Choice A rationale:

Restricting the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day is not an appropriate intervention for a client with COPD. Adequate hydration is important to help thin mucus secretions and improve respiratory function. Restricting fluids can lead to thicker mucus and exacerbate breathing difficulties.

Choice B rationale:

Instructing the client to use pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial intervention for someone with COPD. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by promoting better air exchange and preventing air trapping, which is common in COPD. It helps slow down breathing and increases oxygen saturation.

Choice C rationale:

Having the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity might not be the best choice. Morning hours can be when clients with COPD experience more respiratory symptoms. It's advisable to schedule activities during times when the client feels more comfortable and less breathless.

Choice D rationale:

Providing the client with a low-protein diet is not a relevant intervention for COPD management. COPD primarily affects the lungs and respiratory system, and a low-protein diet is not a standard part of its management. Nutritional recommendations for COPD typically focus on maintaining a balanced diet to support overall health.

Choice A rationale:

Cranberry juice causing bad breath is not a well-known side effect or outcome associated with its consumption. This information is not a commonly taught aspect of cranberry juice use.

Choice B rationale:

Bloating is not a common or widely recognized outcome of drinking cranberry juice. While cranberry juice might have some gastrointestinal effects, bloating is not a significant concern associated with its consumption.

Choice C rationale:

Informing the client that drinking cranberry juice daily can prevent recurrent urinary tract infections is accurate. Cranberry juice is often recommended for its potential to reduce the risk of urinary tract infections due to its anti-adhesive properties that may inhibit the adherence of bacteria to the urinary tract.

Choice D rationale:

Cranberry juice's effect on lowering cholesterol is not a well-established benefit of its consumption. Cholesterol management typically involves dietary changes, exercise, and sometimes medications, but cranberry juice is not a primary intervention for this purpose.

Choice A rationale:

Veracity refers to truthfulness and honesty in communication between the healthcare provider and the client. It involves providing accurate information and not deceiving the client. Discontinuing the experimental medication due to kidney failure demonstrates a commitment to the truth, but the primary ethical principle demonstrated here is nonmaleficence.

Choice B rationale:

Autonomy refers to respecting the client's right to make their own decisions about their healthcare. In this scenario, the medication was discontinued due to evidence of harm to the client's health. This action prioritizes the client's well-being over their autonomy to continue the treatment.

Choice C rationale:

Nonmaleficence, or the principle of "do no harm," is demonstrated in this scenario. The experimental medication was discontinued because it was causing rapidly advancing kidney failure. The healthcare provider's decision to stop the treatment is an example of prioritizing the client's safety and well-being by preventing further harm.

Choice D rationale:

Fidelity refers to being loyal, keeping promises, and maintaining trust in the nurse-client relationship. While this principle is important, it doesn't directly apply to the situation described, where the focus is on the ethical responsibility to prevent harm.

Choice A rationale:

Volunteering to provide an in-service about infection control might be a helpful action, but it does not address the immediate concern of the AP entering the room without appropriate PPE. The priority is to address the situation that has already occurred.

Choice B rationale:

Speaking with the AP when he exits the room about the appropriate protocol is the first action the nurse should take. This approach allows for immediate feedback and correction, helping to prevent potential transmission of infection to the client or others. It's important to address the issue promptly to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

Choice C rationale:

Providing the appropriate PPE to the AP is not the first action the nurse should take. The nurse needs to address the breach in infection control that has already occurred. Providing PPE would be more appropriate as a follow-up step after discussing the situation with the AP.

Choice D rationale:

Notifying the charge nurse about the AP's need for training is a valid action, but it should not be the first step in this scenario. The immediate concern is the potential exposure due to improper PPE use, which should be addressed directly with the AP.

Choice A rationale:

Using an internet webpage translator might seem convenient, but it can lead to inaccuracies in communication due to language nuances and medical terminology. Direct communication with a human translator is more reliable.

Choice B rationale:

Arranging to complete the assessment with only the client and a translator present is the best option. This approach ensures accurate and confidential communication, allowing the nurse to gather essential information directly from the client without potential bias or misinterpretation from family members.

Choice C rationale:

Asking the client's husband to translate questions and answers for the client can lead to inaccurate or biased information. Additionally, it might not provide a safe environment for the client to openly share her concerns.

Choice D rationale:

Asking a male student nurse to translate for the client does not necessarily address the language barrier adequately. The gender of the translator is not the primary concern here. Ensuring effective communication through a professional translator is more important.

Choice A rationale:

Lillian Wald is known for founding the Henry Street Settlement in New York and for her work in public health nursing and social reform, but she is not specifically associated with keeping records on sanitation techniques and their effects on health.

Choice B rationale:

Clara Barton is renowned for establishing the American Red Cross and her humanitarian efforts during the Civil War. While she contributed significantly to healthcare, her focus was not on keeping records on sanitation techniques and their effects.

Choice C rationale:

Florence Nightingale, the founder of modern nursing, is the nurse who kept records on sanitation techniques and their effects on health. She is known for her work during the Crimean War, where she improved sanitation and hygiene practices in healthcare settings, leading to significant improvements in patient outcomes.

Choice D rationale:

Mary Nutting was an influential figure in nursing education, but she is not primarily recognized for keeping records on sanitation techniques and their effects. Her contributions were more related to curriculum development and nursing education.

Choice A rationale:

Airborne precautions are utilized for diseases that spread through small particles suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or chickenpox. This is not the appropriate precaution for a client with an allogeneic hematopoietic stem-cell transplant.

Choice B rationale:

Contact precautions are designed to prevent the transmission of pathogens through direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment. Clients who have undergone hematopoietic stem-cell transplants are often immunocompromised and at risk for infections. Using contact precautions helps prevent the spread of infections through physical contact and contaminated surfaces, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Choice C rationale:

Droplet precautions are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets, typically within a range of about 3 feet. Examples include influenza and bacterial meningitis. However, this type of precaution is not indicated for a client who has had an allogeneic hematopoietic stem-cell transplant.

Choice D rationale:

Protective precautions, also known as neutropenic precautions, are specifically used for clients with severely compromised immune systems. These precautions involve strict measures to prevent exposure to pathogens, but they are typically reserved for clients with extremely low absolute neutrophil counts, which might occur in the later stages of stem-cell transplant recovery. Using protective precautions for all clients who have had stem-cell transplants would be overly restrictive and not evidence-based.

Choice A rationale:

Protective precautions (also known as reverse isolation) are implemented to protect clients with compromised immune systems from potential pathogens brought in by healthcare providers or visitors. This choice would be appropriate for clients who are highly susceptible to infections, but it's not the primary choice for managing a wound infected with MRSA.

Choice B rationale:

Droplet precautions are utilized for diseases spread by respiratory droplets. MRSA is primarily spread through direct contact with contaminated skin or objects. Therefore, droplet precautions are not the most appropriate choice for this scenario.

Choice C rationale:

Airborne precautions are designed for diseases that spread via small particles suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis. MRSA does not spread through the airborne route, so airborne precautions are not necessary for a wound infection with MRSA.

Choice D rationale:

Contact precautions are the correct choice when dealing with MRSA infections. MRSA is primarily transmitted through direct physical contact or contact with contaminated objects. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can effectively prevent the spread of the infection to other clients and healthcare workers.

Choice A rationale:

Providing wound irrigation might be necessary during the dressing change, but it is not the first action the nurse should take. First, the nurse should ensure they have all the necessary supplies to prevent interruptions during the procedure.

Choice B rationale:

While avoiding accidentally removing the drain is important, it is not the first action the nurse should take. Ensuring that all supplies are gathered and ready will help facilitate a smooth and organized dressing change.

Choice C rationale:

Gathering supplies is the priority in this situation. Having all the needed supplies readily available ensures that the dressing change can be carried out efficiently and without unnecessary delays.

Choice D rationale:

Providing analgesic medication as ordered by the provider is important for the patient's comfort during the procedure. However, it should not be the first action the nurse takes. First, the nurse should ensure that they have all the necessary supplies to conduct the dressing change safely.

Choice A rationale:

Repositioning the client every 3 hours is a crucial intervention to prevent skin breakdown in older adults who are immobile or have limited mobility. Prolonged pressure on certain areas can lead to ischemia and tissue damage, particularly over bony prominences. Repositioning helps to distribute pressure evenly, maintain circulation, and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers.

Choice B rationale:

Massage of bony prominences is not recommended as a preventive measure for skin breakdown. Massaging these areas can actually cause friction and shear forces, leading to further damage to the delicate skin of older adults. Gentle repositioning and maintaining proper skin hygiene are more effective strategies.

Choice C rationale:

While a diet high in protein is important for overall health, it is not a direct intervention for maintaining the integrity of the client's skin. Protein is necessary for wound healing and tissue repair, but it doesn't address the primary concern of preventing skin breakdown due to pressure.

Choice D rationale:

Applying cornstarch to keep the skin dry is not a recommended practice for preventing skin breakdown. Excessive moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but cornstarch may not be the best solution. Proper hygiene, gentle cleansing, and appropriate use of moisture-barrier products are more effective in maintaining skin integrity.

Choice A rationale:

Drowsiness is not a typical finding associated with hypoxia. Hypoxia often leads to increased alertness and anxiety as the body tries to compensate for the lack of oxygen. Drowsiness might be seen in severe cases of hypoxia, but it's not a consistent finding.

Choice B rationale:

Jaundice is not directly related to hypoxia. Jaundice is usually caused by elevated bilirubin levels due to liver dysfunction or other underlying issues. It is not a primary manifestation of hypoxia.

Choice C rationale:

Flushed pink cheeks can be an indicator of increased blood flow to the skin, which might occur as the body tries to compensate for hypoxia. However, this finding is not as consistent or specific as tachycardia in cases of hypoxia.

Choice D rationale:

Tachycardia, or an abnormally rapid heart rate, is a common physiological response to hypoxia. The body attempts to deliver more oxygen to tissues by increasing the heart rate. This compensatory mechanism helps maintain tissue perfusion in the face of reduced oxygen levels.

Choice A rationale:

Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently is important for preventing complications associated with immobility, such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle atrophy. However, it is not a direct intervention for promoting the thinning of respiratory secretions.

Choice B rationale:

Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is a valuable intervention to help thin respiratory secretions. However, the most effective method mentioned here is the use of the incentive spirometer, which directly assists the client in taking deep breaths and enhancing lung function.

Choice C rationale:

Encouraging regular use of the incentive spirometer is a crucial intervention for promoting the thinning of respiratory secretions. Incentive spirometry helps prevent atelectasis (collapse of lung tissue) and promotes deep breathing, which aids in clearing secretions and maintaining lung health.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is generally important for maintaining lung health and preventing complications like pneumonia. However, the specific action of using the incentive spirometer is more targeted and effective for promoting respiratory secretion clearance in clients with pneumonia.

Choice A rationale:

Enclosing the dressing in a single clear plastic bag and discarding it in the bedside trash receptacle is not the appropriate method for disposing of a dressing saturated with blood and purulent drainage. Blood and purulent drainage are considered potentially infectious materials, and they should be handled as biohazardous waste to prevent the spread of infection.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct choice. When dealing with potentially infectious materials such as blood and purulent drainage, it's essential to dispose of them in a biohazardous waste container. This specialized container is designed to contain potentially infectious materials and prevent their spread, thereby protecting both healthcare workers and the environment.

Choice C rationale:

Discarding the dressing in the bedside trash receptacle is not the recommended approach for disposing of materials that are contaminated with blood and purulent drainage. Simply discarding it in the regular trash increases the risk of infection transmission and is not compliant with proper infection control practices.

Choice D rationale:

Double-bagging the dressing in clear bags and labeling it "biohazard" is a good practice to ensure proper containment. However, it's not the most comprehensive method of disposal. Placing the dressing in a dedicated biohazardous waste container is a more secure and standardized method for disposing of potentially infectious materials.

Choice A rationale:

The Point of Maximal Impulse (PMI) is the location where the apex of the heart touches the anterior chest wall during systole. In a healthy individual, the PMI is typically found at the left fourth intercostal space at the sternal border. This is the most common and expected location for palpating the PMI in a healthy cardiovascular assessment.

Choice B rationale:

The left third intercostal space at the sternal border is not the expected location for palpating the PMI. The PMI is usually found a bit lower, at the left fourth intercostal space, due to the positioning of the heart in the chest.

Choice C rationale:

The left second intercostal space at the midclavicular line is not the correct location for palpating the PMI. This area is higher and more lateral than where the PMI is typically located.

Choice D rationale:

The left fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is too low for palpating the PMI. This area corresponds to the location of the cardiac apex, but not the point where it touches the chest wall during systole.

Choice A rationale:

Helping the client select a low-salt diet is not directly related to addressing tenacious bronchial secretions. While a low-salt diet might have some implications for overall cardiovascular health, it doesn't specifically address the issue of secretions in the lungs.

Choice B rationale:

Encouraging the client to drink 2 to 3 L of water daily is generally beneficial for maintaining hydration and thinning mucus secretions. However, it doesn't directly address the problem of not being able to bring up secretions. Other interventions are more suitable for that issue.

Choice C rationale:

Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min can provide respiratory support, but it doesn't directly address the problem of tenacious bronchial secretions. Oxygen therapy primarily aims to improve oxygenation, not facilitate mucus clearance.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct choice. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position (head of the bed elevated to approximately 30-45 degrees) can help improve lung expansion and facilitate drainage of bronchial secretions. This position helps to reduce the pooling of secretions in the airways, making it easier for the client to cough and bring up the mucus.

Choice A rationale:

Explaining to the client that he needs the protein in the milk and the beef is not an appropriate action. Understanding and respecting the client's religious and dietary preferences are essential. Orthodox Jewish dietary laws, known as kashrut, prohibit the consumption of certain foods, including the mixing of meat and dairy in the same meal. This response disregards the client's faith-based dietary restrictions.

Choice B rationale:

Allowing the AP to deliver the food tray to the client is not appropriate in this situation. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the client's dietary needs and preferences are met, especially when there are religious considerations involved. Failing to accommodate the client's dietary requirements could lead to non-compliance and potential harm.

Choice C rationale:

Replacing the nonfat milk with apple juice does not address the client's religious dietary restrictions. While the change may avoid mixing meat and dairy, it still disregards the importance of providing a kosher meal. Kosher dietary laws encompass more than just avoiding meat and dairy combinations. It is important to provide a fully compliant kosher meal.

Choice D rationale:

Calling the dietary department and asking for a kosher tray is the appropriate action. A kosher diet adheres to specific rules and regulations, including the separation of meat and dairy products. To respect the client's faith and dietary needs, the nurse should ensure that the food provided aligns with kosher guidelines. This choice demonstrates cultural sensitivity and ensures the client's well-being.

Choice A rationale:

Lesion is brown and black in color - This choice does not necessarily indicate malignancy. Skin lesions can be various colors, and color alone is not a definitive indicator of malignancy. Therefore, this choice is not a reliable characteristic for assessing a suspected malignant lesion.

Choice B rationale:

Irregular borders - Irregular or uneven borders are a concerning feature of skin lesions that could suggest malignancy. Malignant lesions, such as melanoma, often have irregular, jagged, or poorly defined borders. This choice is accurate in identifying a potential sign of skin cancer.

Choice C rationale:

Symmetrical halves - Symmetry is generally associated with benign lesions, while malignant lesions often have an asymmetric appearance. A lack of symmetry is considered a characteristic of potential malignancy, making this choice appropriate.

Choice D rationale:

Diameter greater than 6 mm - Lesions with a diameter greater than 6 mm are considered a worrisome characteristic for malignancy. While the size alone is not the sole determinant, larger lesions are more likely to be assessed further for malignancy. This choice accurately identifies a significant feature for evaluation.

Choice E rationale:

Regular borders - Regular, smooth borders are generally associated with benign skin lesions. Malignant lesions tend to have irregular, jagged, or uneven borders. Identifying regular borders as a characteristic of a suspected malignant lesion is inaccurate.

Choice A rationale:

Placing the cuff bladder over the client's brachial artery is a correct action when obtaining a blood pressure reading. This choice demonstrates proper cuff placement, which is essential for an accurate measurement.

Choice B rationale:

Placing the client's arm above the level of the client's heart is an incorrect action when obtaining a blood pressure reading. The client's arm should be supported at heart level to ensure accurate measurement. This choice indicates a need for further instruction as it could lead to an artificially low blood pressure reading.

Choice C rationale:

Wrapping the blood pressure cuff snugly around the client's arm is a correct action when obtaining a blood pressure reading. This choice demonstrates proper cuff application, which is necessary for accurate results.

Choice D rationale:

Checking the instrument gauge to ensure the reading starts at zero is a correct action when obtaining a blood pressure reading. This choice reflects a proper step to verify that the equipment is calibrated correctly.

Choice A rationale:

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is a component of blood used to replace clotting factors and is typically indicated for specific medical conditions like bleeding disorders or massive transfusions. In this case, the client requires red blood cells due to significant blood loss, so FFP alone is not the appropriate choice.

Choice B rationale:

Initiating an immediate blood transfusion without the client's consent is not ethically appropriate, especially considering the client's religious beliefs as a Jehovah's Witness. Respecting the client's autonomy and religious convictions is important.

Choice C rationale:

Asking the client to decide about the blood transfusion is the correct course of action. Since the client is able to respond to questions appropriately, they should be informed about their condition, the need for a blood transfusion, and the potential risks and benefits. This respects the client's autonomy while ensuring they have the necessary information to make an informed decision.

Choice D rationale:

Notifying the client's family immediately is not the best initial action. While involving the family is important, the client's own decision about the blood transfusion should take precedence, especially when they are conscious and able to make decisions for themselves.

Choice A rationale:

Re-measuring the respiratory rate is unnecessary. The reported respiratory rate falls within the normal range of 12-20 breaths per minute for adults.

Choice B rationale:

Re-measuring the temperature is the correct action. Tympanic temperature measurements can be influenced by factors such as earwax buildup, ear infection, or improper placement of the thermometer. Repeating the temperature measurement ensures accuracy.

Choice C rationale:

Re-measuring the pulse rate is unnecessary. The reported pulse rate of 92 beats per minute falls within the normal range of 60-100 beats per minute for adults.

Choice D rationale:

Re-measuring the blood pressure is unnecessary. The reported blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg, while at the lower end of the normal range (typically around 90/60 mm Hg), is not excessively low and doesn't indicate an immediate need for concern.

Choice A rationale:

A macular rash on the chest and back is not indicative of a paradoxical drug reaction to lorazepam, a benzodiazepine. Paradoxical reactions involve unexpected and opposite responses to a medication, such as increased agitation and excitement instead of the intended calming effect. A rash is not consistent with this type of reaction.

Choice B rationale:

Increased appetite is not associated with a paradoxical drug reaction to lorazepam. Paradoxical reactions involve behavioral and physiological responses that are contrary to the expected effects of the medication. Increased appetite does not fit this pattern.

Choice C rationale:

Drowsiness and mild sedation are the intended effects of lorazepam, a benzodiazepine. Paradoxical reactions are characterized by unexpected and opposite responses. Drowsiness and mild sedation align with the expected pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, making this choice incorrect for a paradoxical reaction.

Choice D rationale:

Increased agitation and insomnia are indicative of a paradoxical drug reaction to lorazepam. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are central nervous system depressants and are commonly used to treat anxiety and promote sedation. However, in some cases, paradoxical reactions can occur, leading to increased agitation, excitement, and even insomnia. These reactions are thought to be more common in children and older adults. This choice is correct because it aligns with the characteristics of a paradoxical reaction.

Choice A rationale:

To palpate for unexpected pulsations in the pulmonic area, the nurse should place her fingers at the left fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This anatomical location corresponds to the location of the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is the point where the apical pulse can be felt most strongly. Unexpected pulsations in this area could indicate cardiac abnormalities or issues with the heart's function.

Choice B rationale:

The left fifth intercostal space, without specifying the midclavicular line, might not accurately locate the area for palpating unexpected pulsations in the pulmonic area. The midclavicular line is an important reference point to ensure proper placement for assessment.

Choice C rationale:

The left second intercostal space is not the appropriate location for palpating pulsations in the pulmonic area. This area is more relevant for auscultating heart sounds, particularly the second intercostal space along the left sternal border for auscultation of the aortic valve.

Choice D rationale:

The right second intercostal space is not the correct location for assessing pulsations in the pulmonic area. The pulmonic area is typically assessed on the left side of the chest due to the anatomical positioning of the heart.

Choice A rationale:

Visual observation for nonverbal signs of pain can be useful, especially in patients who are unable to communicate verbally. However, this method is not as accurate or reliable as obtaining the client's self-report of pain severity, which directly allows the patient to express their experience.

Choice B rationale:

Vital sign measurement, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, can provide indirect information about a patient's pain level. However, vital signs can be influenced by various factors, including anxiety or other physiological responses. They may not always accurately reflect the intensity of pain and are not as specific as the client's self-report.

Choice C rationale:

The client's self-report of pain severity is the most reliable and accurate method for determining the intensity of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's self-report is crucial for effective pain management. Pain scales, such as numeric rating scales or visual analog scales, allow clients to describe their pain intensity in a standardized way.

Choice D rationale:

The nature and invasiveness of the surgical procedure are relevant factors to consider in understanding a patient's potential pain experience. However, this information alone is not sufficient for determining the current intensity of the client's pain. Pain levels can vary among individuals undergoing the same procedure due to differences in pain tolerance and perception.

Choice A rationale:

Reporting the incident to the charge nurse is important, but it's not the first action to take in this situation. The immediate concern should be addressing the potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct choice. Washing the area of the puncture thoroughly with soap and water is the first step the nurse should take after an accidental needlestick. It helps reduce the risk of infection by cleaning the wound and removing any potential contaminants.

Choice C rationale:

Going to employee health services is a valid step, but it's not the immediate action needed after an accidental needlestick. Cleaning the wound should come first.

Choice D rationale:

Completing an incident report is important for documentation purposes, but it is not the nurse's first priority in this situation. Immediate wound care takes precedence.

Choice A rationale:

This statement indicates a need for further teaching. Synthetic clothing and woolen socks can generate static electricity, which poses a risk around oxygen due to its flammable nature. The client should be advised to wear cotton clothing and avoid synthetic fabrics to prevent static-related accidents.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is correct. Oxygen supports combustion, so ensuring visitors don't smoke near the client is crucial. However, it does not indicate a need for further teaching.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. The client cannot determine the oxygen flow rate by visual inspection of the flowmeter. The flow rate should be set based on the healthcare provider's instructions, and this information should have been covered in the teaching.

Choice D rationale:

This statement indicates the client understands the potential cognitive effects of oxygen therapy and when to seek medical assistance. It does not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.