Choice A rationale:

While it’s true that crushing an enteric-coated medication can cause stomach upset, this is not the primary reason for not crushing the medication.

Choice B rationale:

Crushing the medication and mixing it with food is not recommended because it would disrupt the enteric coating, leading to rapid absorption of the medication.

Choice C rationale:

Enteric-coated medications are designed to be released slowly over time. Crushing the medication would cause all of the medication to be released at once, which could lead to a higher risk of side effects.

Choice D rationale:

The enteric coating is designed to protect the medication from stomach acid, so crushing the medication would not necessarily cause it to be inactivated by stomach acid.

Choice A rationale:

Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma, not for aborting an ongoing attack.

Choice B rationale:

Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used for the long-term management of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief of an ongoing attack.

Choice C rationale:

Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used for the prophylaxis of asthma, not for aborting an ongoing attack.

Choice D rationale:

Albuterol is a short-acting beta-adrenergic agonist (SABA) used for the relief of acute asthma symptoms or attacks.

Choice A rationale:

Serum cholesterol is not directly affected by furosemide, a loop diuretic.

Choice B rationale:

Serum amylase is not directly affected by furosemide.

Choice C rationale:

Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor serum potassium levels in clients taking this medication. Normal serum potassium levels are 3.5-5.0 mEq/L.

Choice D rationale:

Serum triglyceride is not directly affected by furosemide.

Choice A rationale:

The client’s potassium level is high (normal range is 3.6 to 5.2 mEq/L123), so the nurse should inform the provider before administering more potassium.

Choice B rationale:

Holding the medication until the client has his evening meal is not appropriate because the client’s potassium level is already high.

Choice C rationale:

Giving the medication as prescribed is not appropriate because the client’s potassium level is already high.

Choice D rationale:

Obtaining a prescription to increase the dosage of the medication is not appropriate because the client’s potassium level is already high.

Choice A rationale:

Pulling the auricle upward and outward is the correct method for adults and children over 3 years old.

Choice B rationale:

Pulling the auricle down and outward is not the correct method for any age group.

Choice C rationale:

Pulling the auricle down and backward is the correct method for children under 3 years old.

Choice D rationale:

Pulling the auricle upward and backward is not the correct method for children under 3 years old.

Choice A rationale:

Migraine is not a contraindication for propranolol. In fact, propranolol is often used to reduce the severity and frequency of migraine headaches.

Choice B rationale:

Depression is not a contraindication for propranolol.

Choice C rationale:

Glaucoma is not a contraindication for propranolol.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure is a contraindication for propranolol. Propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker that can exacerbate heart failure.

Choice A rationale:

Propranolol is a beta-blocker and does not typically cause a cough. This is more common with ACE inhibitors.

Choice B rationale:

Propranolol can cause dizziness or lightheadedness, especially when getting up suddenly from a lying or sitting position. So, it’s important to sit on the side of the bed before standing up.

Choice C rationale:

Propranolol can lower heart rate, but a heart rate greater than 70/min is normal and not a reason to stop taking the medication.

Choice D rationale:

While regular weight monitoring is important for patients taking medications that can cause fluid retention, propranolol is not typically associated with this side effect.

Choice A rationale:

Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, so a BP of 148/94 mm Hg is an expected finding.

Choice B rationale:

Peripheral edema of the ankles can be a side effect of nifedipine.

Choice C rationale:

A heart rate of 66/min is within the normal range (60-100 beats per minute).

Choice D rationale:

An increased alkaline phosphatase level is not a known side effect of nifedipine and could indicate a liver or bone disorder, which should be reported to the provider.

Choice A rationale:

The list obtained from the client should include all medications the client is taking, regardless of who prescribed them.

Choice B rationale:

The reconciliation process should be completed at each transition of care, not just at admission.

Choice C rationale:

Providing a comprehensive list of medications at discharge is a key component of medication reconciliation.

Choice D rationale:

Nurses should not write verbal orders for medications. This is the responsibility of the provider.

Choice A rationale:

Applying pressure to the tragus of the ear can help move the liquid in deeper. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice B rationale:

For adults, the pinna should be pulled upward and backward to straighten the ear canal. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Choice C rationale:

Sterile gloves are not necessary when administering ear drops. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice D rationale:

Ear drops should be at room temperature. If they’re too cold or hot, they can make you feel dizzy and disoriented. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice A rationale:

Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause your blood level of potassium to decrease, which is known as hypokalemia. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Choice B rationale:

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic which conserves potassium, thereby balancing its levels in the body. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice C rationale:

Metoprolol does not significantly affect potassium levels. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice D rationale:

Nitroglycerin does not significantly affect potassium levels. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice A rationale:

The priority nursing action after administering the wrong medication is to assess the client for any adverse effects. This includes checking the client’s vital signs. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Choice B rationale:

Notifying the charge nurse is an important step, but it is not the first action the nurse should take. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice C rationale:

Documenting an objective description of what has happened in the client’s chart is necessary, but it is not the first action the nurse should take. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice D rationale:

Filling out an occurrence report according to institutional policy is necessary, but it is not the first action the nurse should take. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Choice A rationale:

Timolol is a non-selective beta blocker that can slow heart rate, leading to bradycardia.

Choice B rationale:

Seizures are not a common side effect of timolol.

Choice C rationale:

Timolol is used to decrease intraocular pressure, not blood pressure.

Choice D rationale:

Anemia is not a known side effect of timolol.

Choice A rationale:

The hand used to hold the inhaler does not affect its effectiveness.

Choice B rationale:

Holding breath allows more medication to reach the lungs.

Choice C rationale:

Waiting 1 minute, not 10, between inhalations allows for better absorption.

Choice D rationale:

Head position does not affect inhalation.

Choice A rationale:

Atenolol does not commonly cause constipation.

Choice B rationale:

Atenolol, a beta blocker, can slow heart rate, leading to bradycardia.

Choice C rationale:

Atenolol does not typically cause cough.

Choice D rationale:

While some may experience headache, it’s not a common side effect of atenolol.

Choice A rationale:

Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids like fentanyl.

Choice B rationale:

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can quickly reverse an opioid overdose, including fentanyl.

Choice C rationale:

Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, a blood thinner, not opioids.

Choice D rationale:

Atropine is used to treat bradycardia and symptoms of nerve gas exposure, not opioid toxicity.

Choice A rationale:

Foods containing tyramine need to be avoided when taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors, not diazepam.

Choice B rationale:

Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, can indeed cause drowsiness as a side effect.

Choice C rationale:

Grapefruit juice can affect the metabolism of certain medications, but diazepam is not one of them.

Choice D rationale:

Even a single dose of diazepam can cause side effects, including drowsiness.

Choice A rationale:

Atenolol does not typically cause hypokalemia.

Choice B rationale:

Neutropenia is not a common side effect of atenolol.

Choice C rationale:

Anemia is not typically associated with atenolol use.

Choice D rationale:

Atenolol, a beta blocker, can cause bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, as a side effect.

Choice A rationale:

Sore throat can be a sign of neutropenia, a condition characterized by low levels of neutrophils, which are white blood cells that help fight off infections. This is a serious side effect of captopril and requires immediate medical attention.

Choice B rationale:

Headache is a common side effect of many medications, including captopril, but it is not usually a cause for concern.

Choice C rationale:

Stuffy nasal passages are not typically associated with captopril use.

Choice D rationale:

Metallic taste is a common side effect of captopril, but it is not usually a cause for concern.