A. Encourage the client to join group activities:
Encouraging a client experiencing a manic episode to join group activities is not the best option. Manic episodes are characterized by heightened energy, impulsive behavior, and decreased attention span. Group activities may overstimulate the client, making it difficult for them to focus or participate appropriately. It's essential to minimize stimulation and provide a calm environment to help manage the symptoms of mania.

B. Administer methylphenidate to the client:
Methylphenidate is a stimulant commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Administering a stimulant like methylphenidate to a person in a manic state can exacerbate their symptoms. It would increase their already elevated energy levels, restlessness, and impulsivity, making the manic episode more intense and challenging to manage. Using stimulant medications in this context is contraindicated.

C. Dim the lights in the client's room:
Dimming the lights in the client's room is the appropriate choice. Bright lights can increase agitation and restlessness in individuals experiencing a manic episode. Dimming the lights creates a calming environment, reducing excessive stimulation and promoting relaxation. A calm atmosphere is crucial for someone going through a manic episode to help them manage their symptoms effectively.

D. Provide detailed explanations to the client:
During a manic episode, individuals often have racing thoughts and may have difficulty concentrating. Providing detailed explanations can overwhelm the client, as they might have trouble processing complex information in this state. Instead, simple and clear communication is more effective. It's important to provide straightforward instructions and information to prevent further agitation and confusion.

A. Discuss the provider's goals for the client's care:
Discussing the provider's goals is essential, but it may not directly address the client's concerns about medication adherence. While these goals are important for the overall care plan, it's crucial to first engage in a conversation with the client about their specific issues and challenges related to taking the prescribed medication. The client's perspective and concerns should be a priority.

B. Ask the client if the medication is causing adverse effects:
This is the recommended choice. Inquiring about adverse effects is important to understand the client's experience with the medication. Some clients may discontinue their medication due to intolerable side effects. By addressing this concern, the nurse can provide education, seek potential solutions, and collaborate with the healthcare team to adjust the medication or dosage. Open communication helps to identify and mitigate barriers to medication adherence.

C. Tell the client they will be admitted to an inpatient care facility if they do not take the medication:
This choice involves a coercive and threatening approach. It's not an ethical or therapeutic method to promote medication adherence. Threatening involuntary hospitalization can create fear and mistrust, potentially leading to further non-compliance and damaging the therapeutic relationship. It should be avoided.

D. Request the provider prescribe a second antipsychotic medication to the client:
This option is not appropriate at this stage. Adding another medication without addressing the underlying issue of non-adherence and without assessing the client's response to the current medication is not advisable. It can complicate the medication regimen, potentially worsen side effects, and doesn't address the primary concern, which is the client's non-adherence to their current medication. It's important to understand the reasons for non-adherence before considering additional medications.

A. Assess the need for physical restraints:
Assessing the need for physical restraints is not the first action to take in this situation. Physical restraints should only be considered as a last resort when there is an immediate threat to the patient or others. It's essential to attempt verbal de-escalation techniques and other non-coercive interventions before considering physical restraints.

B. Discuss the purpose of the medication with the client:
Discussing the purpose of the medication is an important step, as it can help the client understand why they are being asked to take it. However, it may not be the first action to take, especially if the client is highly agitated or manic. Attempting verbal de-escalation techniques, such as calming communication and active listening, should precede discussing the medication's purpose.

C. Stop the newly licensed nurse from administering the medication:
Stopping the newly licensed nurse from administering the medication without addressing the situation directly doesn't resolve the issue. It's important to equip the nurse with appropriate communication skills to handle the situation effectively. Preventing the administration of the medication is not the primary step; it's more about helping the nurse manage the situation appropriately.

D. Demonstrate how to verbally de-escalate the situation:
This is the recommended first action. Demonstrating verbal de-escalation techniques is crucial when dealing with an agitated or manic patient. The nurse manager can model effective communication strategies to help the newly licensed nurse manage the situation without resorting to physical interventions or restraints. Effective verbal de-escalation can lead to a more peaceful resolution and, ideally, the patient's acceptance of the medication without confrontation.

A. Naltrexone:
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist. It blocks the effects of opioids and alcohol in the brain. It's often used as part of a long-term treatment plan to prevent relapse in individuals who have already stopped drinking and are trying to maintain sobriety. Naltrexone does not directly manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Instead, it helps individuals reduce or quit drinking over the long term by reducing the pleasure associated with alcohol consumption.

B. Disulfiram:
Disulfiram is an aversion therapy medication used as a deterrent to drinking. When someone taking disulfiram consumes alcohol, it causes unpleasant physical reactions, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. This discourages individuals from drinking while they are on the medication. Disulfiram is not used to manage acute withdrawal symptoms but rather serves as a deterrent to drinking for individuals who are trying to maintain sobriety.

C. Lorazepam:
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that acts as a central nervous system depressant. It is commonly used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam help to reduce anxiety, agitation, and the risk of seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. They are typically used in a controlled manner to provide relief during the acute phase of withdrawal.

D. Acamprosate:
Acamprosate is used in the maintenance phase of alcohol use disorder treatment. It helps individuals maintain abstinence by stabilizing the chemical imbalances in the brain that occur after prolonged alcohol use. Acamprosate is not used for acute withdrawal management but is instead prescribed to support individuals who have already stopped drinking and are trying to avoid relapse over the long term.

A. Request that the client's partner sign the consent form:
While involving the client's partner might offer emotional support and facilitate communication, legal and ethical guidelines typically require the informed consent of the individual undergoing the procedure. Having a partner sign the form without the client's explicit consent would not adhere to these standards.

B. Inform the client about the risks of refusing ECT:
Educating the client about the potential risks and benefits of ECT, as well as discussing alternative treatments, is a crucial step in the informed consent process. However, merely informing the client does not replace the need for the client to provide explicit, written consent for the procedure to be performed legally and ethically.

C. Cancel the scheduled ECT procedure:
This is the correct action. Without the client's signed consent, the procedure cannot proceed. Canceling the ECT procedure respects the client's autonomy and adheres to legal and ethical standards surrounding informed consent. The healthcare team should continue to engage with the client, addressing any concerns and questions, to obtain their informed and voluntary consent before rescheduling the procedure if the client chooses to proceed.

D. Proceed with preparation for ECT based on implied consent:
Implied consent is not sufficient for significant medical procedures such as ECT. Implied consent implies agreement based on actions or behavior rather than explicit, informed agreement. For procedures like ECT, it is essential to have documented, explicit, and voluntary consent from the client before proceeding. Relying solely on implied consent would not meet the ethical and legal requirements for informed consent.

A. Initiates social interactions with caregivers:
While improving social interactions is a valuable goal, individuals with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) often struggle with social communication. Initiating social interactions can be challenging for them due to difficulties in understanding social cues and reciprocal communication. Setting this goal might be too ambitious without considering the individual's specific abilities and progress in social skills development.

B. Meets own needs without manipulating others:
This is a suitable goal for an individual with ASD. Many individuals with ASD can learn self-help skills and independence, such as personal hygiene, dressing, and basic communication, allowing them to meet their own needs. Teaching them to meet their needs without resorting to manipulation is important for fostering independence and appropriate social behavior.

C. Changes behavior as a result of peer pressure:
Individuals with ASD often struggle with understanding and responding to social cues, making it difficult for them to change their behavior based on peer pressure. Setting a goal related to conforming to peer pressure may not be realistic or developmentally appropriate for someone with ASD. Instead, interventions should focus on developing appropriate social skills and fostering self-confidence.

D. Acknowledges that his delusions are not real:
Delusions, which are false beliefs that are strongly held despite evidence to the contrary, are not typically a part of ASD. ASD is characterized by challenges in social communication, repetitive behaviors, and restricted interests. Setting a goal related to delusions is not relevant to the core features of ASD and may indicate a misunderstanding of the disorder's characteristics. Goals should be focused on addressing the specific challenges associated with ASD, such as social communication and sensory sensitivities.

A. Suppression:
Suppression is a psychological defense mechanism where an individual consciously avoids thinking about certain thoughts, emotions, or impulses. It involves intentionally putting aside disturbing or anxiety-inducing thoughts temporarily. People use suppression as a way to cope with overwhelming emotions or stressful situations by delaying dealing with them until they feel more prepared.

B. Regression:
Regression is a defense mechanism where an individual reverts to a previous stage of development in the face of stressful situations. For example, an adult may exhibit childlike behaviors or emotions during times of high stress. This regression is an unconscious way of seeking comfort and security from an earlier, less stressful time in life.

C. Compensation:
Compensation is a defense mechanism in which an individual tries to make up for a perceived deficiency in one area by excelling in another. For instance, someone who feels unattractive might compensate by becoming exceptionally skilled in a particular talent. Compensation involves overachieving in one area to cover up feelings of inadequacy in another.

D. Sublimation:
Sublimation is a defense mechanism where socially unacceptable impulses or urges are channeled into socially acceptable and productive activities. For example, someone with aggressive tendencies might channel their aggression into sports or artistic pursuits. Sublimation involves transforming negative emotions or desires into positive, socially acceptable behaviors.

A. Hgb 10 g/dL
Anemia (low hemoglobin levels) is a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to inadequate nutrition, leading to a decreased production of red blood cells. Hemoglobin levels below the normal range are often seen in people with severe malnutrition, such as those with anorexia nervosa.

B. Blood glucose 100 mg/dL:
A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range. Anorexia nervosa typically does not cause specific changes in blood glucose levels.

C. TIBC 11 mcg/dL:
Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC) is a test that measures the blood's capacity to bind to iron. The given value of 11 mcg/dL is unusually low and might not be within the typical reference range. However, the significance of this value is not clear without the specific reference range for the laboratory performing the test.

D. Potassium 3.7 mEq/L:
A potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L is within the normal range. Electrolyte imbalances, including low potassium levels (hypokalemia), can occur in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to inadequate intake and purging behaviors. While this level is within the normal range, individuals with anorexia nervosa may still exhibit electrolyte imbalances that require monitoring and management.

A. Seat the client at a dining table with six or more residents:
People with Alzheimer's disease often experience sensory overload in crowded and noisy environments. Large dining tables with multiple residents can be overwhelming for someone with Alzheimer's, leading to increased confusion and discomfort. It's more beneficial to seat them in a smaller, quieter setting to reduce stress and promote a more relaxed dining experience.

B. Use symbols to assist the client in locating rooms:
Individuals with Alzheimer's disease frequently have difficulties with memory and orientation. Using symbols or visual cues can aid them in understanding and remembering locations, reducing confusion and promoting independent movement within the facility or home.

C. Provide the client with several choices for meal selection:
While offering choices is generally a good practice, individuals with Alzheimer's disease may find it challenging to process too many options. Providing limited, clear choices can help prevent decision-making difficulties and reduce frustration. Too many choices can overwhelm them, leading to indecision and potential agitation.

D. Give complete directions before starting client care:
Providing complete and lengthy directions can overwhelm individuals with Alzheimer's disease. They may have difficulty processing complex instructions due to cognitive impairment. It's more effective to give simple, step-by-step directions and provide assistance as needed. Additionally, using gentle reminders and cues can support their understanding and cooperation without overwhelming them with too much information at once.

A. Pseudoephedrine
Clients taking phenelzine, which is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used to treat depression, need to avoid certain over-the-counter medications, especially those containing sympathomimetic amines like pseudoephedrine. Combining MAOIs with sympathomimetic medications can lead to a severe increase in blood pressure, potentially causing a hypertensive crisis.

B. Docusate sodium:
Docusate sodium is a stool softener and is generally safe to use with phenelzine. It does not have significant interactions with MAOIs.

C. Ranitidine:
Ranitidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production. It does not have significant interactions with phenelzine.

D. Ibuprofen:
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation. While it does not interact directly with phenelzine, individuals taking phenelzine should avoid other medications, especially NSAIDs, that can increase the risk of bleeding due to phenelzine's effects on platelet function. However, this interaction is not as severe as the interaction between phenelzine and sympathomimetic medications like pseudoephedrine.

A. Identify the goals that the client achieved during the relationship:
This activity typically occurs during the termination or closure phase of the nurse-client relationship. It involves reflecting on the progress made by the client toward their goals. During this phase, both the nurse and the client review the goals set at the beginning of the therapeutic relationship and identify which ones have been achieved. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the therapeutic interventions.

B. Assist the client to make changes in her behavior:
This action is a central aspect of the working phase. In this phase, the nurse and client collaboratively work on addressing the client's issues. The nurse provides support, guidance, and appropriate interventions to help the client modify their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. The goal is to facilitate positive changes and promote the client's mental and emotional well-being.

C. Inform the client about confidentiality issues:
Discussing confidentiality is essential at the beginning of the therapeutic relationship, during the orientation phase. The nurse informs the client about the limits of confidentiality, explaining what information will be kept confidential and under what circumstances confidentiality might need to be breached (such as when there is a risk of harm to the client or others). This discussion helps establish trust and clear boundaries within the relationship.

D. Discuss the client's responsibilities for the relationship:
Clarifying the client's responsibilities occurs primarily during the orientation phase. In this phase, the nurse outlines what the client can expect from the therapeutic relationship and what is expected from them. This includes discussing the client's active participation in the process, their commitment to attending sessions, being open and honest, and actively engaging in therapeutic activities and homework assignments.

A. Displacement:
Displacement is a defense mechanism where a person redirects their feelings, often negative or hostile ones, from the original source or target to a different, less threatening target. For example, if the client were to express anger at their boss by yelling at their family members instead, it would be an example of displacement.
B. Rationalization:

Rationalization is a defense mechanism in which a person provides logical or reasonable explanations to justify or explain a situation or behavior, even if these explanations are not entirely true or valid. It involves creating justifications or excuses to make an event or one's actions appear more reasonable or acceptable. In this case, the client is rationalizing the job loss by attributing it to their boss not liking them, which may be an oversimplified or inaccurate explanation.
C. Dissociation:

Dissociation is a defense mechanism where a person mentally separates themselves from their own thoughts, feelings, or experiences to cope with overwhelming or traumatic situations. It involves a disconnection from reality. The client's statement doesn't suggest dissociation; rather, they are providing a reason for their job loss.

D. Repression:
Repression is a defense mechanism that involves the unconscious exclusion of painful or anxiety-provoking thoughts, feelings, or memories from awareness. It is not readily visible or expressed in behavior. The client's statement involves a conscious attempt to explain their job loss, so it's not an example of repression.

A. A client who reports that he enjoys smoking marijuana on weekends:
This situation involves an individual admitting to recreational drug use. While marijuana use might be illegal in some jurisdictions, it is generally not a reportable offense by itself unless it involves a minor. However, the nurse should educate the client about the potential risks associated with drug use.

B. A client who reports that she took $20 from the cash register where she works:
This scenario involves a confession of theft. While stealing is a legal offense, it does not fall under the category of mandatory reporting unless it involves abuse or neglect of a vulnerable population (such as elderly individuals in a care facility). The appropriate action here would be for the nurse to address the issue within the facility's protocols, but it does not require reporting to an external agency.

C. A client who reports lying to his provider about having suicidal ideation:
This situation involves dishonesty with a healthcare provider. While it is concerning behavior, it does not typically fall under the category of mandatory reporting. Instead, it highlights the importance of addressing trust issues and ensuring open communication between the client and healthcare providers.

D. A client who reports that her partner ties their child to a bed as punishment:
This scenario involves a report of child abuse. Tying a child to a bed as punishment can be considered a form of physical abuse and a violation of the child's safety and well-being. Healthcare professionals, including nurses, are mandated reporters of suspected child abuse or neglect. They are required by law to report such incidents to the appropriate child protective services agency to ensure the safety of the child involved.

A. Magnesium hydroxide:
Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid commonly used to relieve indigestion and heartburn. It does not have any known significant interactions with tranylcypromine. MAOIs typically do not interfere with antacids.

B. Ibuprofen:
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to reduce pain and inflammation. It does not have specific interactions with tranylcypromine. However, individuals taking MAOIs should be cautious about using NSAIDs due to the potential risk of bleeding, especially gastrointestinal bleeding. While it's not a direct interaction, it's generally advisable for individuals taking MAOIs to consult their healthcare provider before using NSAIDs.

C. Ranitidine:
Ranitidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production. It does not have any known significant interactions with tranylcypromine. H2 blockers like ranitidine are often used to manage gastrointestinal issues and are generally considered safe when taken with MAOIs.

D. Pseudoephedrine:
Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant commonly found in cold and allergy medications. It can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure when combined with MAOIs, potentially leading to a hypertensive crisis. Due to this serious interaction, individuals taking MAOIs are strongly advised to avoid medications containing pseudoephedrine.

A. Long-term isolation: Long-term isolation, or social isolation, can lead to feelings of loneliness and depression. While prolonged isolation can contribute to mental health issues, it is not a direct risk factor for violent behavior. People who are socially isolated might suffer from emotional distress, but it doesn't necessarily make them violent.

B. Dysthymic disorder: Dysthymic disorder, also known as persistent depressive disorder, is a type of chronic depression. While individuals with dysthymic disorder may experience low moods and a lack of interest in activities, it doesn't inherently make them prone to violence. Depression is more likely to cause self-directed harm (such as self-harm or suicide) rather than violent behavior towards others.

C. Alcohol intoxication: Alcohol is a substance that impairs judgment and reduces inhibitions. When a person is intoxicated, they may act aggressively or violently, even in situations where they wouldn't normally do so. Alcohol intoxication can lead to a loss of control, impaired decision-making, and aggressive behavior, making it a significant risk factor for violent actions.

D. Schizoid personality disorder: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, emotional coldness, and detachment. While individuals with this disorder may prefer to be alone and avoid social interactions, they are not necessarily prone to violent behavior. Schizoid personality disorder primarily affects social functioning rather than predisposing someone to violence.

A. Increased time sleeping:
Increased time sleeping alone is not a specific or direct indicator of PTSD. However, changes in sleep patterns are common in individuals with PTSD, with symptoms like nightmares, insomnia, and disturbances in sleep. These disturbances can lead to increased time in bed, but this alone is not a definitive sign of PTSD.

B. Inability to express empathy:
Inability to express empathy is a complex issue and could be related to various emotional or psychological factors. While people with PTSD can experience difficulties in interpersonal relationships, including issues with empathy, this alone is not a specific indicator of the disorder. PTSD primarily involves symptoms related to re-experiencing trauma, avoidance, negative mood changes, and arousal symptoms.
C. Auditory hallucinations:
Auditory hallucinations, which involve hearing voices or sounds that others do not, are not typically associated with PTSD. This symptom is more commonly linked to conditions like schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders, but it is not specific to PTSD.

D. Difficulty concentrating:
Difficulty concentrating is a common and well-recognized symptom of PTSD. Individuals with PTSD often struggle with focus, memory, and attention due to the intrusion of traumatic thoughts and memories. This symptom can significantly impact their daily functioning and is one of the hallmark features of the disorder.

A. Implement measures to prevent intentional self-inflicted injury:
This choice is the priority. Individuals with borderline personality disorder are at an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal behaviors. Implementing measures to prevent intentional self-inflicted injury, such as close monitoring, removing potentially harmful objects, and creating a safe environment, is crucial to ensuring the client's safety and well-being.

B. Discuss the appropriate use of assertive behavior with the client:
Teaching assertive behavior is an important aspect of therapy for individuals with borderline personality disorder. Learning to express emotions and needs in a healthy, assertive manner can improve their interpersonal skills and relationships. However, this choice is secondary to ensuring the client's safety. Safety concerns need to be addressed before moving on to other therapeutic interventions.

C. Encourage the client to attend weekly support group meetings:
Support group meetings can provide valuable social support and a sense of belonging for individuals with borderline personality disorder. Being part of a supportive community can offer understanding and coping strategies. While this is a beneficial intervention, it is not the priority. Safety concerns and addressing self-harm risk take precedence.

D. Assist the client to maintain awareness of her thoughts and feelings:
Developing self-awareness and emotional regulation skills is essential in managing borderline personality disorder. Techniques such as mindfulness and dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) can help individuals become more aware of their thoughts and emotions. While important for long-term management, this intervention is not the priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Safety should always be the first focus of care.

A. Respect the client's need for social isolation:
While it's important to respect the client's need for moments of solitude and privacy, complete social isolation can lead to feelings of loneliness and exacerbate depressive symptoms. Balance is key; the nurse should encourage social interactions and support while respecting the client's need for personal space and alone time.

B. Encourage the client's family members to perform the client's ADLs:
Encouraging the client's family members to take over all activities of daily living (ADLs) can strip the client of their independence and self-efficacy. Instead, the nurse should support the client in actively participating in their self-care activities to the extent they are able. This promotes a sense of control and empowerment during a challenging time.

C. Discourage the client from talking about activities he did prior to the amputation:
Discouraging the client from discussing their life before the amputation can hinder the process of accepting the loss. Allowing the client to talk about their past experiences, activities, and memories can be therapeutic. It helps them process the grief associated with the amputation and allows for a healthy expression of emotions.

D. Determine the client's stage of grief:
Understanding the client's stage of grief is crucial. Grieving is a natural and individual process, and different people progress through stages like denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance at their own pace. By identifying the client's current stage of grief, the nurse can offer tailored support and interventions, ensuring the client's emotional needs are met effectively.

A. Paranoia:
Paranoia involves unfounded beliefs that others are plotting against, persecuting, or harming the individual. It is not directly related to the client's statement about bodily sensations.

B. A somatic delusion:
This is the correct choice. A somatic delusion is a false belief related to the body. In this case, the client believes that their heart exploded and blood is draining out, which is a somatic delusion involving bodily functions and sensations.

C. Concrete thinking:
Concrete thinking refers to a literal and straightforward way of thinking without the ability to interpret abstract or metaphorical language. While the client's statement is literal, it is not an example of concrete thinking. Concrete thinking would involve an inability to understand figurative language, which is not the case here.

D. A visual hallucination:
Visual hallucinations involve seeing things that are not present. The client's statement does not describe a visual experience but rather a false belief about bodily sensations, indicating a somatic delusion.

A. Reaction Formation:
Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual expresses feelings or behaviors that are the opposite of their true feelings or impulses. For example, someone who harbors unconscious aggressive feelings might display exaggerated friendliness and kindness. In the given scenario, the behavior of the newly licensed nurse is not contradictory to their true feelings; they are imitating the charge nurse willingly.

B. Suppression:
Suppression is a conscious effort to push down or hide certain thoughts or feelings. Unlike repression (which is unconscious), suppression involves a deliberate choice not to think about or dwell on certain emotions or thoughts. In the scenario, the behavior of the newly licensed nurse is not an example of suppression because they are not consciously trying to hide their actions.

C. Identification:
Identification is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models their behavior, feelings, or attitudes after those of someone else, especially someone they perceive as powerful or significant. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse is imitating the behaviors of the charge nurse, which is an example of identification.

D. Compensation:
Compensation is a defense mechanism where an individual consciously or unconsciously covers up weaknesses, frustrations, or feelings of inadequacy by emphasizing strengths or seeking to excel in other areas. It involves making up for a perceived lack by putting extra effort into another aspect of life. The scenario does not describe the newly licensed nurse compensating for any perceived weakness; they are simply imitating the charge nurse's behavior.

A. Takes advantage of others for her own benefit:
This behavior is not specific to paranoid personality disorder. Instead, it may be seen in individuals with antisocial personality disorder, who disregard the rights of others and exploit them for personal gain. People with paranoid personality disorder are more characterized by a pervasive distrust of others and a belief that others are out to harm or deceive them.

B. Believes that others are deceiving her:
This is a hallmark symptom of paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder often exhibit extreme distrust and suspicion, believing that others have hidden motives or are deliberately trying to deceive, harm, or manipulate them. This suspiciousness and belief in the untrustworthiness of others are key features of paranoid personality disorder.

C. Shows exaggerated expression of emotions:
Exaggerated expression of emotions is not a defining characteristic of paranoid personality disorder. People with this disorder tend to display a guarded and suspicious demeanor rather than exaggerated emotional expressions. Their interpersonal interactions are often marked by skepticism and wariness.

D. Demonstrates detachment from others:
Detachment from others is more characteristic of schizoid personality disorder, not paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder tend to be emotionally detached and have limited interest in social interactions. In contrast, individuals with paranoid personality disorder are highly suspicious and tend to assume that others are hostile or malevolent, leading to interpersonal difficulties rooted in their intense distrust.

A. "Since injuring my knee, I've decided to become the team manager."
Option A represents an adaptive use of the ego defense mechanism known as sublimation. Sublimation is a process in which a person channels potentially negative or harmful impulses or feelings into more socially acceptable and constructive activities. In this case, the adolescent with the injured knee is using the opportunity to become the team manager, which is a positive and constructive way to stay engaged with the team despite the setback of the injury.

B. "Since my mom died, I focus all my attention on my grades."
This is an example of reaction formation, a defense mechanism where someone overemphasizes the opposite of their true feelings. In this case, the individual might be hiding or avoiding their grief by focusing on grades.

C. "I didn't tell the teacher about the bullying because it wouldn't have changed anything."
This is an example of rationalization, where the individual provides a logical-sounding but potentially inaccurate explanation for their actions. It can be a defense mechanism to justify or make more acceptable one's choices.

D. "I'm not even going to think about writing that thesis paper until after prom."
This is an example of procrastination or avoidance, which is not an ego defense mechanism but a coping or time-management strategy. It doesn't represent an adaptive use of a defense mechanism in this context.

A. Prepare the client for electroconvulsive therapy:
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not a standard or appropriate treatment for anorexia nervosa. ECT is primarily used for severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain other mental health conditions. Anorexia nervosa is typically managed through psychotherapy, nutritional counseling, and medical monitoring, often in an outpatient or inpatient setting, depending on the severity of the disorder.

B. Weigh the client twice per day:
Frequent weighing is generally discouraged in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. Individuals with this disorder often have an unhealthy fixation on their weight. Frequent weigh-ins can exacerbate anxiety, foster an unhealthy relationship with food and body image, and reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and appearance. Healthcare providers should monitor weight and nutritional status regularly, but the frequency should be determined based on the individual's specific needs and in a manner that does not worsen their anxiety.

C. Encourage the client to participate in family therapy:
This is the appropriate choice. Family therapy is often a crucial component of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa. It helps address family dynamics, communication patterns, and any dysfunctional relationships that might contribute to the eating disorder. Family therapy provides a supportive environment for both the individual with anorexia and their family members, aiding in understanding, coping, and healing.

D. Set a weight gain goal of 2.2 kg (4.9 lb) per week:
Setting specific weight gain goals can be counterproductive and potentially harmful for individuals with anorexia nervosa. Rapid or arbitrary weight gain goals may lead to unhealthy eating behaviors, excessive exercise, or other dangerous practices in an attempt to meet the goal quickly. Instead, healthcare providers focus on a more individualized and gradual approach to weight restoration, ensuring that it is safe, sustainable, and in line with the client's overall health and well-being.

A. "Don't worry about it. Your anxiety will lessen once the massage begins."
This response dismisses the client's concerns and may not be respectful of their boundaries. It does not acknowledge the client's discomfort and does not offer a solution to address their preference.

B. "Why don't you like to be touched by others?"
While the nurse is attempting to understand the client's feelings, this question might come across as invasive or judgmental. The client may not feel comfortable discussing their reasons for not liking to be touched, and this response does not offer an immediate solution to the issue at hand.

C. "I will request that the massage therapist wear gloves during your treatment."
This response shows an attempt to accommodate the client's preference by suggesting a practical solution, such as wearing gloves to create a physical barrier. However, it's important to note that some individuals may still find this uncomfortable, and it might not be a universally effective solution for everyone.

D. "I will tell your provider that you would like a treatment other than massage."
This response acknowledges the client's discomfort and demonstrates respect for their boundaries. It indicates the nurse's intention to advocate for the client's preferences and well-being. By informing the provider about the client's aversion to touch, the nurse opens the door to exploring alternative treatment options that are more suitable for the client's comfort level.

A. Obtain a prescription for restraints on an as-needed basis:
Restraints should never be used on an as-needed basis without a specific, individualized order from a healthcare provider. Restraints are a significant intervention that should only be used when necessary, and they require a clear prescription outlining the duration, reason, and method of application.

B. Have the provider assess the client within 1 hour after applying the restraints:
This option is the correct choice. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider promptly after restraints are applied. The provider needs to assess the patient's physical and mental status, and the appropriateness of the restraints, and consider alternatives or modifications to the intervention. Regular assessments ensure the patient's safety and well-being while addressing the initial reason for applying restraints.

C. Request that the provider renew the prescription for restraints every 8 hours:
Restraining a patient every 8 hours without ongoing assessment and a clear clinical rationale is inappropriate and goes against best practices. Restraints should only be used when absolutely necessary and should be reevaluated frequently. Requesting a renewal on a fixed schedule without considering the patient's changing condition is not a safe or ethical approach.

D. Evaluate the client hourly while the restraints are applied:
While regular monitoring of a patient in restraints is essential, evaluating the patient every hour might not be sufficient, especially in the early stages after the application of restraints. The patient should be continuously monitored, with assessments conducted more frequently, especially immediately after applying the restraints, to ensure their safety and well-being.