Choice A rationale:

Influenza is not mosquito-borne. It is a respiratory viral infection spread through respiratory droplets, not through mosquitoes.

Choice B rationale:

Dengue fever is mosquito-borne and is transmitted primarily by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical regions and can lead to severe complications like dengue hemorrhagic fever, which can be life-threatening.

Choice C rationale:

Malaria is also mosquito-borne, but it is caused by the Plasmodium parasite transmitted by the Anopheles mosquito. While it can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, it does not cause dengue hemorrhagic fever.

Choice D rationale:

Tuberculosis is not mosquito-borne. It is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs and is transmitted through respiratory droplets.

Choice A rationale:

Anopheles mosquito is responsible for transmitting malaria, not dengue fever. Malaria is prevalent in some tropical and subtropical regions and is caused by the Plasmodium parasite.

Choice B rationale:

Culex mosquito can transmit diseases like West Nile virus and some types of encephalitis but not dengue fever.

Choice C rationale:

Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes are the primary vectors responsible for transmitting dengue fever. They thrive in subtropical and tropical regions and are most active during the day.

Choice D rationale:

Blackfly is responsible for transmitting onchocerciasis (river blindness) but not dengue fever.

Choice A rationale:

Joint and muscle pain are common symptoms of dengue fever, especially during the acute phase of the infection. Patients often experience severe pain, giving it the colloquial name "breakbone fever."

Choice B rationale:

Influenza can cause muscle aches, but it is not relevant in this situation, as the patient is suspected of having dengue fever.

Choice C rationale:

The statement that dengue fever doesn't cause any pain and is a mild infection is incorrect. Dengue fever can cause severe symptoms, and joint/muscle pain is one of them.

Choice D rationale:

Malaria can cause muscle pain, but the patient is suspected of having dengue fever, not malaria. The focus should be on the symptoms associated with dengue fever.

Choice A rationale:

Wearing long sleeves and using mosquito repellent is an appropriate preventive measure to avoid mosquito bites and reduce the risk of dengue fever transmission. This statement indicates the client understands the importance of protective measures.

Choice B rationale:

Dengue fever is indeed caused by a virus in the flavivirus genus. This statement demonstrates accurate knowledge of the etiology of the disease.

Choice C rationale:

This statement indicates a need for further teaching. Dengue fever is not transmitted from person to person through close contact. The primary mode of transmission is through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito.

Choice D rationale:

There are indeed four serotypes of the dengue virus, and they share genetic similarities. This statement shows an accurate understanding of the virus's characteristics.

Choice A rationale:

The patient's vaccination history is not directly relevant to confirming a suspected case of dengue fever. Vaccination for dengue fever is not widely available, and the diagnosis relies on other factors.

Choice B rationale:

While exposure to water sources may be relevant in some infectious diseases, it does not specifically confirm or rule out a suspected case of dengue fever.

Choice C rationale:

The patient's travel itinerary and dates are crucial in confirming a suspected case of dengue fever. Knowing the patient's recent travel to a tropical region with a high incidence of dengue fever is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

Choice D rationale:

The patient's dietary habits are not directly related to confirming a suspected case of dengue fever. While nutrition is important for overall health, it does not impact the diagnosis of the disease.

Choice A rationale:

Administering acetaminophen for fever is a reasonable intervention for the client with dengue fever. However, it is not the priority when the platelet count is low.

Choice B rationale:

Administering a blood transfusion is not the priority intervention based solely on the platelet count of 120,000/mm3. Platelet transfusion is typically considered when the platelet count drops significantly lower, leading to bleeding complications.

Choice C rationale:

Encouraging bed rest is a reasonable intervention for a client with dengue fever to conserve energy and facilitate recovery. However, it is not the priority over monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

Choice D rationale:

Monitoring for bleeding and petechiae is the priority intervention in this case. Dengue fever can cause thrombocytopenia, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. The nurse must closely monitor the client's platelet count and assess for any signs of bleeding or petechiae to detect complications early and provide appropriate interventions.

Choice A rationale:

Gown and gloves are not the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for suspected dengue fever. Dengue fever is primarily transmitted through mosquito bites, and wearing a gown is unnecessary for protection. Additionally, gloves alone may not provide adequate protection against mosquito bites.

Choice B rationale:

The correct choice for PPE when caring for clients with suspected dengue fever is a mask and goggles. These items protect the nurse from inhaling infectious droplets and prevent transmission through the mucous membranes of the eyes. The main mode of transmission of dengue fever is through infected mosquito bites, so a mask and goggles are essential in preventing the nurse from contracting the disease.

Choice C rationale:

The N95 respirator is designed to filter out airborne particles and is typically used in settings where there is a risk of inhaling infectious droplets, such as during procedures that generate aerosols. While it provides a high level of protection, it is not the most appropriate choice for dengue fever, which primarily spreads through mosquito bites.

Choice D rationale:

Gloves and shoe covers are not sufficient protection against dengue fever, as the primary mode of transmission is through mosquito bites. Shoe covers are not necessary for this situation, and gloves alone may not fully prevent mosquito bites.

Choice A rationale:

Using mosquito repellents containing DEET is an effective measure for preventing dengue fever. DEET is a mosquito repellent that provides protection against mosquito bites, reducing the risk of infection.

Choice B rationale:

Wearing long sleeves and pants can help prevent mosquito bites and reduce the risk of dengue fever transmission. Covering exposed skin makes it harder for mosquitoes to bite and transmit the virus.

Choice C rationale:

Applying sunscreen before mosquito repellent is not an appropriate measure for dengue fever prevention. While sunscreen is important for protecting the skin from UV rays, it should be applied after mosquito repellent for the best protection against mosquito bites.

Choice D rationale:

Staying indoors during peak mosquito activity is a helpful preventive measure. Mosquitoes are most active during dawn and dusk, so staying indoors during these times can reduce the risk of mosquito bites and potential infection.

Choice E rationale:

Emptying standing water containers regularly is crucial for dengue fever prevention. Mosquitoes breed in standing water, and removing these breeding sites can help control mosquito populations and reduce the risk of dengue transmission.

Choice A rationale:

Hypotension, pleural effusion, and ascites are signs and symptoms associated with the severe dengue phase, also known as dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) or dengue shock syndrome (DSS) These symptoms occur when the disease progresses to a more severe form, characterized by plasma leakage and organ impairment.

Choice B rationale:

Altered LOC (level of consciousness), seizures, and slow HR (heart rate) are not typical signs and symptoms of dengue fever. These symptoms may be indicative of other conditions but are not directly related to dengue fever.

Choice C rationale:

Sudden-onset fever, headache, muscle and joint pains are the classic symptoms of dengue fever. These symptoms typically appear after an incubation period of 4 to 10 days and are followed by a febrile phase, which may last for a few days.

Choice D rationale:

Increased vascular permeability, thrombocytopenia, and hemorrhage are characteristic features of severe dengue fever, specifically DHF or DSS. These manifestations occur due to the increased permeability of blood vessels and low platelet counts, leading to bleeding tendencies and potential shock.

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. The client should avoid anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen because they can increase the risk of bleeding, which is a concern in dengue fever management.

Choice B rationale:

Correct. Early detection is essential in managing dengue fever because it allows for timely medical intervention, which can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

Choice C rationale:

Correct. The client needs to avoid aspirin as it can worsen bleeding in dengue fever due to its antiplatelet effects.

Choice D rationale:

Correct. In severe cases of dengue fever, a client may require hospitalization and receive IV fluids and blood platelet transfusions to maintain fluid balance and manage low platelet levels.

Choice E rationale:

Correct. Rest and acetaminophen for pain relief are appropriate measures in dengue fever management to help alleviate symptoms and support the body's healing process.

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. While vomiting can be a symptom of dengue fever, it is not the statement that the nurse would expect the client to make regarding the disease.

Choice B rationale:

Incorrect. The nurse would not expect the client to state that their platelet count is within the normal range since dengue fever typically causes a decrease in platelet count.

Choice C rationale:

Correct. A decrease in hematocrit by more than 20% from baseline is indicative of plasma leakage, a complication of severe dengue fever known as dengue hemorrhagic fever.

Choice D rationale:

Incorrect. Taking anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen to reduce fever is not recommended in dengue fever management, as it can increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice A rationale:

Incorrect. While avoiding aspirin is generally advised in dengue fever management, it is not the most appropriate statement to address the signs of shock and rapid pulse.

Choice B rationale:

Incorrect. Though monitoring platelet count is important in dengue fever, it does not address the urgent need for intervention in a client exhibiting signs of shock.

Choice C rationale:

Correct. The nurse should administer IV fluids to improve hydration and help stabilize the client's condition in response to signs of shock.

Choice D rationale:

Incorrect. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory drug, and its use is not recommended in dengue fever due to the increased risk of bleeding.

Choice A rationale:

During the critical phase of dengue fever, which typically occurs around 3-7 days after the onset of symptoms, the client is at a higher risk of developing severe bleeding and organ failure due to plasma leakage and decreased platelet counts. Assessing for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, gum bleeding, or hematuria, is essential to detect any worsening condition promptly. Additionally, monitoring for signs of organ failure, such as altered mental status, respiratory distress, or oliguria, is crucial for timely intervention and appropriate management.

Choice B rationale:

Providing supplemental oxygen as needed may be beneficial in certain cases of dengue fever with respiratory distress or hypoxemia. However, during the critical phase, the priority is to assess for bleeding and organ failure, as these complications pose a more immediate threat to the client's life.

Choice C rationale:

Monitoring intake and output is a crucial nursing intervention for clients with dengue fever to ensure adequate hydration and prevent dehydration. While this is essential throughout the course of the illness, it is not the priority during the critical phase when bleeding and organ failure are of greater concern.

Choice D rationale:

Administering antipyretics for fever control may be necessary in the febrile phase of dengue fever to alleviate discomfort and manage fever. However, during the critical phase, the priority shifts to assessing for and managing potentially life-threatening complications like bleeding and organ failure.

Choice A rationale:

Administering aspirin for pain relief is contraindicated in clients with dengue fever due to its anticoagulant properties, which can further increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

While encouraging ambulation is generally beneficial for improving circulation in various conditions, it is not a suitable intervention during the critical phase of dengue fever when the client is experiencing severe plasma leakage and reduced platelet counts, which can lead to significant bleeding complications.

Choice C rationale:

Transfusion of blood products, such as platelets and packed red blood cells, may be necessary in clients with dengue fever who have severe thrombocytopenia and hematocrit elevation. Platelet count below 100,000/mm3 is a common threshold for initiating platelet transfusion in dengue fever to prevent bleeding complications, and a 25% increase in hematocrit from baseline indicates hemoconcentration, which may necessitate red blood cell transfusion.

Choice D rationale:

Monitoring SpO2 (oxygen saturation) and ABGs (arterial blood gases) regularly is important for assessing respiratory status in various conditions. However, during dengue fever, the more critical concern is the risk of bleeding and plasma leakage, making transfusion of blood products a higher priority intervention.

Choice A rationale:

Elevating the client's legs may be helpful in certain situations to improve venous return and manage hypotension. However, during severe plasma leakage and organ failure in dengue fever, the priority is to control bleeding, and applying pressure to bleeding sites can help achieve hemostasis.

Choice B rationale:

Applying pressure to bleeding sites is a priority intervention in clients with dengue fever experiencing severe plasma leakage and melena. This helps to control bleeding and prevent further blood loss, which is vital during the critical phase.

Choice C rationale:

Administering acetaminophen for pain relief can be appropriate for clients with dengue fever, especially in the febrile phase when fever and discomfort are prominent. However, during the critical phase with plasma leakage and organ failure, the priority is to manage life-threatening complications like bleeding and hepatic damage.

Choice D rationale:

Providing supplemental oxygen is essential for clients experiencing respiratory distress or hypoxemia. However, in the scenario described, the client's main priority is controlling bleeding and managing organ failure rather than addressing respiratory issues.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should include the recommendation to use mosquito repellent with DEET in the teaching session as DEET is an effective insect repellent that helps prevent mosquito bites.

Choice B rationale:

Removing standing water to eliminate breeding sites should be included in the education session as stagnant water serves as a breeding ground for mosquitoes, and eliminating such sites can reduce the mosquito population.

Choice C rationale:

The nurse should not include taking aspirin for fever and joint pain relief in the teaching session because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding, which is especially concerning in dengue fever cases due to its association with bleeding complications.

Choice D rationale:

Wearing long sleeves and pants to protect against mosquito bites should be part of the teaching session as it provides physical barriers to prevent mosquito bites.

Choice E rationale:

Avoiding going outdoors during the daytime should be included in the teaching session as dengue fever is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes, which are more active during the daytime.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should include the use of mosquito repellent, protective clothing (such as long sleeves and pants), and bed nets in the education session as these measures are effective in preventing mosquito bites and reducing the risk of dengue fever transmission.

Choice B rationale:

Regular consumption of herbal supplements is not an evidence-based preventive measure for dengue fever. Therefore, it should not be included in the education session.

Choice C rationale:

Wearing bright-colored clothing is not a preventive measure for dengue fever. Mosquitoes are attracted to dark colors, but the color of clothing does not significantly impact their attraction to humans.

Choice D rationale:

Storing water in open containers for easy access should not be included in the education session as it creates a breeding site for mosquitoes, increasing the risk of dengue transmission.

Choice A rationale:

Severe headache and joint pain are common symptoms of dengue fever, but they are not specific to dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) These symptoms are not indicative of the severity of the disease.

Choice B rationale:

Plasma leakage and thrombocytopenia are characteristic features of dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) Plasma leakage can lead to a drop in blood volume and can cause shock.

Choice C rationale:

Mild flu-like symptoms with self-limiting recovery are typical of uncomplicated dengue fever and are not specific to DHF.

Choice D rationale:

Life-threatening shock and organ failure are severe complications of DHF, and the nurse should anticipate these symptoms in a client with DHF.

Choice E rationale:

Recovery within 7-10 days with proper treatment is a general description of dengue fever without complications. It does not describe the course of DHF, which can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention.

Choice A rationale:

The client's statement is correct. Eliminating standing water around the home is an essential preventive measure for dengue fever as it helps in reducing mosquito breeding sites. Mosquitoes that transmit the dengue virus breed in stagnant water, so eliminating these breeding sites can reduce the risk of infection.

Choice B rationale:

The client's statement is correct. Seeking medical attention early when suspecting dengue fever is crucial because early detection and treatment can help prevent complications and severe forms of the disease. Dengue fever can progress rapidly, and timely medical intervention is necessary.

Choice C rationale:

The client's statement indicates a need for further teaching. Using insecticides indoors can be an important preventive measure to avoid mosquito bites, especially in areas where dengue is prevalent. Mosquitoes can enter homes through open doors and windows, and using insecticides can help reduce the risk of mosquito bites indoors.

Choice D rationale:

The client's statement is correct. Using mosquito repellent and wearing protective clothing are effective ways to avoid mosquito bites, especially during peak mosquito activity times. Dengue fever is transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes, and these preventive measures can help reduce the risk of infection.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse's statement is incorrect. Dengue fever is not only endemic to Asia and the Pacific. It is a mosquito-borne viral infection that can be found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world, including parts of Africa, the Americas, the Mediterranean, and Southeast Asia.

Choice B rationale:

The nurse's statement is incorrect. While dengue fever is prevalent in many countries in Africa, it is not limited to Africa alone. It is found in multiple regions worldwide where the appropriate mosquito vectors are present.

Choice C rationale:

The nurse's statement is accurate. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), an estimated 390 million people globally are affected by severe dengue each year. Severe dengue, also known as dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome, can be a life-threatening condition.

Choice D rationale:

The nurse's statement is incorrect. Dengue fever is primarily found in tropical and subtropical regions, not temperate regions. The Aedes mosquitoes, which transmit the virus, thrive in warm and humid environments, making temperate regions less conducive to dengue transmission.

Choice A rationale:

Providing mosquito netting around the bed is not the highest priority for a client with dengue shock syndrome (DSS) DSS is a severe form of dengue fever characterized by plasma leakage, bleeding, and organ failure. While mosquito bites should be avoided, the priority is to manage the client's critical condition and complications.

Choice B rationale:

Administering herbal remedies for pain relief is not the highest priority for a client with DSS. Pain relief is important, but the priority lies in addressing the life-threatening manifestations of DSS, such as maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications.

Choice C rationale:

Monitoring vital signs and fluid status closely is the highest priority for a client with DSS. DSS can lead to severe dehydration, hypovolemic shock, and circulatory collapse. Close monitoring of vital signs and fluid status allows early detection of any worsening condition and enables prompt intervention.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the client to engage in physical activities is not appropriate for a client with DSS. In fact, physical activities should be restricted for a client with severe dengue to prevent complications and excessive strain on the cardiovascular system. Rest is essential for recovery.

Choice A rationale:

Using open containers to store water is not an effective measure to prevent dengue fever. Mosquitoes that transmit the dengue virus breed in standing water, so using open containers will only provide breeding sites for mosquitoes, increasing the risk of dengue transmission.

Choice B rationale:

Applying mosquito repellent while outdoors is an effective measure to prevent dengue fever. Mosquito repellents containing DEET, picaridin, or other recommended ingredients can help deter mosquitoes from biting, reducing the risk of contracting the dengue virus.

Choice C rationale:

Consuming raw seafood regularly is unrelated to preventing dengue fever. Dengue fever is transmitted by mosquitoes, not through the consumption of food.

Choice D rationale:

Staying outdoors during peak mosquito activity is not an effective measure to prevent dengue fever. Being outdoors during peak mosquito activity increases the likelihood of mosquito bites and potential transmission of the dengue virus.

Choice A rationale:

Recovery from uncomplicated dengue fever typically occurs within 3-5 days without specific treatment. Most cases of dengue fever are self-limiting, and the body's immune response clears the virus within this timeframe.

Choice B rationale:

Recovery from dengue hemorrhagic fever usually takes 2-3 weeks. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is a severe form of the disease that can lead to bleeding complications and requires medical intervention and supportive care.

Choice C rationale:

Bed rest is necessary for dengue fever recovery. The client's body needs adequate rest to recover from the infection and avoid complications.

Choice D rationale:

The client should not engage in vigorous physical activity to speed up recovery. Strenuous activity can worsen the symptoms and potentially lead to complications, especially in cases of dengue hemorrhagic fever.

Choice A rationale:

Avoiding travel to dengue-affected areas is indeed an effective measure to prevent dengue fever. By staying away from areas with known dengue transmission, travelers can significantly reduce their risk of contracting the virus.

Choice B rationale:

Using insect repellent with DEET is recommended to prevent mosquito bites and, consequently, dengue fever. DEET is an effective mosquito repellent that can provide protection against mosquito-borne diseases.

Choice C rationale:

Wearing long-sleeved clothing and pants can help prevent mosquito bites and reduce the risk of dengue fever transmission. Covering exposed skin makes it more difficult for mosquitoes to bite.

Choice D rationale:

Applying sunscreen frequently is not directly related to preventing dengue fever. While sun protection is essential, it does not contribute to mosquito bite prevention or dengue virus transmission.

Influenza.

.

Choice A rationale:

Influenza is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets generated by coughing or sneezing. Influenza is a viral respiratory infection, and the main mode of transmission is through respiratory droplets when infected individuals cough or sneeze. These droplets can be inhaled by others, leading to the spread of the virus.

Choice B rationale:

Influenza is not transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. Influenza is a human-to-human respiratory virus and is not spread by mosquitoes or other insects.

Choice C rationale:

Influenza does not spread through direct contact with infected animals. While some animal species can be affected by their own strains of influenza viruses, human influenza primarily spreads among people.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct choice. Influenza is transmitted through respiratory droplets generated by coughing or sneezing. The droplets can travel a short distance and can be inhaled by individuals nearby, leading to infection.

Choice A rationale:

Rash on the skin is not a common symptom of influenza. Influenza primarily affects the respiratory system and does not typically cause skin rashes.

Choice B rationale:

Diarrhea is not a typical symptom of influenza. While some gastrointestinal symptoms may occur in some cases, they are not characteristic of influenza.

Choice C rationale:

This is a correct choice. Muscle aches (myalgia) are commonly associated with influenza. Many people with influenza experience muscle pain and soreness.

Choice D rationale:

Increased appetite is not a common symptom of influenza. In fact, loss of appetite is more common during an influenza infection.

Choice E rationale:

This is a correct choice. Dry cough is a common symptom of influenza. Influenza can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a dry cough.

Choice A rationale:

"The incubation period of influenza ranges from 2 to 5 days." This is the correct response. The incubation period of influenza, which refers to the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms, typically ranges from 2 to 5 days.

Choice B rationale:

"The incubation period of influenza is about 1 week." This is incorrect. The incubation period of influenza is shorter than one week.

Choice C rationale:

"The incubation period of influenza can last up to 2 weeks." This is incorrect. While some other viral illnesses may have longer incubation periods, influenza usually has a shorter incubation period.

Choice D rationale:

"The incubation period of influenza is usually less than 24 hours." This is incorrect. The incubation period of influenza is longer than just a few hours; it typically takes a couple of days before symptoms appear.

Choice A rationale:

Influenza can indeed lead to viral pneumonia. Influenza is caused by a respiratory virus that primarily affects the nose, throat, and lungs. Severe cases of influenza can progress to viral pneumonia, a serious and potentially life-threatening complication.

Choice B rationale:

Myositis is a potential complication of influenza. Myositis refers to inflammation of the muscles, which can occur as a complication of viral infections, including influenza. It can lead to muscle pain, weakness, and swelling.

Choice C rationale:

This statement requires further clarification. Reye syndrome is not a complication of influenza in adults; it primarily affects children and teenagers recovering from a viral infection like influenza or chickenpox. Reye syndrome involves brain and liver inflammation and is associated with the use of aspirin during viral infections.

Choice D rationale:

People with weakened immune systems are indeed at risk of severe influenza complications. Individuals with weakened immune systems, such as the elderly, pregnant women, and those with certain medical conditions, are more susceptible to severe influenza symptoms and complications.

Choice A rationale:

Wearing a face mask at all times, even indoors, is not the best preventive measure for influenza. While face masks can help reduce the spread of respiratory viruses, they are more effective when worn in situations with a higher risk of exposure, such as crowded places or healthcare settings.

Choice B rationale:

Avoiding close contact with sick individuals is a valid preventive measure for influenza. Influenza is primarily spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Avoiding close contact can help reduce the risk of exposure.

Choice C rationale:

Consuming raw garlic daily to boost immunity is not a proven preventive measure for influenza. While garlic has some health benefits, there is limited scientific evidence to support its specific role in preventing influenza.

Choice D rationale:

Washing hands frequently with soap and water is an effective preventive measure for influenza. Influenza viruses can survive on surfaces for a limited time, and touching contaminated surfaces and then touching the face can lead to infection. Regular handwashing helps reduce the risk of transmission.

Choice A rationale:

Influenza is not transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. Influenza is a respiratory virus and spreads through respiratory droplets generated by infected individuals.

Choice B rationale:

Influenza is not primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected animals. Although some influenza strains can affect animals, the main mode of transmission to humans is from person to person through respiratory droplets.

Choice C rationale:

Influenza is not transmitted primarily through contaminated food and water. The virus is mainly spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.

Choice D rationale:
This explanation is accurate. Influenza is transmitted through respiratory droplets generated by coughing or sneezing of an infected person. These droplets can be inhaled by individuals in close proximity, leading to infection. Proper hand hygiene and respiratory etiquette are essential to prevent the spread of influenza.

Typical signs of influenza.

Choice A rationale:

The symptoms described by the client, such as fever, headache, and body aches, are typical signs of influenza. Influenza is a viral respiratory illness known for causing these common symptoms. The presence of fever, headache, and body aches is consistent with the clinical presentation of influenza.

Choice B rationale:

Choice B is incorrect because the symptoms mentioned are actually common and typical in influenza. Further evaluation may be necessary if the symptoms worsen or if there are complications, but they are not uncommon in influenza.

Choice C rationale:

Choice C is incorrect because the symptoms are not indicative of a bacterial infection. Influenza is a viral infection, and the symptoms described align with a viral illness rather than a bacterial one.

Choice D rationale:

Choice D is incorrect because the symptoms are not suggestive of allergies. Allergies typically present with different symptoms, such as sneezing, itching, and a runny or stuffy nose. The symptoms of fever, headache, and body aches are not characteristic of allergies.

Choice B:

Pregnant women,

Choice C:

Older adults, and Choice D:

Individuals with diabetes.

Choice A rationale:

Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are generally not considered a high-risk group for severe influenza complications. While they can get influenza, they are not as vulnerable to severe outcomes as some other groups.

Choice B rationale:

Pregnant women are at an increased risk of severe complications from influenza due to changes in their immune system during pregnancy. Influenza can lead to serious complications for both the pregnant woman and her unborn baby, making it crucial to include them in the high-risk groups for which the nurse should provide education.

Choice C rationale:

Older adults, especially those aged 65 and older, are at a higher risk of severe influenza-related complications due to age-related changes in their immune system. Including them in the high-risk groups is essential to ensure they take preventive measures and seek timely medical attention if they develop symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

Individuals with diabetes have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to severe influenza complications. The nurse should include them in the discussion of high-risk groups to ensure they are aware of the importance of influenza prevention and management.

Choice E rationale:

Choice E is incorrect because individuals with a history of allergies are not considered a high-risk group for severe influenza complications. Allergies do not directly increase the risk of severe influenza outcomes.

Rapid antigen test.

Choice A rationale:

Viral culture is a laboratory test used to grow and identify viruses, including influenza. While it is sensitive and specific, it is not suitable for rapid diagnosis as it may take several days to produce results.

Choice B rationale:

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a highly sensitive and specific test that can detect the genetic material of the influenza virus. It is suitable for confirmation of the diagnosis, but it may take a few hours to produce results, so it is not as rapid as the correct answer.

Choice C rationale:

Serology involves testing for antibodies produced by the body in response to the influenza virus. While it can confirm past infection, it is not suitable for rapid diagnosis of acute influenza because it may take days to weeks for antibodies to develop.

Choice D rationale:

The rapid antigen test is a quick diagnostic test that detects specific proteins (antigens) on the surface of the influenza virus. It can provide results within 15-30 minutes, making it useful for rapid screening. However, it is less sensitive than PCR and may produce false-negative results in some cases. Despite this limitation, it is valuable in certain settings where immediate diagnosis is crucial for patient management and infection control.

D.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should administer antiviral drugs as prescribed because these medications can help reduce the severity and duration of influenza symptoms, especially if started early in the course of the illness. Common antiviral drugs used for influenza include oseltamivir and zanamivir.

Choice B rationale:

Providing cool compresses is an appropriate intervention to help reduce fever and discomfort associated with influenza. Cool compresses can provide relief from fever and headache symptoms.

Choice C rationale:

Limiting the number of visitors is important during the influenza outbreak to prevent further spread of the virus. Influenza is highly contagious, and restricting visitors can help reduce the risk of transmission to others.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging bed rest is essential for patients with influenza as it allows the body to conserve energy, fight off the infection, and recover more effectively. Rest helps the body heal and boosts the immune response.

Choice E rationale:

Offering antibiotics for bacterial infection is not necessary for a patient with influenza. Influenza is caused by a virus, not bacteria, so antibiotics are ineffective against it. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is a secondary bacterial infection.

Choice C rationale:

The nurse's appropriate statement is, "Antiviral drugs can reduce the duration and severity of symptoms." This statement is accurate because antiviral drugs are effective in treating influenza by inhibiting the replication of the virus, thus reducing the duration and severity of the illness. It is important for the patient to understand the benefits of adhering to the prescribed antiviral therapy to achieve the best possible outcome.

Choice A rationale:

The statement, "The antiviral drugs will help treat bacterial infections," is incorrect because antiviral drugs are specific to viral infections and have no effect on bacterial infections.

Choice B rationale:

The statement, "You should stop taking the antiviral medication once you feel better," is also incorrect. It is essential for the patient to complete the full course of antiviral medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider, even if they start feeling better, to ensure complete eradication of the virus.

Choice D rationale:

The statement, "You need to take the antiviral medication only if you have a fever," is incorrect as well. Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, regardless of fever presence, to effectively treat influenza.

Choice D rationale:

The statement, "The influenza vaccine is not recommended for anyone aged 6 months and older," indicates the need for further education. Influenza vaccination is recommended for all individuals aged 6 months and older, especially those at higher risk for complications, such as older adults, young children, pregnant women, and individuals with chronic health conditions. Vaccination helps prevent influenza and its complications. The patient needs to be informed about the importance of getting vaccinated annually.

Choice A rationale:

The statement, "I should cover my mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing," is correct and indicates that the patient understands the importance of respiratory hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza to others.

Choice B rationale:

The statement, "I need to stay home until I am fever-free for at least 24 hours without antipyretics," is also correct. It indicates that the patient is aware of the need to stay home until they are no longer contagious to avoid spreading the virus to others.

Choice C rationale:

The statement, "Antiviral drugs can prevent complications and reduce mortality if started early," is accurate and shows that the patient has received appropriate education regarding the benefits of early antiviral therapy for influenza.

Choice A rationale:

Initiating droplet precautions for all patients is not the most appropriate prevention strategy for influenza in a healthcare setting. While droplet precautions are necessary when dealing with patients suspected or confirmed to have certain respiratory infections, they are not the primary method for preventing influenza transmission.

Choice B rationale:

Administering antibiotics to patients with flu-like symptoms is not an effective prevention measure for influenza. Influenza is caused by a virus, and antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones.

Choice C rationale:

Encouraging patients to avoid close contact with sick people is a good preventive measure for influenza. However, in a healthcare setting, it may be challenging to completely avoid close contact with sick patients. This measure can be useful in the community but may not be sufficient within the healthcare facility.

Choice D rationale:

Recommending the influenza vaccine for healthcare workers is a crucial prevention strategy. Vaccination is one of the most effective ways to protect healthcare workers and their patients from the influenza virus. By vaccinating healthcare workers, the risk of spreading the virus within the healthcare setting is significantly reduced.

Choice A rationale:

Avoiding vaccination and relying on natural immunity is not the best approach to prevent influenza. Natural immunity may not provide adequate protection against the constantly changing influenza virus, and the risk of severe illness and complications is higher without vaccination.

Choice B rationale:

Washing hands frequently and using alcohol-based hand sanitizer are effective preventive measures for various infections, including the flu. However, they are not sufficient on their own to prevent influenza entirely. Vaccination remains the primary and most effective way to prevent the flu.

Choice C rationale:

Getting the influenza vaccine every year before the flu season starts is the most effective way to prevent influenza. The flu virus undergoes frequent changes, necessitating an annual vaccine update to match the circulating strains and provide optimal protection.

Choice D rationale:

Influenza vaccines do not contain live influenza viruses. The majority of influenza vaccines are inactivated or made from components of the virus, making it impossible for them to cause the flu in vaccinated individuals. Some vaccines, like the nasal spray, may contain weakened live viruses, but they are modified not to cause illness in healthy individuals.

Choice A rationale:

The rapid antigen test for influenza generally has high specificity but low sensitivity. It means that the test is relatively good at correctly identifying people without influenza (true negatives) but may miss some true positive cases, leading to false-negative results.

Choice B rationale:

The rapid antigen test does not detect influenza viruses in blood samples; it is designed to detect the virus in respiratory secretions, such as nasal swabs. The results are available within minutes, not hours.

Choice C rationale:

The rapid antigen test provides quick results, usually within 15-30 minutes, and is not a prolonged waiting period like 3 to 10 days.

Choice D rationale:

The nurse should inform the client that the rapid antigen test is not suitable for confirming the diagnosis of influenza. While it can quickly identify some cases of influenza, it is not as reliable as other diagnostic methods like molecular tests (PCR) for confirming influenza. False-negative results are more likely with rapid antigen tests, and negative results may need to be confirmed with more sensitive tests if symptoms persist.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should not cohort patients with different strains of influenza because different strains may have varying levels of virulence and infectivity. Cohorting patients with different strains could increase the risk of cross-infection and make it challenging to implement appropriate isolation measures for each strain.

Choice B rationale:

Limiting the number of visitors and staff entering the room is crucial to prevent the spread of influenza to vulnerable patients and healthcare workers. Influenza spreads through respiratory droplets, and restricting access can help contain the virus.

Choice C rationale:

Instructing patients and visitors to dispose of tissues properly is essential as influenza is transmitted through respiratory secretions. Proper disposal of contaminated tissues can reduce the risk of indirect transmission through contact with contaminated surfaces.

Choice D rationale:

Administering antiviral drugs to all patients regardless of symptoms is not recommended. Antiviral treatment is generally reserved for patients at high risk for severe complications or those who present early in the course of the illness. Universal administration may lead to unnecessary drug use and potential side effects.

Choice E rationale:

Implementing standard precautions and droplet precautions is crucial when caring for patients with suspected or confirmed influenza. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, wearing appropriate personal protective equipment, and following proper infection control protocols. Droplet precautions specifically address the transmission of respiratory droplets, which is a significant mode of influenza spread.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should not cohort patients with different strains of influenza because different strains may have varying levels of virulence and infectivity. Cohorting patients with different strains could increase the risk of cross-infection and make it challenging to implement appropriate isolation measures for each strain.

Choice B rationale:

Limiting the number of visitors and staff entering the room is crucial to prevent the spread of influenza to vulnerable patients and healthcare workers. Influenza spreads through respiratory droplets, and restricting access can help contain the virus.

Choice C rationale:

Instructing patients and visitors to dispose of tissues properly is essential as influenza is transmitted through respiratory secretions. Proper disposal of contaminated tissues can reduce the risk of indirect transmission through contact with contaminated surfaces.

Choice D rationale:

Administering antiviral drugs to all patients regardless of symptoms is not recommended. Antiviral treatment is generally reserved for patients at high risk for severe complications or those who present early in the course of the illness. Universal administration may lead to unnecessary drug use and potential side effects.

Choice E rationale:

Implementing standard precautions and droplet precautions is crucial when caring for patients with suspected or confirmed influenza. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, wearing appropriate personal protective equipment, and following proper infection control protocols. Droplet precautions specifically address the transmission of respiratory droplets, which is a significant mode of influenza spread.

Choice A rationale:

Sharing injection equipment can transmit HIV, but it is not the main route of transmission. This mode of transmission is more associated with other blood-borne infections like Hepatitis B and C.

Choice B rationale:

Mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding can transmit HIV, but it is not the main route of transmission in the general population.

Choice C rationale:

Unprotected sexual intercourse is the main route for HIV transmission in the general population. Sexual contact with an infected person without using barrier methods like condoms can facilitate the spread of the virus.

Choice D rationale:

Occupational exposure to infected blood is a potential mode of transmission for healthcare workers, but it is not the main route of transmission for the general population.

Choice E rationale:

Blood transfusion from an infected donor was a significant mode of HIV transmission in the past, but extensive screening of blood donations has made this mode of transmission extremely rare.

Choice A rationale:

Abstinence from drug use is an ideal approach, but it may not be practical for individuals struggling with addiction. Harm reduction strategies aim to reduce the negative consequences of drug use while acknowledging that complete abstinence may not be immediately achievable for everyone.

Choice B rationale:

Needle exchange programs are effective harm reduction strategies for individuals who inject drugs. These programs provide clean needles and syringes, reducing the risk of HIV transmission through contaminated needles.

Choice C rationale:

Condom use during sexual intercourse is important for preventing sexually transmitted infections, including HIV. However, this choice specifically asks about harm reduction strategies for individuals who inject drugs.

Choice D rationale:

Laws and policies to reduce stigma are essential for promoting understanding and compassion towards individuals living with HIV. However, this choice does not directly address harm reduction strategies for drug injection.

Choice E rationale:

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for sexual partners can be effective in preventing HIV transmission, but it is not directly related to harm reduction for individuals who inject drugs. PrEP is a preventive measure for those at risk of contracting HIV through sexual activity.

Choice A rationale:

HIV is not a bacterial infection but a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. It cannot be treated with antibiotics, as antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is correct. HIV attacks and destroys the CD4+ T cells, which are crucial for maintaining the immune system. As the virus replicates and damages these cells, the body becomes more susceptible to infections and other illnesses.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. HIV can be transmitted through various means, including unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, mother-to-child during childbirth or breastfeeding, and blood transfusions with infected blood.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. There is no cure for HIV, and relying solely on herbal remedies without taking antiretroviral medications would be ineffective and dangerous. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is the standard treatment for managing HIV and preventing its progression to AIDS.

Choice A rationale:

HIV testing is recommended for everyone, regardless of risk factors. It is essential to identify HIV infections early, as early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent further transmission.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect and unethical. Informed consent and counseling are crucial before HIV testing to ensure individuals are aware of the implications of the test and the disease.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is accurate. Antibody tests are the most common and reliable tests used for the diagnosis of HIV infection. These tests detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to the HIV virus.

Choice D rationale:

Nucleic acid tests (NAT) are not used to detect antibodies against HIV. Instead, NAT is used for early detection of the virus itself, not antibodies, and is typically employed in specific situations like testing donated blood or for early diagnosis during the window period before antibodies develop.

Choice A rationale:

This statement is correct. HIV-1 is more prevalent in West Africa and has a slower progression to AIDS compared to HIV-2.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect. HIV-2 is actually less virulent than HIV-1, and it is more commonly found in West Africa and certain parts of Asia.

Choice C rationale:

HIV-1 is divided into four groups (M, N, O, and P), each having several subtypes. HIV-2, on the other hand, is divided into nine subtypes (A to I)

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. The most common HIV-1 subtype worldwide is group M, specifically subtype C, which is predominant in sub-Saharan Africa and parts of Asia. The most common subtype in the US is subtype

B.

Choice A rationale:

This statement is inaccurate. HIV is not an acute infection that resolves without treatment. It is a chronic condition that persists in the body, and without treatment, it can progress to AIDS, which can be life-threatening.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is also inaccurate. While Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) is highly effective in controlling HIV and improving the quality of life for people living with the virus, it is not a curative treatment. HIV remains in the body, and stopping ART can lead to viral rebound.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. HIV testing is essential, even in the absence of visible symptoms. Many individuals with HIV may not show any symptoms for years, but early detection through testing allows for timely intervention and better disease management.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct statement. HIV is primarily transmitted through contact with infected body fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. Common modes of transmission include unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing of contaminated needles, and from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.

Choice A rationale:

Consistent and correct use of condoms is an essential biomedical intervention for HIV prevention. When used consistently and properly, condoms act as a barrier to prevent the transmission of HIV during sexual intercourse.

Choice B rationale:

Abstinence from sexual activity is an important behavioral approach to prevent HIV transmission. However, the question specifically asks for biomedical interventions, which involve the use of medical or pharmaceutical methods.

Choice C rationale:

Sharing injection equipment with trusted partners is a risky behavior that can lead to HIV transmission. It is not a biomedical intervention but rather an unsafe practice.

Choice D rationale:

Taking Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) is an effective biomedical intervention for HIV prevention. PrEP involves taking antiretroviral medications before potential exposure to HIV to reduce the risk of infection in high-risk individuals.

Choice A rationale:

A person's age can influence susceptibility to HIV infection. Younger individuals may engage in riskier behaviors or may have incomplete sex education, making them more vulnerable to HIV transmission.

Choice B rationale:

Circumcision status of the male partner can impact susceptibility. Circumcision has been associated with a reduced risk of HIV transmission during heterosexual intercourse.

Choice C rationale:

Having a high viral load in an HIV-positive individual increases the risk of transmitting the virus to others.

Choice D rationale:

Genetic factors can play a role in determining a person's susceptibility to HIV infection. Certain genetic variations may affect the immune response to the virus.

Choice E rationale:

Being female can influence susceptibility to HIV infection due to biological and social factors. Women may have a higher risk of infection during unprotected heterosexual intercourse. Additionally, gender disparities in access to healthcare and prevention resources can also contribute to higher vulnerability.

Choice A rationale:

The acute primary infection is the initial phase of HIV infection and occurs shortly after exposure. During this stage, the viral load may be high, but the CD4 count is usually not significantly affected yet.

Choice B rationale:

The asymptomatic stage follows the acute primary infection and is characterized by no symptoms or mild symptoms. The viral load and CD4 count may be stable or slowly changing during this stage.

Choice C rationale:

The symptomatic stage is the next phase of HIV infection, also known as the early symptomatic or clinical latency stage. During this stage, the viral load is often associated with a high viral load and a low CD4 count. The immune system is weakened, and the individual may experience various HIV-related symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is susceptible to various opportunistic infections and certain cancers. While the viral load remains high, the CD4 count is significantly low.

Choice A rationale:

The asymptomatic stage is characterized by no symptoms or mild symptoms. Many individuals with HIV may not be aware of their infection during this stage as they may not experience any obvious signs of illness.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect. The asymptomatic stage may see relatively stable CD4 counts and viral loads, rather than a gradual decline in CD4 count and a gradual increase in viral load.

Choice C rationale:

During the asymptomatic stage, the viral load may remain at detectable levels, but the individual may not have any symptoms. Regular HIV testing is crucial to detect the infection during this stage.

Choice D rationale:

Acute retroviral syndrome (ARS) or seroconversion illness occurs during the acute primary infection, not the asymptomatic stage.

Choice E rationale:

Without treatment, the asymptomatic stage can last for up to 10-15 years. However, the duration can vary widely from person to person.

Choice A rationale:

This statement is correct. Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, lungs, or esophagus is one of the opportunistic infections associated with advanced HIV disease and AIDS.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is correct. Kaposi's sarcoma is another opportunistic infection commonly associated with AIDS.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is correct. Encephalopathy, HIV-related, is an opportunistic infection that can define AIDS.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Antiretroviral therapy is a lifelong treatment for HIV infection, and its discontinuation should not be based solely on the CD4 count falling below 200 cells/uL. The client needs further education on the importance of continuous treatment to manage HIV effectively and prevent opportunistic infections.

Choice A rationale:

Nucleic acid tests (NAT) are highly sensitive tests that can detect HIV infection early, but the window period stated (3-12 weeks) is not accurate. NAT can detect HIV RNA as early as 9-11 days after exposure, but it may take up to 2-6 weeks for it to be reliably detected.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct answer. Nucleic acid tests (NAT) can detect HIV infection as early as 2-6 weeks after exposure, making it the option with the shortest window period.

Choice C rationale:

This option is incorrect. NAT can detect HIV infection earlier than the time range stated (10-33 days)

Choice D rationale:

This option is incorrect. NAT can detect HIV infection much earlier than 6 months after exposure.

Choice A rationale:

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) can help increase CD4 count, but the primary goal of ART is to suppress viral replication and reduce viral load to undetectable levels, thereby preserving immune function.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct answer. The goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is to reduce viral load to undetectable levels, which helps in preventing disease progression and transmission of HIV.

Choice C rationale:

Preventing opportunistic infections and cancers is an important benefit of ART, but the primary goal is to suppress viral replication.

Choice D rationale:

Adherence to the prescribed regimen and schedule is crucial for the effectiveness of ART, but it is not the primary goal of ART itself.

Choice A rationale:

The client's statement about Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) is accurate. INSTIs block the enzyme integrase, preventing the insertion of HIV DNA into the host cell genome.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct answer. The client's statement about Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) is incorrect. NNRTIs work by directly binding to reverse transcriptase, blocking its activity, and preventing HIV replication.

Choice C rationale:

The client's statement about Protease inhibitors (PIs) is accurate. PIs block the enzyme protease, inhibiting the cleavage of HIV proteins and preventing the formation of mature viral particles.

Choice D rationale:

The client's statement about Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) is accurate. NRTIs are incorporated into the growing viral DNA chain, leading to chain termination and preventing further viral replication.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should consider drug efficacy, safety, and tolerability when selecting the appropriate ART regimen for the client. Different ART drugs have varying efficacy in suppressing viral replication, potential side effects, and interactions with other medications. This consideration helps ensure the chosen regimen is effective and well-tolerated by the client.

Choice B rationale:

CD4 count and viral load are essential factors to consider when starting ART. The CD4 count reflects the client's immune status, and the viral load indicates the level of HIV replication. These parameters help gauge disease progression and monitor the response to therapy over time.

Choice D rationale:

The patient's preferences and lifestyle should be taken into account when selecting an ART regimen. Some medications may require strict adherence schedules or specific food restrictions, and considering the patient's preferences can enhance treatment adherence and overall outcomes.

Choice E rationale:

The number of opportunistic infections present is an important consideration when starting ART. Opportunistic infections are more likely to occur in individuals with low CD4 counts and can affect the choice of ART drugs and the need for prophylactic treatments.

Choice A rationale:

ART aims to reduce viral load to undetectable levels. When the viral load is undetectable, the risk of disease progression and transmission to others is significantly reduced.

Choice B rationale:

The primary goal of ART is to prevent opportunistic infections and cancers. By suppressing viral replication and boosting the immune system (measured by CD4 count improvement), ART helps prevent these severe complications of HIV infection.

Choice D rationale:

Improvement in CD4 count is a significant goal of ART. CD4 count reflects the health of the immune system, and increasing it is essential for better immune function and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections.

Choice E rationale:

ART can reduce the risk of transmission to others. When viral load is undetectable, the risk of transmitting HIV to sexual partners or through shared needles is greatly reduced.

Choice A rationale:

Monitoring for signs and symptoms of opportunistic infections should be a priority during the nursing assessment of a patient with HIV/AIDS. Opportunistic infections are common in individuals with compromised immune systems due to low CD4 counts, and early detection allows prompt intervention and improved outcomes.

Assessing emotional and social well-being (Choice B) is important but may not be the highest priority in the initial assessment, as addressing immediate health risks takes precedence.

Providing counseling, feedback, and reinforcement for medication adherence (Choice C) is essential for long-term management but should not overshadow the immediate need to monitor for opportunistic infections.

Educating the patient about HIV/AIDS transmission modes (Choice D) is crucial, but it can be addressed during the patient's hospital stay or subsequent visits, while the assessment for opportunistic infections requires immediate attention to ensure timely treatment.

Choice A rationale:

Assisting the client with medication administration and refills is crucial in managing HIV/AIDS. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is vital for controlling the viral load and preventing the progression of the disease. By helping the client with medication administration and refills, the nurse ensures that the client follows the prescribed treatment plan consistently.

Choice B rationale:

Educating the client about safe sex practices and personal hygiene is essential in preventing the transmission of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) Providing information about condom use, practicing abstinence or mutual monogamy, and maintaining good personal hygiene can significantly reduce the risk of spreading the virus.

Choice C rationale:

Administering prophylactic antibiotics or antifungals as prescribed is important in managing opportunistic infections that can arise in individuals with weakened immune systems due to HIV/AIDS. Prophylactic treatment helps prevent these infections or reduces their severity.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the client to express their feelings and concerns is essential for providing psychosocial support. Living with HIV/AIDS can be emotionally challenging, and allowing the client to share their emotions helps them cope with the disease, reduces stress, and enhances overall well-being.

Choice E rationale:

Performing male circumcision is not a nursing intervention for a client with HIV/AIDS. While male circumcision has shown to reduce the risk of HIV transmission in some studies, it is not a primary nursing intervention for managing HIV/AIDS.