Choice A reason:

This is a correct statement. The central nervous system (CNS) is responsible for processing sensory information, generating motor commands, and regulating cognitive and emotional functions.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect statement. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of the cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and ganglia that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct statement. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates involuntary functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands. It has two branches: the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS).

Choice D reason:

This is a correct statement. The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) prepares the body for stress or emergency situations by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and blood glucose levels. It also dilates the pupils, bronchi, and blood vessels to skeletal muscles.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. A spinal cord injury at the level of T6 affects the sensory nerves that innervate the lower half of the body, resulting in loss of sensation below the waist.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. A spinal cord injury at the level of T6 affects the motor nerves that innervate the lower half of the body, resulting in paralysis of the lower extremities.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. A spinal cord injury at the level of T6 affects the autonomic nerves that innervate the bladder and bowel, resulting in impaired bladder and bowel control.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. A spinal cord injury at the level of T6 does not affect the cranial nerves that innervate the pharynx and esophagus, which are responsible for swallowing.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. A spinal cord injury at the level of T6 affects the autonomic nerves that innervate the sweat glands and thermoregulatory centers, resulting in decreased sweating and shivering.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not give information that might overwhelm or distress the client without assessing their readiness to learn.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not give false reassurance or minimize the client's condition.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not ask questions that might confuse or frustrate the client who has memory impairment.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should use therapeutic communication techniques such as exploring feelings, reflecting, and active listening to provide emotional support and establish rapport with the client.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Glia cells are supportive cells that provide insulation, protection, nutrition, and regulation for neurons. One type of glia cells, called oligodendrocytes, produce myelin that insulates nerve fibers and increases the speed of electrical impulses.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Glia cells do not transmit electrical impulses along nerve fibers. This is the function of neurons, which are the primary cells of the nervous system.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Glia cells do not secrete neurotransmitters that communicate with other cells. This is also the function of neurons, which release neurotransmitters at the synapses to transmit signals to other neurons, muscles, or glands.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Glia cells do not destroy pathogens and foreign substances in the nervous system. This is the function of microglia, which are a type of immune cells that reside in the nervous system and act as macrophages.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. A tonic-clonic seizure (also known as a grand mal seizure) is characterized by alternating phases of muscle rigidity and jerking movements, along with loss of consciousness and postictal confusion.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. An absence seizure (also known as a petit mal seizure) is characterized by brief episodes of staring, blinking, lip smacking, or other subtle movements, along with impaired awareness and no postictal confusion.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. A myoclonic seizure is characterized by sudden, brief, and irregular muscle contractions, usually involving the arms, legs, or trunk.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. An atonic seizure (also known as a drop attack) is characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone, resulting in falling or collapsing.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees helps to reduce ICP by facilitating venous drainage from the brain and decreasing cerebral edema.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Administering morphine sulfate for pain relief can increase ICP by causing vasodilation, respiratory depression, and increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing exercises can increase ICP by increasing intrathoracic pressure, which impedes venous drainage from the brain.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Performing passive range of motion exercises can increase ICP by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, which increases blood pressure and cerebral blood flow.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevated CSF protein level is a common finding in clients who have GBS due to demyelination of peripheral nerves. It does not indicate infection or inflammation and does not require immediate intervention.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Decreased serum CK level is a normal finding in clients who have GBS because CK is released from damaged muscle tissue and GBS does not affect muscle cells directly.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Increased CSF WBC count indicates infection or inflammation in the central nervous system (CNS), which can be a complication of GBS or a sign of another condition such as meningitis or encephalitis. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and treatment.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Decreased serum sodium level can occur.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Encouraging the client to perform ADLs independently helps to maintain their functional ability, self-esteem, and quality of life. The nurse should provide assistance and supervision as needed, but avoid doing everything for the client.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Providing the client with a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet can interfere with the absorption and effectiveness of levodopa-carbidopa, which is the main medication used to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should provide the client with a balanced diet that includes adequate fluids and fiber.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Administering levodopa-carbidopa as prescribed helps to reduce the symptoms of Parkinson's disease such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Levodopa is converted to dopamine in the brain, which is deficient in clients who have Parkinson's disease. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the peripheral tissues, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Teaching the client to use assistive devices such as a walker or cane helps to improve their mobility, balance, and safety. The nurse should also teach the client strategies to overcome freezing episodes, such as rocking from side to side or stepping over an imaginary line.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. Monitoring the client for orthostatic hypotension helps to prevent falls and injuries. Orthostatic hypotension is a common complication of Parkinson's disease and its medications, which can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. The nurse should instruct the client to change positions slowly and report any symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Frequent headaches are a common symptom of CTE, which is a progressive degenerative brain disease caused by repeated head trauma. Headaches may be triggered by physical or mental exertion, stress, or noise.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Memory loss is another common symptom of CTE, which affects the areas of the brain responsible for learning and recall. Memory loss may manifest as difficulty remembering names, dates, events, or conversations.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Personality changes are also a common symptom of CTE, which affects the areas of the brain responsible for mood and behavior. Personality changes may include irritability, aggression, depression, anxiety, impulsivity, or apathy.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. All of the above are possible symptoms of CTE, which can vary in severity and onset depending on the individual and the extent of brain damage. Other possible symptoms include confusion, cognitive impairment, speech problems, vision problems, balance problems, motor problems, or suicidal thoughts.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Monitoring the client's GCS score helps to assess the level of consciousness and neurological function after a concussion. The GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating more severe brain injury.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Administering acetaminophen for pain relief helps to reduce headache and discomfort after a concussion. Acetaminophen is preferred over nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or aspirin, which can increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Encouraging the client to rest in a dark and quiet room helps to promote healing and recovery after a concussion. Rest includes physical and mental rest, which means avoiding strenuous activities, sports, driving, work, school, or screen time until symptoms resolve.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Providing stimulating activities such as puzzles and games can worsen symptoms and delay recovery after a concussion. The client should avoid cognitive tasks that require concentration, attention, or memory until cleared by a health care provider.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. Educating the client about the signs of post-concussion syndrome helps to prepare them for possible complications and when to seek medical attention. Post-concussion syndrome is a condition in which symptoms persist for weeks or months after a concussion. Symptoms may include headache, dizziness, fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, depression, or cognitive impairment.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client to resume their normal activities as long as they wear a helmet. A helmet does not prevent concussions from occurring and may give a false sense of security. The client should not return to sports or other physical activities until they are asymptomatic and cleared by their doctor.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client to avoid any physical activity until their symptoms are completely gone. While the client should avoid strenuous or risky activities that could cause another concussion, they may be able to engage in some light or moderate activities that do not worsen their symptoms or increase their heart rate. The client should follow a gradual return-to-play protocol under the guidance of their doctor.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client to consult their doctor first and follow their recommendations. The doctor will evaluate the client's recovery and determine when it is safe for them to return to sports or other physical activities. The doctor will also provide a gradual return-to-play protocol that involves increasing the intensity and duration of activity over several days or weeks.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client to ask their coach or trainer what they think. The coach or trainer may not be qualified or knowledgeable enough to assess the client's condition and readiness to return to sports or other physical activities. The client should rely on their doctor's advice and not on their coach's or trainer's opinion.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will take acetaminophen if they have a headache. Acetaminophen is a safe and effective medication for pain relief after a concussion. It does not increase the risk of bleeding or interfere with brain function.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will avoid drinking alcohol or taking sleeping pills. Alcohol and sleeping pills can worsen the symptoms and recovery of a concussion. They can also mask the signs of worsening brain injury or increase the risk of falls or accidents.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The client needs further teaching if they say they will check their pupils every hour for any changes. Checking the pupils is not a reliable or accurate way to monitor the condition of a concussion. Pupil changes may not occur until late stages of brain injury or may be caused by other factors such as light exposure or medication use.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will have someone stay with them for the next 24 hours. Having someone stay with them is a recommended precaution after a concussion. The person can observe the client for any signs of worsening brain injury such as confusion, vomiting, seizures, or loss of consciousness and call for help if needed.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to return to work or school as soon as possible after a concussion. The client should rest and avoid cognitive tasks that require concentration, attention, or memory until their symptoms resolve and they are cleared by their provider.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid driving or operating machinery until cleared by the provider after a concussion. Driving or operating machinery can be dangerous and impairing for the client who may have symptoms such as headache, dizziness, fatigue, blurred vision, or slowed reaction time.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to resume sports or physical activities within a week after a concussion. The client should avoid strenuous or risky activities that could cause another concussion or worsen their symptoms until they are asymptomatic and cleared by their provider.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to take ibuprofen or aspirin for pain relief after a concussion. Ibuprofen and aspirin are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that can increase the risk of bleeding in the brain or interfere with blood clotting.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Administering antiemetic medication as prescribed is an appropriate action for the nurse to take, but not the first one. The nurse should first assess the client's neurological status, as nausea and vomiting can be signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) or worsening brain injury.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Assessing the client's level of consciousness and orientation is the first action that the nurse should take when caring for a client who has a concussion and reports nausea and vomiting. The nurse should use tools such as the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) or the Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive (AVPU) scale to evaluate the client's neurological function and identify any changes or deterioration.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Providing oral fluids and crackers to the client is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take, especially not the first one. The nurse should avoid giving anything by mouth to the client who has nausea and vomiting, as this can increase the risk of aspiration or dehydration.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Notifying the provider of the client's condition is an important action for the nurse to take, but not the first one. The nurse should first assess the client's neurological status and gather relevant data before reporting to the provider.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need immediate reporting if they have a GCS score of 15. This is the highest possible score on the GCS, which indicates that the client is fully alert and oriented.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. The client needs immediate reporting if they have unequal pupils with a difference of 2 mm. This is an abnormal finding that indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP) or cranial nerve damage, which can be life-threatening.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need immediate reporting if they have a positive Babinski reflex on both feet. This is a normal finding in infants and young children, but an abnormal finding in adults. However, it does not indicate an acute or urgent condition, but rather a chronic or long-term damage to the corticospinal tract.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need immediate reporting if they have difficulty performing finger-to-nose test. This is an abnormal finding that indicates cerebellar dysfunction, which affects coordination and balance. However, it does not indicate an acute or urgent condition, but rather a mild or moderate impairment.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Wearing appropriate protective equipment such as helmets and mouth guards helps to reduce the risk and severity of concussion by absorbing some of the impact force and protecting the head and teeth from injury.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Reporting any symptoms of concussion to the coach or trainer immediately helps to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment of concussion by a health care provider. Symptoms may include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, confusion, memory loss, blurred vision, or sensitivity to light or noise.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Seeking medical attention if symptoms persist for more than 24 hours is not enough for concussion management. The nurse should advise the athletes to seek medical attention as soon as possible after a suspected concussion, regardless of how long the symptoms last or how severe they are.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Taking a baseline cognitive test before the season starts helps to establish a reference point for comparison after a concussion. A cognitive test measures mental functions such as memory, attention, reaction time, and problem-solving.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. Drinking plenty of fluids and eating a balanced diet after a concussion helps to promote healing and recovery by providing hydration and nutrition to the brain and body.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow to the brain in clients who have an ischemic stroke. It should be administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset and after ruling out hemorrhagic stroke.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces intracranial pressure (ICP) by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream. It is used for clients who have increased ICP due to cerebral edema, not ischemic stroke.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that prevents vasospasm and improves cerebral blood flow in clients who have a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is a type of hemorrhagic stroke, not ischemic stroke.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats seizures in clients who have a brain injury or tumor, not ischemic stroke.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Sudden severe headache is a common symptom of hemorrhagic stroke, which is caused by bleeding into the brain tissue or subarachnoid space. The headache may be described as "the worst headache of my life" or "thunderclap headache".

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Facial drooping is a common symptom of ischemic stroke, which is caused by a blockage in a cerebral artery that reduces blood flow to the brain tissue. Facial drooping may affect one side of the face and cause asymmetry or difficulty smiling.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Slurred speech is another common symptom of ischemic stroke, which affects the areas of the brain responsible for language and communication. Slurred speech may also be accompanied by aphasia, which is difficulty understanding or expressing words.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Nuchal rigidity is a common symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is a type of hemorrhagic stroke that involves bleeding into the space between the brain and the meninges. Nuchal rigidity refers to stiffness or pain in the neck when flexing or extending it.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. Hemiparesis is a common symptom of both ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke, which affect the motor areas of the brain and cause weakness or paralysis on one side of the body. Hemiparesis may affect the face, arm, leg, or trunk on the opposite side of the brain injury.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevated troponin level is not a finding that indicates atrial fibrillation as the cause of ischemic stroke. Troponin is a cardiac enzyme that is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as in myocardial infarction (MI) or heart failure. Troponin level may be elevated in some clients who have ischemic stroke due to concurrent cardiac conditions, but it does not indicate the source of embolism.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Elevated D-dimer level is a finding that indicates atrial fibrillation as the cause of ischemic stroke. D-dimer is a protein fragment that is produced when a blood clot is dissolved by fibrinolysis. D-dimer level may be elevated in clients who have ischemic stroke due to embolism from atrial fibrillation, which is an irregular and rapid heart rhythm that causes poor blood flow and clot formation in the atria.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevated C-reactive protein level is not a finding that indicates atrial fibrillation as the cause of ischemic stroke. C-reactive protein is an inflammatory marker that is produced by the liver in response to infection, inflammation, or tissue injury. C-reactive protein level may be elevated in clients who have ischemic stroke due to various causes, but it does not indicate the source of embolism.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevated INR is not a finding that indicates atrial fibrillation as the cause of ischemic stroke. INR is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot, which reflects the effect of anticoagulant medications such as warfarin. INR may be elevated in clients who have ischemic stroke due to anticoagulant therapy, but it does not indicate the source of embolism.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has a hemorrhagic stroke. Elevating the head of the bed can lower blood pressure and reduce cerebral perfusion pressure, which can worsen brain ischemia and injury.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Administering aspirin as prescribed is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has a hemorrhagic stroke. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits

the clotting of blood and increases the risk of bleeding in the brain or elsewhere. Aspirin is contraindicated for clients who have a hemorrhagic stroke and may worsen their condition.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Monitoring blood pressure and keeping it within normal range is an appropriate intervention for a client who has a hemorrhagic stroke. Blood pressure is a major factor that affects the severity and outcome of hemorrhagic stroke. High blood pressure can increase the bleeding and ICP, while low blood pressure can reduce cerebral perfusion and oxygenation. The nurse should monitor blood pressure frequently and administer antihypertensive or vasopressor medications as prescribed to maintain optimal blood pressure.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Performing passive range of motion exercises is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has a hemorrhagic stroke. Passive range of motion exercises can increase ICP and bleeding by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, which increases blood pressure and cerebral blood flow. The nurse should avoid any activity that can increase ICP or bleeding in the acute phase of hemorrhagic stroke.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that they need to take medication to prevent blood clots from forming in their arteries after a TIA. A TIA is caused by a temporary blockage in a cerebral artery that reduces blood flow to the brain tissue and causes stroke-like symptoms that resolve within 24 hours. However, a TIA increases the risk of having a full-blown ischemic stroke in the future, which can cause permanent brain damage or death. Therefore, antiplatelet or anticoagulant medications are prescribed to prevent clot formation and reduce stroke risk.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they need to take medication to reduce the swelling in their brain after a stroke. This is not the purpose of medication therapy for a TIA. A TIA does not cause significant swelling or edema in the brain, unlike a hemorrhagic stroke, which involves bleeding into the brain tissue or subarachnoid space. Swelling in the brain can increase intracranial pressure (ICP) and cause further brain damage or herniation.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they need to take medication to lower their blood pressure and cholesterol levels. This is not the immediate purpose of medication therapy for a TIA, although it may be part of the long-term management of stroke risk factors. High blood pressure and high cholesterol are common causes of atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arterial walls that narrows the lumen and reduces blood flow. Atherosclerosis can lead to ischemic stroke if a piece of plaque breaks off and blocks a cerebral artery.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they need to take medication to control their blood sugar and prevent diabetes. This is not the immediate purpose of medication therapy for a TIA, although it may be part of the long-term management of stroke risk factors. High blood sugar and diabetes are common causes of endothelial dysfunction, which is the impairment of the inner lining of the blood vessels that regulates blood flow and clotting. Endothelial dysfunction can lead to ischemic stroke if a blood clot forms and blocks a cerebral artery.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Inspecting the client's feet daily for any injuries or infections is an important intervention for a client who has peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes mellitus. Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves in the extremities, causing numbness, tingling, pain, or weakness. Diabetes mellitus is a common cause of peripheral neuropathy, as high blood sugar levels can damage the nerves and blood vessels. The client may not feel any cuts, blisters, ulcers, or infections on their feet due to reduced sensation, which can lead to complications such as gangrene or amputation. Therefore, the nurse should inspect the client's feet daily and report any abnormalities to the provider.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Massaging the client's legs and feet with lotion to improve circulation is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes mellitus. Massaging the client's legs and feet can cause further damage to the nerves or skin, especially if there are any injuries or infections present. Lotion can also increase the risk of infection by creating a moist environment for bacteria to grow. The nurse should avoid massaging the client's legs and feet and use other methods to improve circulation, such as elevating the legs, wearing compression stockings, or exercising regularly.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Encouraging the client to wear tight-fitting shoes and socks to prevent friction is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes mellitus. Tight-fitting shoes and socks can impair blood flow and oxygen delivery to the feet, which can worsen peripheral neuropathy and increase the risk of tissue damage or necrosis. Tight-fitting shoes and socks can also cause pressure ulcers, blisters, or corns on the feet, which can become infected or difficult to heal. The nurse should encourage the client to wear loose-fitting shoes and socks that are comfortable and breathable.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Teaching the client to soak their feet in warm water for 15 minutes twice a day is not an appropriate intervention for a client who has peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes mellitus. Soaking the feet in warm water can cause burns or scalds on the skin, as the client may not be able to sense the temperature of the water due to reduced sensation. Soaking the feet in warm water can also increase the risk of infection by softening the skin and making it more prone to injury or breakdown. The nurse should teach the client to wash their feet with mild soap and water daily, dry them thoroughly, and check the water temperature with their elbow or thermometer before using it.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Low back pain that radiates down the leg is a common symptom of radiculopathy due to a herniated intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine. Radiculopathy is a condition that affects the nerve roots that exit from the spinal cord, causing pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness along their distribution. A herniated intervertebral disc is a common cause of radiculopathy, as it can compress or irritate the nerve roots in the spinal canal or intervertebral foramen. The pain may follow a dermatomal pattern depending on which nerve root is affected.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Muscle weakness or atrophy in the affected leg is another common symptom of radiculopathy due to a herniated intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine. Muscle weakness or atrophy may result from reduced nerve stimulation or innervation to the muscles in the leg, which can affect their function and appearance. The muscle weakness or atrophy may follow a myotomal pattern depending on which nerve root is affected.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes in the affected leg is another common symptom of radiculopathy due to a herniated intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine. Deep tendon reflexes are involuntary responses that are elicited by tapping on specific tendons with a reflex hammer, such as the patellar or Achilles tendon. Diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes may indicate damage or dysfunction of the nerve roots that mediate the reflex arc. The diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes may follow a segmental pattern depending on which nerve root is affected.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Positive straight leg raise test on the affected side is another common symptom of radiculopathy due to a herniated intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine. The straight leg raise test is a physical examination maneuver that involves raising the client's leg while keeping it straight and flexing the foot. A positive test is indicated by pain in the low back or leg that is reproduced or worsened by the maneuver, which suggests nerve root compression or irritation by the herniated disc.

Choice E reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Loss of bladder or bowel control is not a common symptom of radiculopathy due to a herniated intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine. Loss of bladder or bowel control may indicate cauda equina syndrome, which is a rare but serious condition that involves compression of the nerve roots at the end of the spinal cord, causing severe low back pain, saddle anesthesia, sexual dysfunction, and urinary or fecal incontinence. Cauda equina syndrome requires immediate medical attention and surgical decompression to prevent permanent nerve damage or paralysis.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will wear braces or splints to support their feet and ankles. Braces or splints are helpful devices for clients who have CMT, which is a hereditary disorder that affects the peripheral nerves and causes muscle weakness, atrophy, and deformity in the feet, legs, hands, and arms. Braces or splints can improve mobility, stability, and alignment of the affected limbs.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will avoid strenuous exercise and heavy lifting. These activities can worsen the symptoms and progression of CMT, as they can cause fatigue, injury, or overuse of the weakened muscles and nerves. The client should engage in moderate exercise and physical therapy that are tailored to their abilities and needs.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The client needs further teaching if they say they will take vitamin B12 supplements to prevent nerve damage. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the peripheral nerves and causes numbness, tingling, pain, or weakness in the extremities. However, vitamin B12 supplements do not prevent or treat CMT, which is a genetic disorder that affects the structure and function of the peripheral nerves.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The client does not need further teaching if they say they will inspect their feet daily for any injuries or infections. This is an important self-care measure for clients who have CMT, as they may have reduced sensation, circulation, or healing in their feet due to nerve damage. The client should inspect their feet daily and report any abnormalities to their provider.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Spurling's test is a physical examination maneuver that involves extending, rotating, and laterally flexing the client's neck to the affected side and applying downward pressure on the head. A positive test is indicated by pain or paresthesia radiating from the neck to the shoulder or arm on the same side, which suggests nerve root compression or irritation by cervical spine degeneration.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Romberg's test is a physical examination maneuver that involves asking the client to stand with their feet together and eyes closed for 20 seconds while observing for balance and sway. A positive test is indicated by loss of balance or increased sway, which suggests cerebellar dysfunction or proprioceptive impairment.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Tinel's sign is a physical examination maneuver that involves tapping over the median nerve at the wrist or the ulnar nerve at the elbow. A positive sign is indicated by tingling or pain in the distribution of the nerve, which suggests nerve entrapment or injury.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Phalen's test is a physical examination maneuver that involves asking the client to hold their wrists in full flexion for 60 seconds while pressing the dorsal surfaces of their hands together. A positive test is indicated by numbness, tingling, or pain in the median nerve distribution of the hand, which suggests carpal tunnel syndrome.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should inform the client that the symptoms of peripheral neuropathy may improve after stopping chemotherapy, as chemotherapy is a common cause of peripheral neuropathy. Chemotherapy can damage the peripheral nerves and cause numbness, tingling, pain, or weakness in the extremities. The symptoms may be reversible or permanent depending on the type, dose, and duration of chemotherapy and the individual's response.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that the risk of peripheral neuropathy can be reduced by taking antioxidants, as there is no evidence to support this claim. Antioxidants are substances that protect the cells from oxidative stress and free radical damage, which may contribute to various diseases and aging. However, antioxidants have not been proven to prevent or treat peripheral neuropathy, and some antioxidants may interact with chemotherapy or other medications.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should inform the client that the treatment of peripheral neuropathy may include medications such as gabapentin or duloxetine, which are commonly used to manage neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that modulates calcium channels and reduces nerve excitability. Duloxetine is an antidepressant that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine and enhances pain inhibition. The nurse should also educate the client about the possible side effects and interactions of these medications.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should inform the client that the prevention of peripheral neuropathy includes avoiding alcohol and smoking, which are common risk factors for peripheral neuropathy. Alcohol and smoking can damage the peripheral nerves and blood vessels, impairing blood flow and oxygen delivery to the extremities. The nurse should advise the client to limit or quit alcohol and smoking and seek help if needed.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should inform the client that the complications of peripheral neuropathy may include falls or injuries, which can affect their safety and quality of life. Peripheral neuropathy can impair sensation, balance, coordination, and reflexes in the extremities, increasing the risk of falls or injuries. The nurse should teach the client strategies to prevent falls or injuries, such as wearing proper footwear, using assistive devices, removing hazards from the environment, and inspecting their feet daily for any wounds or infections.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client's family that AD is caused by a buildup of abnormal protein deposits called amyloid plaques and twisted fibers called neurofibrillary tangles in the brain that impair nerve function and communication. These changes lead to progressive loss of memory, language, reasoning, judgment, and other cognitive abilities.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client's family that AD is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain that affects movement and cognition. This is not the cause of AD, but rather Parkinson's disease (PD), which is another neurodegenerative disorder that affects the basal ganglia and causes tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client's family that AD is caused by an autoimmune disorder that attacks the myelin sheath of the nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. This is not the cause of AD, but rather multiple sclerosis (MS), which is another neurodegenerative disorder that causes demyelination and inflammation of the central nervous system (CNS) and leads to sensory, motor, and cognitive impairments.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client's family that AD is caused by a viral infection that destroys the neurons in the brain and causes inflammation and swelling. This is not the cause of AD, but rather encephalitis, which is an acute inflammatory condition of the brain that can be caused by various viruses or bacteria and can result in neurological deficits or death.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Resting tremor is a common symptom of PD, which occurs when the affected limb or body part shakes involuntarily at rest and stops with voluntary movement or sleep. Resting tremor usually affects one side of the body first and then progresses to both sides. It typically involves the hand, arm, leg, jaw, or tongue.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Muscle rigidity is another common symptom of PD, which occurs when there is increased resistance to passive movement of the joints due to sustained muscle contraction. Muscle rigidity can cause stiffness, pain, reduced range of motion, and difficulty initiating movement.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Bradykinesia is another common symptom of PD, which occurs when there is slowness or paucity of movement due to impaired initiation or execution of movement. Bradykinesia can affect various aspects of motor function, such as facial expression, speech, swallowing, gait, writing, dressing, and self-care.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Postural instability is another common symptom of PD, which occurs when there is impaired balance or coordination due to reduced postural reflexes or sensory feedback. Postural instability can cause falls, difficulty turning or changing direction, stooped posture, shuffling steps, or freezing episodes.

Choice E reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Nuchal rigidity is not a common symptom of PD, but rather a sign of meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage. Nuchal rigidity occurs when there is stiffness or pain in the neck when flexing or extending it due to inflammation or irritation of the meninges or subarachnoid space.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that works by increasing the level of acetylcholine in the brain, which is a neurotransmitter that is involved in memory, learning, and cognition. Donepezil can slow down the progression of AD and improve the client's memory and thinking abilities.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that donepezil will increase the level of dopamine in the brain and reduce their tremors and rigidity. This is not the mechanism or effect of donepezil, but rather levodopa or carbidopa, which are medications used to treat Parkinson's disease (PD). PD is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement and cognition.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that donepezil will prevent the inflammation and swelling in their brain and reduce their headaches and confusion. This is not the mechanism or effect of donepezil, but rather corticosteroids or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which are medications used to treat encephalitis or meningitis. Encephalitis or meningitis are inflammatory conditions of the brain or meninges that can be caused by various viruses or bacteria.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that donepezil will enhance the transmission of nerve impulses in their brain and improve their mood and behavior. This is not the mechanism or effect of donepezil, but rather antidepressants or mood stabilizers, which are medications used to treat depression or bipolar disorder. Depression or bipolar disorder are mood disorders that affect the levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, or dopamine in the brain.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Instructing the client to lift their feet and take big steps when walking is not an effective intervention for a client who has PD and experiences freezing episodes. Freezing episodes are sudden and brief periods of inability to move or initiate movement, especially when starting to walk, turning, or crossing a threshold. Lifting the feet and taking big steps may be difficult or impossible for the client during a freezing episode and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Instructing the client to use a walker or cane for support and stability is not an effective intervention for a client who has PD and experiences freezing episodes. A walker or cane may actually trigger or worsen freezing episodes by creating a visual cue that interferes with the initiation of movement. A walker or cane may also reduce the client's confidence and independence in walking.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Instructing the client to focus on an object or a line on the floor ahead of them is an effective intervention for a client who has PD and experiences freezing episodes. Focusing on an external cue can help the client overcome the internal blockage that prevents them from moving or initiating movement. Focusing on an object or a line can also help the client maintain their balance and direction while walking.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Instructing the client to hum or sing a song while walking is not an effective intervention for a client who has PD and experiences freezing episodes. Humming or singing a song may distract the client from their walking and cause them to lose their rhythm or coordination. Humming or singing a song may also increase the risk of aspiration or choking if the client has dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing due to impaired muscle control in PD.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that memantine will help reduce the amount of glutamate in their loved one's brain. Memantine is an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist that works by blocking the excessive stimulation of glutamate, which is a neurotransmitter that is involved in learning, memory, and cognition. Glutamate can be toxic to nerve cells if it accumulates in high levels in AD.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that memantine will help improve their loved one's memory and attention span. Memantine can improve some aspects of cognitive function in clients who have moderate to severe AD by enhancing nerve communication and preventing nerve damage.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The caregiver needs further teaching if they say that memantine will help prevent their loved one from having seizures or hallucinations. This is not the purpose or effect of memantine, but rather anticonvulsants or antipsychotics, which are medications used to treat seizures or psychosis, respectively. Seizures or hallucinations are not common symptoms of AD, but rather complications that may occur in advanced stages of the disease.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that memantine will help slow down the decline of their loved one's cognitive function. Memantine can slow down the progression of AD and delay the need for institutionalization by preserving some cognitive abilities and daily functioning.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to take levodopa-carbidopa with food to prevent nausea and vomiting. This is not an effective way to prevent these side effects, as food, especially protein-rich food, can interfere with the absorption and effectiveness of levodopa-carbidopa. The nurse should advise the client to take levodopa-carbidopa on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before or 1 hour after meals.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should instruct the client to take levodopa-carbidopa at the same time every day to maintain a steady level. Levodopa-carbidopa is a combination medication that increases the level of dopamine in the brain, which is a neurotransmitter that is deficient in PD and affects movement and cognition. Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken at regular intervals to prevent fluctuations in dopamine levels and avoid "wearing-off" or "on-off" phenomena, which are periods of reduced or enhanced response to the medication.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to take levodopa-carbidopa with a glass of milk to enhance absorption. This is not an effective way to enhance absorption, as milk, especially dairy products, can decrease the absorption and effectiveness of levodopa-carbidopa. The nurse should advise the client to avoid dairy products or limit their intake when taking levodopa-carbidopa.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not instruct the client to take levodopa-carbidopa as needed when they have symptoms of PD. This is not an appropriate way to take levodopa-carbidopa, as it can cause erratic changes in dopamine levels and worsen the symptoms and progression of PD. The nurse should advise the client to take levodopa-carbidopa as prescribed by their provider and not to skip or adjust doses without consulting their provider.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that pramipexole will help reduce the symptoms of PD by stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist that works by mimicking the action of dopamine, which is a neurotransmitter that is deficient in PD and affects movement and cognition. Pramipexole can reduce tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability in clients who have PD.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that pramipexole will help prevent the development of dyskinesia or involuntary movements in their loved one. Dyskinesia is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa, which is another medication used to treat PD. Pramipexole can delay or reduce the occurrence of dyskinesia by allowing lower doses of levodopa-carbidopa to be used.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The caregiver does not need further teaching if they say that pramipexole will help increase the duration and quality of sleep in their loved one. Sleep disturbances are common in clients who have PD, due to various factors such as nocturia, pain, restless legs syndrome, or anxiety. Pramipexole can improve sleep quality and quantity by reducing nighttime awakenings and increasing REM sleep.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. The caregiver needs further teaching if they say that pramipexole will help improve the mood and motivation of their loved one. This is not the purpose or effect of pramipexole, but rather antidepressants or stimulants, which are medications used to treat depression or apathy, respectively. Depression or apathy are common neuropsychiatric symptoms of PD, which affect the levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, or dopamine in the brain.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to maintain a consistent daily routine and environment, as this can help reduce anxiety, agitation, or disorientation in clients who have AD. AD is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, language, reasoning, judgment, and other cognitive abilities. Maintaining a consistent daily routine and environment can provide structure, familiarity, and security for the client.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to use memory aids such as calendars, clocks, or lists, as this can help enhance memory and orientation in clients who have AD. Memory aids can provide cues or reminders for the client about important information such as dates, events, tasks, or names.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to engage in physical and mental activities that are enjoyable and stimulating, as this can help preserve cognitive function and well-being in clients who have AD. Physical and mental activities can improve blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain, stimulate neural connections, enhance mood and self-esteem, and prevent boredom and depression.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client and their caregiver to avoid social interactions that may cause stress or confusion, as this can have negative effects on cognitive function and well-being in clients who have AD. Social interactions can provide emotional support, companionship, communication skills, and cognitive stimulation for the client. The nurse should encourage the client and their caregiver to maintain social contacts and participate in activities that are appropriate for the client's level of functioning and interest.

Choice E reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client and their caregiver to limit fluid intake and caffeine consumption, as this can have negative effects on cognitive function and well-being in clients who have AD. Fluid intake and caffeine consumption are not directly related to the cause or progression of AD, and limiting them can cause dehydration, constipation, or headaches. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to ensure adequate hydration and nutrition for the client and avoid substances that may interfere with sleep quality or medication effectiveness, such as alcohol or nicotine.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Nystagmus is a condition that causes involuntary and rhythmic eye movements, which can affect vision and balance. Nystagmus can occur in some clients who have MS due to damage to the brainstem or cerebellum, but it does not cause eye pain or loss of color perception.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Diplopia is a condition that causes double vision, which can affect depth perception and coordination. Diplopia can occur in some clients who have MS due to damage to the cranial nerves or ocular muscles, but it does not cause eye pain or loss of color perception.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Optic neuritis is a condition that causes inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve, which can affect visual acuity and color perception. Optic neuritis can occur in some clients who have MS due to damage to the optic nerve or chiasm, and it often causes blurred vision, eye pain, and loss of color perception.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Papilledema is a condition that causes swelling of the optic disc, which can affect peripheral vision and cause headaches. Papilledema can occur in some clients who have increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to various causes, such as brain tumors, meningitis, or hydrocephalus, but it is not a common finding in MS.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. Fever is a common symptom of meningitis, which is an inflammation of the meninges or the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. Fever occurs due to the infection or immune response that causes meningitis, which can be bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Photophobia is another common symptom of meningitis, which is an intolerance or sensitivity to light that causes eye pain or discomfort. Photophobia occurs due to the irritation of the optic nerve or cranial nerves that control the pupillary reflex by the inflamed meninges.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. Nuchal rigidity is another common symptom of meningitis, which is stiffness or pain in the neck when flexing or extending it. Nuchal rigidity occurs due to the inflammation or spasm of the neck muscles by the inflamed meninges.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Positive Babinski sign is not a common symptom of meningitis, but rather a sign of upper motor neuron lesion or damage to the corticospinal tract that controls voluntary movement. Positive Babinski sign occurs when the big toe extends upward and the other toes fan out when stroking the sole of the foot with a blunt object.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. Positive Brudzinski sign is another common symptom of meningitis, which is flexion of the hips and knees when flexing the neck forward. Positive Brudzinski sign occurs due to the irritation of the spinal nerve roots by the inflamed meninges.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that GBS is an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and demyelination of the peripheral nerves, which can affect sensation, movement, and autonomic function. GBS occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, often after an infection or vaccination.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they have GBS because their body produces antibodies against their myelin sheath. This is not the mechanism of GBS, but rather multiple sclerosis (MS), which is another autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system (CNS).

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they have GBS because they have a genetic mutation that affects their nerve function. This is not the cause of GBS, but rather Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT), which is a hereditary disorder that affects the structure and function of the peripheral nerves.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that they have GBS because they have been exposed to a virus that infects their nerve cells. This is not the cause of GBS, but rather encephalitis, which is an acute inflammatory condition of the brain that can be caused by various viruses or bacteria.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Administering analgesics and antiemetics as prescribed is not an effective intervention to relieve the client's symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting due to meningitis. Analgesics and antiemetics can have adverse effects such as sedation, hypotension, or constipation, which can worsen the client's condition or mask signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should use non-pharmacological methods to relieve the client's symptoms and monitor their vital signs and neurological status.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is not an effective intervention to relieve the client's symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting due to meningitis. Elevating the head of the bed can increase ICP by reducing venous drainage from the brain, which can worsen the client's condition or cause complications such as herniation or hydrocephalus. The nurse should keep the head of the bed flat or slightly elevated and avoid neck flexion or rotation.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Applying a cold compress to the forehead is not an effective intervention to relieve the client's symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting due to meningitis. A cold compress can cause vasoconstriction and reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain, which can worsen the client's condition or cause ischemia or infarction. The nurse should avoid applying cold or heat to the head and maintain a normal body temperature for the client.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. Dimming the lights and reducing noise in the room is an effective intervention to relieve the client's symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting due to meningitis. Dimming the lights and reducing noise can decrease sensory stimulation and irritation of the optic nerve or cranial nerves that control the pupillary reflex by the inflamed meninges. The nurse should also provide a quiet and calm environment for the client and limit visitors and activities.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Administering IV lorazepam as prescribed is an important action for the nurse to take for a client who has epilepsy and is experiencing status epilepticus, but it is not the first action. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can stop or reduce seizure activity by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. However, before administering any medication, the nurse should ensure that the client's airway and head are protected from injury or obstruction.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. Protecting the client's airway and head is the first action that the nurse should take for a client who has epilepsy and is experiencing status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or when two or more seizures occur without recovery of consciousness in between. Status epilepticus can cause hypoxia, brain damage, or death if not treated promptly. The nurse should protect the client's airway and head by placing them in a side-lying position, removing any objects or clothing that may restrict breathing, inserting an oral airway if needed, and padding the side rails or bed to prevent injury.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Monitoring the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation is an important action for the nurse to take for a client who has epilepsy and is experiencing status epilepticus, but it is not the first action. Vital signs and oxygen saturation can indicate the severity and effects of seizure activity on the client's cardiovascular, respiratory, and neurological systems. The nurse should monitor these parameters closely and provide oxygen therapy if needed to maintain adequate oxygenation and perfusion of the brain. However, before monitoring any parameters, the nurse should ensure that the client's airway and head are protected from injury or obstruction.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. Documenting the onset, duration, and characteristics of the seizure is an important action for the nurse to take for a client who has epilepsy and is experiencing status epilepticus, but it is not the first action. Documentation can provide valuable information for diagnosis, treatment, and evaluation of seizure activity and its effects on the client's condition and quality of life. The nurse should document these details accurately and objectively as soon as possible after the seizure ends. However, before documenting any details, the nurse should ensure that the client's airway and head are protected from injury or obstruction.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to avoid triggers such as stress, fatigue, or flashing lights that may provoke seizure activity by altering brain electrical activity or neurotransmitter levels. The nurse should also educate them about other potential triggers such as alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, fever, infection, hormonal changes, or certain medications.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to follow a ketogenic diet that is high in fat and low in carbohydrates under medical supervision if pharmacological therapy is ineffective or intolerable. A ketogenic diet can reduce seizure frequency and severity by inducing ketosis, which is a metabolic state where ketone bodies are used as an alternative fuel source for the brain instead of glucose.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to wear a medical alert bracelet or necklace that identifies epilepsy and provides emergency contact information. This can help ensure prompt and appropriate care in case of a seizure and prevent unnecessary interventions or complications.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not advise the client and their caregiver to use herbal remedies such as valerian or chamomile to reduce anxiety, as this can have negative effects on seizure activity and medication effectiveness. Herbal remedies can interact with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and alter their absorption, metabolism, or excretion, which can increase the risk of toxicity or breakthrough seizures. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to consult their provider before using any herbal remedies or supplements.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should advise the client and their caregiver to perform relaxation techniques such as deep breathing or meditation, as this can help prevent seizures by reducing stress, anxiety, or tension that may trigger seizure activity. Relaxation techniques can also improve mood, sleep quality, and coping skills for the client and their caregiver.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that phenytoin can cause drowsiness, dizziness, nausea, or rash. These are not the common or serious side effects of phenytoin, but rather other antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) such as carbamazepine or valproic acid.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that phenytoin can cause weight gain, hair loss, tremors, or mood swings. These are not the common or serious side effects of phenytoin, but rather other AEDs such as valproic acid or lamotrigine.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not tell the client that phenytoin can cause blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, or urinary retention. These are not the common or serious side effects of phenytoin, but rather other AEDs such as gabapentin or topiramate.

Choice D reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should tell the client that phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, ataxia, or dysrhythmias. These are the common or serious side effects of phenytoin that can affect the oral health, vision, balance, or cardiac function of the client. The nurse should also educate the client about the signs and symptoms of these side effects and how to prevent or manage them.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not monitor for hypotension during plasmapheresis for a client who has GBS. Hypotension is not a common complication of plasmapheresis, but rather hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis, which are procedures that remove excess fluid and waste products from the blood in clients who have kidney failure.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not monitor for hyperkalemia during plasmapheresis for a client who has GBS. Hyperkalemia is not a common complication of plasmapheresis, but rather hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis, which can cause a rapid shift of potassium from the cells to the blood in clients who have kidney failure.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer. The nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia during plasmapheresis for a client who has GBS. Hypocalcemia is a common complication of plasmapheresis that occurs when calcium is removed from the blood along with plasma proteins and antibodies. Hypocalcemia can cause muscle cramps, tetany, paresthesia, seizures, or cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer. The nurse should not monitor for hyperglycemia during plasmapheresis for a client who has GBS. Hyperglycemia is not a common complication of plasmapheresis, but rather insulin therapy or steroid therapy, which can increase blood glucose levels in clients who have diabetes mellitus or other endocrine disorders.

Choice A reason:

Meningeal cells are not the origin of gliomas, but of meningiomas, which are benign brain tumors that develop from the meninges, the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord.

Choice B reason:

Neuroglial cells are the origin of gliomas, as explained above.

Choice C reason:

Pituitary cells are not the origin of gliomas, but of pituitary adenomas, which are benign brain tumors that grow from the pituitary gland and may cause endocrine dysfunction.

Choice D reason:

Acoustic nerve cells are not the origin of gliomas, but of acoustic neuromas, which are benign brain tumors that arise from the acoustic cranial nerve and may cause hearing loss or ringing in the ears.

Choice A reason:

This statement is true. Metastatic brain tumors are lesions that spread from a primary cancer site outside of the body, such as breast, kidney, lung, or gastrointestinal tract cancers.

Choice B reason:

This statement is true. Metastatic brain tumors are more common than primary brain tumors, accounting for about half of all brain tumors.

Choice C reason:

This statement is true. Metastatic brain tumors can be treated with surgery, radiation therapy, or chemotherapy, depending on the location, size, number, and type of tumor.

Choice D reason:

This statement is false. Metastatic brain tumors usually have a worse prognosis than primary brain tumors, because they indicate a systemic disease and often recur after treatment.

Choice E reason:

This statement is true. Metastatic brain tumors can cause increased intracranial pressure and neurological deficits by applying pressure to surrounding brain tissue and impairing cerebral blood flow and cerebrospinal fluid drainage.

Choice A reason:

This statement is not indicative of a meningioma, but of a pituitary adenoma, which is a benign brain tumor that grows from the pituitary gland and may cause endocrine dysfunction such as diabetes insipidus (excessive thirst and urination).

Choice B reason:

This statement is not indicative of a meningioma, but of an acoustic neuroma, which is a benign brain tumor that arises from the acoustic cranial nerve and may cause hearing loss or ringing in the ears.

Choice C reason:

This statement is indicative of a meningioma, as explained above.

Choice D reason:

This statement is not indicative of a meningioma, but of a supratentorial tumor, which occurs in the cerebral hemispheres above the tentorium cerebelli and may cause loss of voluntary movement or hemiparesis (weakness or numbness on one side of the body).

Choice A reason:

This statement is true, as explained above.

Choice B reason:

This statement is not specific to the surgery, but to the brain tumor itself. Brain tumors can cause seizures, memory loss, or changes in personality by affecting the function of different areas of the brain.

Choice C reason:

This statement is not specific to the surgery, but to the increased intracranial pressure caused by the brain tumor. Increased intracranial pressure can cause nausea, vomiting, or difficulty swallowing by compressing the brainstem and affecting the autonomic nervous system.

Choice D reason:

This statement is not specific to the surgery, but to the location of the brain tumor. Brain tumors that involve the cranial nerves can cause hearing loss, vision loss, or facial paralysis by impairing their function.

Choice A reason:

This statement is true, as explained above.

Choice B reason:

This statement is not an adverse effect of chemotherapy, but of the brain tumor itself. Brain tumors can cause cerebral edema by applying pressure to surrounding brain tissue and impairing cerebral blood flow and cerebrospinal fluid drainage.

Choice C reason:

This statement is not an adverse effect of chemotherapy, but of the brain tumor itself. Brain tumors can cause increased intracranial pressure by applying pressure to surrounding brain tissue and impairing cerebral blood flow and cerebrospinal fluid drainage.

Choice D reason:

This statement is not an adverse effect of chemotherapy, but of the brain tumor itself. Brain tumors can cause seizures by affecting the function of different areas of the brain and disrupting the electrical activity of neurons.

Choice A reason:

This statement is not correct. Gliomas are malignant brain tumors that arise from neuroglial tissue and may cause various neurological deficits depending on their location and size, but they do not typically affect vision or reading ability.

Choice B reason:

This statement is not correct. Meningiomas are benign brain tumors that develop from the meninges and may cause severe headaches that are worse in the morning, seizures, or cranial nerve dysfunction, but they do not typically affect vision or reading ability.

Choice C reason:

This statement is correct, as explained above.

Choice D reason:

This statement is not correct. Acoustic neuromas are benign brain tumors that arise from the acoustic cranial nerve and may cause hearing loss or ringing in the ears, vertigo, facial drooping, or difficulty swallowing, but they do not typically affect vision or reading ability.

Choice A reason:

This statement is true. Ataxia is a lack of coordination of voluntary movements that can affect the gait, balance, speech, or eye movements. It is caused by damage to the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating muscle activity and maintaining posture and equilibrium.

Choice B reason:

This statement is true. Nystagmus is a rapid involuntary movement of the eyes that can be horizontal, vertical, or rotary. It is caused by damage to the cerebellum or the vestibular system, which regulates the sense of balance and spatial orientation.

Choice C reason:

This statement is true. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing that can affect the oral, pharyngeal, or esophageal stages of swallowing. It is caused by damage to the cerebellum or the brainstem, which control the muscles involved in swallowing.

Choice D reason:

This statement is false. Aphasia is a loss or impairment of language function that can affect the expression, comprehension, reading, or writing of speech. It is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, especially the left hemisphere, which is responsible for language processing.

Choice E reason:

This statement is false. Hemiparesis is weakness or paralysis of one side of the body that can affect the face, arm, or leg. It is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex or the corticospinal tract, which control voluntary movement.

Choice A reason:

This statement is true. New onset of seizures is a sign of radiation necrosis, which is a delayed complication of radiation therapy that occurs when normal brain tissue dies due to radiation exposure. Radiation necrosis can cause neurological deficits such as seizures by affecting the function of different areas of the brain and disrupting the electrical activity of neurons.

Choice B reason:

This statement is true. Increased intracranial pressure is a sign of radiation necrosis, which is a delayed complication of radiation therapy that occurs when normal brain tissue dies due to radiation exposure. Radiation necrosis can cause increased intracranial pressure by applying pressure to surrounding brain tissue and impairing cerebral blood flow and cerebrospinal fluid drainage.

Choice C reason:

This statement is false. Hair loss at the radiation site is not a sign of radiation necrosis, but a common side effect of radiation therapy that occurs when hair follicles are damaged by radiation exposure. Hair loss at the radiation site is usually temporary and reversible.

Choice D reason:

This statement is true. Cognitive impairment is a sign of radiation necrosis, which is a delayed complication of radiation therapy that occurs when normal brain tissue dies due to radiation exposure. Radiation necrosis can cause cognitive impairment such as memory loss, confusion, or dementia by affecting the function of different areas of the brain and disrupting the cognitive processes.

Choice E reason:

This statement is false. Skin erythema at the radiation site is not a sign of radiation necrosis, but a common side effect of radiation therapy that occurs when skin cells are damaged by radiation exposure. Skin erythema at the radiation site is usually mild and self-limiting.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct statement, as the CNS receives sensory information from various receptors in the body and interprets it.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct statement, as the CNS initiates and coordinates motor commands to control voluntary and involuntary movements.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct statement, as the CNS is involved in higher cognitive functions such as memory, learning, reasoning, and emotions.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect statement, as this is the function of the PNS. The PNS consists of cranial and spinal nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body and transmit sensory and motor signals.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer, as bladder control is regulated by nerves that originate from the sacral region of the spinal cord, which is below T6.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as respiratory rate is regulated by nerves that originate from the cervical and thoracic regions of the spinal cord, which are above T6.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer, as heart rate is regulated by nerves that originate from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord, which are below T6.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as arm movement is regulated by nerves that originate from the cervical region of the spinal cord, which is above T6.

Choice E reason:

This is a correct answer, as leg movement is regulated by nerves that originate from the lumbar and sacral regions of the spinal cord, which are below T6.

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as seizures do not occur due to too much stimulation in brain cells, but rather due to abnormal electrical activity caused by neurotransmitter imbalance.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct answer, as seizures occur due to neurotransmitter imbalance, which disrupts communication between neurons and causes abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as seizures do not occur due to lack of oxygen in brain tissue, but rather due to abnormal electrical activity caused by neurotransmitter imbalance.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as seizures do not occur due to infection in brain tissue, but rather due to abnormal electrical activity caused by neurotransmitter imbalance.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct answer, as the medication increases dopamine levels in the brain, which helps to improve the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as the medication does not decrease acetylcholine levels in the brain, but rather increases dopamine levels. Acetylcholine is another neurotransmitter that controls muscle contraction, learning, and memory.

Choice C reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as the medication does not increase serotonin levels in the brain, but rather increases dopamine levels. Serotonin is another neurotransmitter that controls mood, sleep, and appetite.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as the medication does not decrease glutamate levels in the brain, but rather increases dopamine levels. Glutamate is another neurotransmitter that controls excitatory signals in the brain.

Choice A reason:

This is a correct statement, as the PNS consists of cranial and spinal nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body and transmit sensory and motor signals.

Choice B reason:

This is a correct statement, as the PNS is divided into two subdivisions: the somatic nervous system (SNS) and the autonomic nervous system (ANS).

Choice C reason:

This is a correct statement, as the PNS controls voluntary movements of skeletal muscles and provides sensory feedback from the skin, joints, and muscles through the SNS.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect statement, as this is the function of the ANS, which is a subdivision of the PNS. The ANS regulates involuntary functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands through its two branches: the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS).

Choice A reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as MS is not caused by an autoimmune attack on nerve cells, but rather on nerve coverings called myelin sheaths.

Choice B reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as MS is not caused by a degeneration of nerve fibers, but rather by an inflammation of nerve coverings called myelin sheaths.

Choice C reason:

This is a correct answer, as MS is caused by an inflammation of nerve coverings called myelin sheaths, which impair transmission of nerve impulses.

Choice D reason:

This is an incorrect answer, as MS is not caused by a compression of nerve roots, but rather by an inflammation of nerve coverings called myelin sheaths.