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Anatomy and physiology ( hellen fluid college)

Total Questions : 73

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Question 1:

Which of the following does not contribute to water conservation?

Explanation

A. Diuretics increase urine output by inhibiting the reabsorption of water and sodium in the kidneys, which leads to increased water loss. This action is opposite to water conservation, making this the correct answer.

B. The counter current exchange system in the kidneys helps conserve water by maintaining a high osmolarity in the medulla, which facilitates the reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts. This system contributes to water conservation.

C. The collecting duct plays a crucial role in water reabsorption. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, contributing to water conservation.

D. The counter current multiplier is a mechanism in the loop of Henle that creates a concentration gradient in the kidney medulla, which is essential for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts. It contributes to water conservation


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Question 2:

The acrosome contains enzymes used to _______________.

Explanation

A. Penetrate the vagina: The acrosome does not play a role in penetrating the vagina. Its function is specifically related to the sperm's ability to penetrate the ovum, making this option incorrect.

B. Dissolve the stickiness of the semen: While enzymes do play a role in semen liquefaction, this is not the function of the acrosome. The acrosome is primarily involved in the process of fertilization, not semen modification.

C. Dissolve the mucosa of the uterus: The acrosome is not involved in dissolving the mucosa of the uterus. Its function is related to penetrating the barriers surrounding the ovum.

D. Penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum: The acrosome contains enzymes that break down the outer layers of the ovum (such as the zona pellucida), allowing the sperm to penetrate and fertilize the egg. This is the correct answer.


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Question 3:

Women have a tendency to retain water during part of the menstrual cycle because estrogen mimics the action of what?

Explanation

A. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) promotes water retention by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Estrogen does not mimic the action of ADH.

B. Natriuretic peptide promote sodium excretion, which leads to water loss, not retention. Estrogen does not mimic this action.

C. Oxytocin is primarily involved in labor and lactation, not water retention. Estrogen does not mimic oxytocin's effects.

D. Aldosterone promotes sodium and water retention by increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Estrogen can mimic the action of aldosterone, leading to water retention during certain phases of the menstrual cycle.


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Question 4:

The uptake of nutrient molecules into the body's own tissues is called_________.

Explanation

A. Ingestion refers to the process of taking in food through the mouth, not the absorption of nutrients into the body's tissues.

B. Digestion involves the breakdown of food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed, but it does not refer to the actual uptake of these nutrients into tissues.

C. Absorption is the process of taking up nutrient molecules into the bloodstream from the digestive tract, which then allows them to be used by the body's tissues.

D. Compaction refers to the process of absorbing water and consolidating indigestible residues into feces, not the absorption of nutrients into tissues.


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Question 5:

In fetal circulation, blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through the

Explanation

A. Ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus: The ductus venosus bypasses the liver, not the lungs. The ductus arteriosus does allow blood to bypass the lungs by connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta. However, this option is not entirely correct since the ductus venosus is not involved in bypassing the lungs.

B. Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus: The foramen ovale allows blood to pass directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also bypassing the lungs.

C. Fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein: The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the foramen ovale in adults and does not function in fetal circulation. The umbilical arteries and vein are involved in exchanging oxygenated and deoxygenated blood between the fetus and placenta, not bypassing the lungs.

D. Ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum: These are the adult remnants of the ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus, respectively. They do not play a role in fetal circulat


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Question 6:

Which of the following is the healthiest ratio of triglycerides __________.

Explanation

A. High HDL: low LDL- High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is known as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove cholesterol from the arteries. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is known as "bad cholesterol" because it can lead to plaque buildup in arteries. A high HDL to low LDL ratio is considered healthy as it is associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular disease.

B. High LDL: low chylomicron- High levels of LDL are unhealthy as they increase the risk of plaque formation in arteries, which can lead to cardiovascular diseases. Chylomicrons are lipoproteins that transport triglycerides and cholesterol from the intestines to other parts of the body.

C. High SFA: low HDL- Saturated fatty acids (SFA) can raise LDL levels and lower HDL levels, leading to an unhealthy lipid profile and increased risk of heart disease.

D. High LDL: low HDL- High LDL and low HDL is an unhealthy combination because it increases the risk of cardiovascular disease due to higher potential for plaque buildup in the arteries.


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Question 7:

Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?

Explanation

A. Increased urine acidity: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily affects water reabsorption in the kidneys, not urine acidity. It does not have a direct effect on the acidity of the urine.

B. Increased urine volume: ADH works to conserve water by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, which decreases urine volume.

C. Increased urine salinity: While ADH does increase water reabsorption, which could concentrate the urine, its direct action is on water retention, not specifically on increasing urine salinity.

D. Decreased urine volume: ADH promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output. This is the direct and correct result of ADH action.


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Question 8:

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate by the___________.

Explanation

A. Glomerular capillaries are involved in the filtration of blood to form the glomerular filtrate, not in the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids.

B. Proximal convoluted tubule is where the majority of glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate back into the bloodstream.

C. Renal corpuscle consists of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule and is involved in the filtration process, not in reabsorption.

D. Distal convoluted tubule is involved in the fine-tuning of electrolyte and acid-base balance, not in the primary reabsorption of glucose and amino acids.


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Question 9:

Acid reflux into the esophagus ("heartburn") is the glomerular filtrate by the__________.

Explanation

A. Esophageal glands secrete mucus to lubricate the esophagus, but they do not cause acid reflux.

B. Pharyngeal constrictors are muscles that help in the swallowing process, not in preventing acid reflux.

C. The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is a ring of muscle that controls the passage of food from the esophagus to the stomach. If the LES is weakened or relaxes inappropriately, stomach acid can flow back into the esophagus, causing acid reflux or "heartburn."

D. The upper esophageal sphincter controls the passage of food from the pharynx into the esophagus, but it is not involved in preventing acid reflux.


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Question 10:

The ___________ is not an organ of the urinary system.

Explanation

A. Urethra: The urethra is a part of the urinary system that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body.

B. Ureter: The ureters are tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. They are part of the urinary system.

C. Kidney: The kidneys are the primary organs of the urinary system responsible for filtering blood and producing urine.

D. Urinary bladder: The urinary bladder is an organ in the urinary system that stores urine before it is excreted.

E. Liver: The liver is not an organ of the urinary system. It plays a crucial role in metabolism, detoxification, and bile production, but it is part of the digestive system.


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Question 11:

Which of the following occurs when blood volume and pressure become too high?

Explanation

A. The renal tubules reabsorb more water. If blood volume and pressure are too high, the body would aim to reduce them, not increase them further. Reabsorbing more water would increase blood volume.

B. The kidneys produce less urine. To lower blood volume and pressure, the kidneys would increase urine production, not decrease it.

C. ADH release is inhibited: ADH (antidiuretic hormone) promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased blood volume and pressure. When blood volume and pressure are too high, the body inhibits ADH release to promote water excretion and lower blood volume and pressure.

D. The renal tubules reabsorb more sodium. Reabsorbing more sodium would lead to water retention, increasing blood volume and pressure, which is the opposite of what the body needs when blood volume and pressure are already high.


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Question 12:

Where is the greatest volume of water in the body?

Explanation

A. Extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all the fluid outside of cells, such as interstitial fluid, blood plasma, and lymph. However, the majority of body water is found inside the cells.

B. Blood plasma and lymph are components of the extracellular fluid. Although they contain water, they do not hold the greatest volume compared to intracellular fluid.

C. Intracellular fluid (ICF) refers to the fluid within the cells, and it constitutes the largest volume of water in the body.

D. Tissue (interstitial) fluid is part of the extracellular fluid found between cells. While it contains a significant amount of water, it does not account for the greatest volume in the body.


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Question 13:

Most body water intake is from ____________whereas most body water is lost via _________.

Explanation

A. Metabolic water; cutaneous transpiration: Metabolic water refers to the water produced during metabolic processes within the body. However, most body water intake comes from drinking fluids, not metabolic water.

B. Drinking; cutaneous transpiration and expired air: While drinking is indeed the main source of water intake, the greatest loss of water from the body is through urine, not cutaneous transpiration and expired air.

C. Drinking; radiation: While drinking is the primary source of water intake, radiation is not a significant way the body loses water.

D. Drinking; urine: Drinking fluids is the main source of water intake, and urine excretion is the primary way the body loses water.


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Question 14:

In which structure does fertilization usually occur?

Explanation

A. Uterine tube: Fertilization typically occurs in the uterine tube (also known as the fallopian tube). The sperm travels from the cervix through the uterus and into the uterine tube, where it meets and fertilizes the egg.

B. Uterus: The uterus is where the fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus, but it is not where fertilization occurs.

C. Ovary: The ovary is where eggs are produced and released during ovulation, but fertilization does not occur here.

D. Urinary bladder: The urinary bladder is part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system, and has no role in fertilization.


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Question 15:

When does oogenesis begin?

Explanation

A. During pubarche: Pubarche refers to the onset of puberty, but oogenesis (the formation of oocytes) begins much earlier, during embryonic development.

B. During embryonic development: Oogenesis begins during embryonic development when the female fetus's ovaries form and start producing primary oocytes. These oocytes remain in a suspended state until puberty.

C. During thelarche: Thelarche is the onset of breast development during puberty, but oogenesis starts long before this, during embryonic development.

D. At birth: While primary oocytes are present at birth, the process of oogenesis actually begins during embryonic development, not at birth.


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Question 16:

Pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?

Explanation

A. Estrogen is a hormone involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, but it is not the hormone detected by pregnancy tests.

B. Luteinizing hormone (LH) surges just before ovulation but is not the hormone detected by pregnancy tests.

C. Progesterone supports pregnancy by maintaining the uterine lining, but it is not the hormone detected by pregnancy tests.

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the hormone produced by the placenta shortly after implantation, and it is the hormone detected by pregnancy tests.


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Question 17:

In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become__________ whereas the embryoblast (inner cell mass) will become __________.
Select one:

Explanation

A. the embryo; part of the placenta. The embryoblast (inner cell mass) will become the embryo, but the trophoblast will become part of the placenta, not the embryo.

B. part of the placenta; the embryo. The trophoblast forms part of the placenta and helps in its development, while the embryoblast (inner cell mass) will develop into the embryo.

C. part of the placenta; the yolk sac. While the trophoblast does contribute to the formation of the placenta, the embryoblast (inner cell mass) develops into the embryo, not the yolk sac. The yolk sac is derived from extraembryonic mesoderm and endoderm, not the inner cell mass directly.

D. the embryo; the yolk sac. The embryoblast (inner cell mass) develops into the embryo, but the trophoblast does not become the yolk sac. The yolk sac is formed from structures surrounding the embryo, not from the trophoblast itself.


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Question 18:

Which of the following is a product of glycolysis?

Explanation

A. Lactateis produced during anaerobic metabolism (when oxygen is scarce) as a byproduct of glycolysis, but it is not the direct product of glycolysis itself.

B. Carbon dioxideis a byproduct of cellular respiration, specifically during the Krebs cycle, not glycolysis.

C. Pyruvateis the end product of glycolysis, where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate.

D. Acetyl-CoAis formed from pyruvate during the transition step before the Krebs cycle, not directly from glycolysis.


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Question 19:

Which of the following provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development

Explanation

A. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus that supports the embryo after implantation, but it does not provide direct fetal nutrition or secrete hormones for fetal development.

B. The placenta is the organ that provides fetal nutrition, gas exchange, and waste removal. It also secretes hormones such as human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), progesterone, and estrogen, which are essential for maintaining pregnancy and supporting fetal development.

C. The blastocyst is the early stage of the embryo that implants into the endometrium, but it does not provide fetal nutrition or secrete pregnancy-regulating hormones.

D. The myometrium is the muscular layer of the uterus responsible for contractions during labor, but it does not provide fetal nutrition or secrete hormones.


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Question 20:

In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up ___________ ion channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and ____________.

Explanation

A. Ca2+: prevents the entrance of any more sperm- While calcium ions play a role in the slow block to polyspermy, the fast block involves sodium ions.

B. Na+: prevents the entrance of more Na- The fast block to polyspermy involves sodium ions (Na+), but the depolarization of the egg membrane prevents the entrance of more sperm, not just more Na+.

C. Na+: prevents the entrance of Ca2+. The fast block prevents additional sperm from entering, not calcium ions.

D. Na+: prevents the entrance of any more sperm: The fast block to polyspermy involves the opening of sodium ion channels, leading to depolarization of the egg membrane. This depolarization prevents other sperm from binding to and penetrating the egg.


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Question 21:

What structure leads from each ovary to the uterus?

Explanation

A. Vagina: The vagina is the canal that leads from the cervix to the outside of the body, not the structure that connects the ovary to the uterus.

B. Uterine tube: The uterine tube, also known as the fallopian tube, connects the ovary to the uterus and is where fertilization typically occurs.

C. Urethra: The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. It has no role in connecting the ovary to the uterus.

D. Vas deferens: The vas deferens is a structure in the male reproductive system that transports sperm from the testes. It does not exist in the female reproductive system.


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Question 22:

The ______________is the gonad analogous to ovary?

Explanation

A. Sperm; semen: Sperm is the male gamete, and semen is the fluid that contains sperm, but these are not analogous to the ovary, which is a gonad.

B. Testis; semen: The testis is the male gonad that produces sperm, but semen is the fluid that contains sperm. The analogous structure to the ovary is the testis, but this pairing with semen is not correct.

C. Semen; sperm: Semen is the fluid containing sperm, while sperm is the male gamete. Neither is a gonad, so this pairing is not analogous to the ovary.

D. Testis; sperm: The testis is the male gonad that produces sperm, making it analogous to the ovary, which is the female gonad that produces eggs.


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Question 23:

In the nephron, the fluid that immediately precedes urine is known as:

Explanation

A. Renal filtrate refers to the fluid filtered from the blood in the glomerulus, which is the initial stage of urine formation. It does not immediately precede urine.

B. Tubular fluid is the filtrate as it passes through the nephron tubules, undergoing various processes like reabsorption and secretion. This fluid eventually becomes urine, after the final adjustments in the collecting duct.

C. Plasma is the liquid component of blood that is filtered by the glomerulus, but it is not the direct precursor to urine.

D. Glomerular filtrate is the fluid filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus and is the precursor to tubular fluid, not directly to urine.


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Question 24:

Which of the following has an abundance of lymphoid tissue in the mucosa and submucosa?

Explanation

A. Small intestine, particularly the ileum, contains Peyer's patches, which are abundant lymphoid tissues in the mucosa and submucosa. These structures are part of the immune system, protecting the body from pathogens in the digestive tract.

B. Stomach: While the stomach has some lymphoid tissue, it does not have as much as the small intestine, specifically the Peyer's patches.

C. Large intestine has lymphoid nodules, but it does not contain as much lymphoid tissue as the small intestine.

D. Esophagus has very little lymphoid tissue compared to the small intestine, as its primary function is to transport food rather than participate in immune defense.


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Question 25:

Where are cells with aldosterone receptors found?

Explanation

A. Posterior pituitary releases hormones such as ADH (antidiuretic hormone), but it does not have aldosterone receptors.

B. Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in reabsorption, but it does not have aldosterone receptors.

C. Distal convoluted tubule: Aldosterone receptors are found in the cells of the distal convoluted tubule. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in this part of the nephron, which helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance.

D. Adrenal medulla produces catecholamines (e.g., adrenaline) but does not contain aldosterone receptors.


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