effects.

Choice D: Take the Medication with Milk

Taking betamethasone with milk is the correct instruction. Milk can help to buffer the stomach lining and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal irritation, which is a common side effect of corticosteroids. This practice helps to ensure that the medication is tolerated well by the client.

Choice A: Unlike Chickenpox, the Vesicles of Smallpox Are More Abundant on the Face

This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching. Smallpox lesions are indeed more abundant on the face and extremities compared to chickenpox, which tends to have a more central distribution on the trunk. Smallpox lesions are also typically more uniform in their stage of development, whereas chickenpox lesions can appear in various stages of healing simultaneously.

Choice B: Smallpox Lesions Appear in Various Stages of Healing

This statement is incorrect. Unlike chickenpox, where lesions can be in different stages of healing at the same time, smallpox lesions generally progress through the same stages simultaneously. This uniformity in lesion development is a distinguishing feature of smallpox.

Choice C: Vaccination Against Smallpox Provides Lifelong Immunity

This statement is partially correct but needs clarification. The smallpox vaccine provides long-lasting immunity, but it may not be lifelong. Immunity can wane over time, and booster vaccinations may be necessary for continued protection.

Choice D: There Are Rare, Occasional Occurrences of Smallpox

This statement is incorrect. Smallpox was declared eradicated in 1980 by the World Health Organization (WHO). There have been no naturally occurring cases of smallpox since then. The only known stocks of the virus are kept in secure laboratories for research purposes.

Choice A: A Negative-Pressure Isolation Room

A negative-pressure isolation room is typically used for patients with airborne infections, such as tuberculosis, to prevent the spread of infectious particles through the air. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated items, not through the air. Therefore, a negative-pressure room is not necessary for a client with scabies.

Choice B: A Private Room

Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate action. This helps to prevent the spread of scabies to other patients and staff. Scabies is highly contagious, and isolating the affected individual minimizes the risk of transmission. The client should remain in the private room until the treatment regimen is complete and they are no longer contagious.

Choice C: A Semi-Private Room with a Client Who Has Pediculosis Capitis

A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not appropriate. While both conditions involve parasites, they are different and require separate management and treatment protocols. Placing two clients with different contagious conditions in the same room increases the risk of cross-contamination and complicates infection control measures.

Choice D: A Positive-Pressure Isolation Room

A positive-pressure isolation room is used to protect immunocompromised patients from external contaminants by ensuring that air flows out of the room rather than in. This type of room is not suitable for a client with scabies, as it does not address the mode of transmission for this condition.

Choice A: Add Cream to Soups

Adding cream to soups is an excellent way to increase both calorie and protein intake. Cream is rich in fat and calories, which can help in weight gain and provide the necessary energy for clients undergoing chemotherapy. Additionally, it enhances the flavor and texture of soups, making them more palatable for clients who may have a reduced appetite due to treatment.

Choice B: Dip Meats in Eggs and Bread Crumbs Before Cooking

Dipping meats in eggs and bread crumbs before cooking adds extra calories and protein. Eggs are a good source of high-quality protein, and bread crumbs add additional calories. This method also helps to create a more appealing texture and flavor, which can be beneficial for clients experiencing taste changes due to chemotherapy.

Choice C: Use Milk Instead of Water in Recipes

Using milk instead of water in recipes is another effective strategy to boost calorie and protein intake. Milk contains essential nutrients, including protein, calcium, and vitamins, which are important for maintaining strength and health during chemotherapy. This substitution can be applied to various recipes, such as oatmeal, mashed potatoes, and smoothies.

Choice D: Top Fruits with Yogurt

Topping fruits with yogurt not only increases calorie and protein intake but also adds beneficial probiotics. Yogurt is a good source of protein and calcium, and when combined with fruits, it provides a nutritious and appealing snack or dessert. This combination can help improve appetite and provide essential nutrients needed during chemotherapy.

Choice E: Increase Fluids During Meals

Increasing fluids during meals is not specifically aimed at increasing calorie and protein intake. While staying hydrated is important, excessive fluid intake during meals can sometimes lead to a feeling of fullness, which may reduce overall food intake. It is better to focus on nutrient-dense foods and beverages that provide both hydration and essential nutrients.

Choice A reason:

Intense pruritus: While itching (pruritus) can be a symptom of skin conditions, it is not a definitive sign of malignancy in nevi. Pruritus can be associated with benign conditions such as eczema or allergic reactions. However, if a mole starts to itch, it should be monitored closely, but it is not as strong an indicator of malignancy as irregular borders.

Choice B reason:

Irregular borders: This is a significant sign of potential malignancy in nevi. Melanomas often have uneven, notched, or scalloped borders, unlike benign moles, which typically have smooth, even borders. The irregularity in the border is due to the uncontrolled growth of melanocytes, which can spread unevenly.

Choice C reason:

Uniform pigmentation: Uniform pigmentation is generally a sign of a benign mole. Malignant moles often have multiple colors or an uneven distribution of color, which can include shades of brown, black, red, white, or blue. A mole with uniform color is less likely to be malignant.

Choice D reason:

Purulent drainage: While purulent drainage (pus) indicates an infection, it is not a typical sign of malignancy in nevi. Infections can occur in any skin lesion, but they do not specifically indicate cancer. Malignant moles are more likely to change in size, shape, or color rather than produce pus.