The correct answer is choice D. Announcement of the delivery.

Choice A reason:

Support thermoregulation is a priority in nursing care of the newborn immediately after birth. Newborns are at risk of hypothermia because they have a large surface area to body mass ratio, thin skin, and limited subcutaneous fat. To prevent heat loss, newborns should be dried thoroughly, placed skin-to-skin with the mother, and covered with warm blankets.

Choice B reason:

Identifying the infant is a priority nursing care of the newborn immediately after birth. Newborns should be identified with identification bands that match those of the mother and father or significant other. This helps prevent errors in infant identification and ensures safety and security.

Choice C reason:

Promoting normal respirations is a priority nursing care of the newborn immediately after birth. Newborns need to establish effective breathing patterns to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent complications such as respiratory distress syndrome or meconium aspiration syndrome. To promote normal respirations, newborns should be suctioned gently to clear the airway, stimulated to cry, and assessed for signs of distress.

Choice D reason:

Announcement of the delivery is not a priority in nursing care of the newborn immediately after birth. While it may be a joyful moment for the parents and family, it does not affect the health and well-being of the newborn. Therefore, it can be done later after the essential newborn care has been completed.

Choice A reason:

10% to 15% of their birth weight. This is incorrect because this range is too high for a normal newborn weight loss. Losing more than 10% of their birth weight may indicate dehydration, inadequate feeding, or other problems. • Choice B reason:

20% of their birth weight. This is incorrect because this percentage is way too high for a normal newborn weight loss. Losing 20% of their birth weight would be a serious sign of illness or malnutrition. • Choice C reason:

15% to 18% of their birth weight. This is incorrect because this range is also too high for a normal newborn weight loss. Losing 15% to 18% of their birth weight would be a cause for concern and require further evaluation. • Choice D reason:

5% to 10% of their birth weight. This is correct because this range is within the normal limits for a newborn weight loss. Newborns lose some weight as a result of insufficient caloric intake, fluid loss, and metabolic adjustments in the first week after birth. They usually regain their birth weight by the second week.

Choice A reason:

Change her position to the right side. This is not correct because changing the position to the right side may not improve the fetal blood flow and oxygenation. The left lateral position is usually preferred because it reduces the compression of the inferior vena cava and the aorta by the gravid uterus. • Choice B reason:

Place a wedge under the left hip. This is not correct because placing a wedge under the left hip may increase the pressure on the vena cava and reduce the venous return to the heart. This may worsen the fetal hypoxia and acidosis. • Choice C reason:

Lower the head of the bed. This is not correct because lowering the head of the bed may increase the uterine perfusion pressure and decrease the placental blood flow. This may also aggravate the fetal distress. • Choice D reason:

Place the mother in a Trendelenburg position. This is correct because placing the mother in a Trendelenburg position may improve the fetal blood flow and oxygenation by shifting the uterus away from the vena cava and increasing the venous return to the heart. This may also reduce the uterine contractions and relieve the cord compression.

Choice A reason:

Inspecting if the urethral opening appears circular. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to identify any abnormalities in the urethral opening, such as hypospadias or epispadias, which are congenital defects where the opening is located on the underside or the top of the penis, respectively. • Choice B reason:

Retracting the foreskin over the glans to assess for secretions. This is an incorrect action for the nurse to avoid, as it can cause pain, bleeding, and infection in the newborn. The foreskin is usually adhered to the glans in newborns and should not be forcibly retracted. It will gradually loosen over time and can be retracted by the child himself when he is older. •

Choice C reason:

Palpating if testes are descended into the scrotal sac. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to detect any undescended testes, which are more common in preterm infants and can increase the risk of infertility and testicular cancer later in life. • Choice D reason:

Inspecting the genital area for irritated skin. This is a correct action for the nurse to do, as it helps to identify any signs of diaper rash, fungal infection, or allergic reaction in the newborn's skin.

Choice A reason:

Drying the baby after a bath is important to prevent evaporative heat loss, which occurs when the newborn's wet skin loses heat to the surrounding air. However, this is not the best action to prevent heat loss from convection, which occurs when a flow of cooler ambient air carries heat away from the neonate.

Choice B reason:

Wrapping the baby in warmed blankets is the best action to prevent heat loss from convection, as it reduces the exposed surface area of the newborn's skin and provides insulation from the cooler air. This helps maintain the newborn's core temperature and avoid hypothermia.

Choice C reason:

Placing the baby in a warmer is another way to prevent heat loss from convection, as it provides a controlled environment with a constant temperature. However, this is not always feasible or necessary, especially if the newborn is stable and does not require intensive care. Wrapping the baby in warmed blankets is a simpler and more accessible method that can be done in any setting.

Choice D reason:

Moving infant away from blowing fan is a good measure to prevent heat loss from convection, as it reduces the airflow that can carry heat away from the newborn's skin. However, this is not sufficient to prevent heat loss from convection, as there may still be other sources of cool air in the environment. Wrapping the baby in warmed blankets is more effective and comprehensive in preventing heat loss from convection.

Choice A reason:

The tonic neck reflex, also called the fencing posture, occurs when a baby's head is turned to one side. The arm and leg on that side stretch out, while the opposite arm and leg bend up at the elbow. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 7 months old. This reflex matches the description of the question.

Choice B reason:

The Moro reflex, also called the startle reflex, is the baby's reaction to being startled. The cause is often a loud sound, a sudden movement, or even their own cry. As an adult, you may jump or gasp when you are startled. A baby will throw back their head, extend their arms and legs, cry, then pull their arms and legs back in. This reflex does not match the description of the question.

Choice C reason:

The startled reflex is not a distinct reflex in newborns. It is another name for the Moro reflex, which is explained.

Assist the client to turn onto her side. This is the correct answer because turning the client onto her side can improve blood flow to the placenta and increase fetal oxygenation. Hypotension is a common cause of decreased uteroplacental perfusion, which can lead to fetal distress and late decelerations on the fetal monitor. The nurse should also administer oxygen, increase IV fluids, and notify the provider. • Choice B reason:

Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery. This is not the correct answer because there is no indication that the client is ready for delivery. The client has 6 cm of cervical dilation, which means she is still in the active phase of labor. The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery would not address the cause of hypotension or improve fetal oxygenation. • Choice C reason:

Prepare for a cesarean birth. This is not the correct answer because there is no indication that the client needs a cesarean birth. A cesarean birth may be indicated if there are signs of fetal compromise, such as severe variable or late decelerations, or maternal complications, such as placenta previa or cord prolapse. However, these conditions are not present in this scenario. Preparing for a cesarean birth would not address the cause of hypotension or improve fetal oxygenation. • Choice D reason:

Assist the client to an upright position. This is not the correct answer because placing the client in an upright position can worsen hypotension and decrease uteroplacental perfusion. An upright position can increase pressure on the inferior vena cava and reduce venous return to the heart. This can lower cardiac output.

Choice A. Accelerations are normal responses that indicate the fetus is healthy and active. Accelerations occur when the fetal heart rate increases in response to stimuli. •

Choice B. Late decelerations are nonreassuring patterns that indicate fetal hypoxia due to placental insufficiency. Late decelerations occur when the placental blood flow decreases due to uterine contractions during labor, causing the fetal heart rate to decrease. •

Choice C. Variable decelerations are nonreassuring patterns that indicate fetal hypoxia due to umbilical cord compression. Variable decelerations occur when the umbilical cord is trapped by the cervical opening or the fetal body part, twisted, or knotted, causing the fetal oxygen supply to be impaired and the fetal heart rate to drop sharply. •

Choice D. Early decelerations are reassuring patterns that indicate a neural reflex due to fetal head compression. Early decelerations occur when the fetal head is compressed by uterine contractions during labor, causing the parasympathetic nervous system to be stimulated and the heart rate to decrease. The correct answer is C. Variable decelerations are the most common pattern that indicates a problem with the umbilical cord and requires urgent intervention.

Choice A reason:

This is the best response because it shows that the nurse is providing nonpharmacological pain relief measures and supporting the client's coping mechanisms. Breathing and imagery techniques can help the client relax and focus on something other than the pain. Moaning, screaming, and vocalizing are normal and acceptable ways of expressing pain during labor, and the nurse should not try to suppress them.

Choice B reason:

This is not the best response because it does not address the husband's concern or offer any intervention for the client's pain. Asking the client to rate her pain on a scale of 0 to 10 is a subjective assessment tool that may not reflect the true intensity of her pain. Furthermore, it may be difficult for the client to answer this question while she is in the second stage of labor.

Choice C reason:

This is not the best response because it may not be feasible or appropriate to administer more pain medication to the client in the second stage of labor. The obstetrician may not be available to evaluate the client's pain, and increasing the dose of pain medication may have adverse effects on the client and the fetus, such as respiratory depression, hypotension, and decreased uterine contractility.

Choice D reason:

This is not the best response because it does not acknowledge the husband's feelings or provide any comfort or education for him. Reassuring him that his wife will be fine may sound dismissive and insensitive, and offering to stay with her while he takes a walk may imply that he is not needed or wanted in the birthing room. The nurse should involve the husband in the care of his wife and explain to him what is happening and what to expect during labor.

Choice A reason:

Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) might be appropriate in some labor scenarios, but in this case, the client's sudden urge to push indicates that the baby's birth is imminent. Therefore, the nurse should focus on evaluating the stage of labor and preparing for delivery rather than repositioning the client.

Choice B reason:

The correct action for the nurse to take is to observe the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B). Crowning is the appearance of the baby's head at the vaginal opening during the second stage of labor, which indicates that delivery is imminent. It is crucial for the nurse to be aware of this sign to assist with the safe delivery of the baby.

Choice C reason:

Having the client pant during the next contractions (Choice C) is not appropriate at this stage of labor. Panting is a breathing technique used to manage pain during the first stage of labor. However, since the client is already at 7 cm dilation and experiencing a strong urge to push, she has likely progressed to the second stage of labor and needs guidance for effective pushing, not panting.

Choice D reason:

Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) is not advisable at this point. The client's urge to push indicates that the baby is descending, and birth is imminent. It would not be safe to have the client walk to the bathroom at this stage, as she may deliver the baby during the process, increasing the risk of an unattended birth.

Choice A reason:

Moist lung sounds in a baby born 10 hours ago via cesarean section (Choice A) could be a cause for concern as it may indicate a pneumothorax. A pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space around the lungs, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. In a vaginal birth, this can occur due to pressure changes during passage through the birth canal, leading to potential lung injury.

Choice B reason:

Aspiration of surfactant (Choice B) would not typically cause moist lung sounds. Surfactant is a substance that helps keep the air sacs in the lungs open, and aspiration of surfactant is not a common occurrence.

Choice C reason:

The statement that the lungs of a baby delivered by cesarean section may sound moist for 24 hours after birth (Choice C) is not accurate. Moist lung sounds should not be considered a normal finding and could indicate an underlying issue that needs further evaluation.

Choice D reason:

While moist lung sounds can be a cause for concern, they may not necessarily require immediate notification of the pediatrician as an emergency (Choice D). However, the healthcare team should be informed promptly so that appropriate assessments and interventions can be carried out.

Choice A reason:

If the client reports frequent uterine contractions , it is not indicative of a distended bladder. Postpartum uterine contractions are normal and necessary to help the uterus return to its pre-pregnancy size.

Choice B reason:

The fundus (the top portion of the uterus being palpable to the right of the midline suggests a distended bladder. A full bladder can displace the uterus, causing the fundus to deviate from the midline.

Choice C reason:

Having less than 2.5 cm of rubra lochia on a perineal pad is related to the amount of vaginal discharge after birth and does not provide information about bladder distention.

Choice D reason:

The client's report of increased thirst may indicate dehydration or the body's response to fluid loss during childbirth but is not directly related to bladder distention.

Choice A reason:

Hyperbilirubinemia is caused by the increased breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, which leads to higher bilirubin levels in the blood. Newborns have a shorter life span of red blood cells than adults, which means they produce more bilirubin. Newborns also have immature liver enzymes that cannot process bilirubin efficiently, which causes it to accumulate in the blood and tissues. •

Choice B reason:

Respiratory distress syndrome is not caused by the decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells. It is caused by the lack of surfactant, a substance that helps keep the air sacs in the lungs open and prevents them from collapsing. Surfactant production begins late in pregnancy and may be insufficient in premature babies or babies with diabetes or infection. • Choice C reason:

Polycythemia is not caused by the decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells. It is caused by an increased production of red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels in the womb or during delivery. This can happen in babies with placental problems, maternal smoking, high altitude, or twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. • Choice D reason:

Transient tachypnea is not caused by the decreased life span of neonatal red blood cells. It is caused by the delayed clearance of fluid from the lungs after birth. This can happen in babies who are delivered by cesarean section, have a rapid delivery, or have maternal diabetes or asthma.

Choice A reason:

The interval between contractions is not the best time to push because it does not coincide with the natural expulsive forces of the uterus and may cause maternal fatigue and ineffective pushing. • Choice B reason:

Whenever she feels the need is not a reliable indicator of the optimal time to push because some women may feel an urge to push before full cervical dilation, which can lead to cervical edema and prolonged labor. • Choice C reason:

Second-stage of labor is the correct answer because it is the phase when the cervix is fully dilated and the woman can use voluntary pushing efforts along with the involuntary uterine contractions to deliver the baby. • Choice D reason:

First-stage of labor is not the appropriate time to push because it is the phase when the cervix is dilating and effacing, and pushing before full dilation can cause cervical trauma and bleeding.

Choice A reason:

Measuring urinary output. This is not the priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion, because urinary output is not directly affected by oxytocin. Urinary output may be affected by other factors, such as fluid intake, dehydration, or kidney function, but these are not related to oxytocin administration. • Choice B reason:

Evaluating cervical dilation. This is also not the priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion, because cervical dilation is a result of uterine contractions, not oxytocin itself. Oxytocin is used to stimulate or augment uterine contractions, but it does not cause cervical dilation directly. Cervical dilation is important to monitor during labor, but it is not the main focus of oxytocin infusion. • Choice C reason:

Increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes. This is not the priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion, because increasing the infusion rate every 30 minutes is not a standard protocol for oxytocin administration. The infusion rate should be adjusted according to the patient's response and the provider's orders, but not arbitrarily or routinely. Increasing the infusion rate too quickly or too often can cause hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can be dangerous for both the mother and the fetus.

• Choice D reason:

Monitoring uterine response. This is the correct answer and the priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion, because oxytocin can cause excessive or prolonged uterine contractions, which can lead to fetal distress, uterine rupture, or placental abruption. Therefore, the nurse must monitor the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions, as well as the fetal heart rate and blood pressure, to ensure that oxytocin is having the desired effect and not causing any adverse outcomes.

Choice A reason:

Basal metabolic rate reduction. This is incorrect because a newborn under a radiant heat warmer will have an increased basal metabolic rate, not a reduced one. The basal metabolic rate is the amount of energy the body uses at rest, and it is influenced by temperature. A warmer environment will stimulate the newborn's metabolism and increase the energy expenditure. • Choice B reason:

Brown fat production. This is incorrect because a newborn under a radiant heat warmer will have less need for brown fat production, not more. Brown fat is a type of fat tissue that generates heat by burning calories. It is found in newborns and helps them maintain their body temperature in cold environments. A warmer environment will reduce the need for brown fat activation. • Choice C reason:

Shivering. This is incorrect because a newborn under a radiant heat warmer will not shiver, but shivering is not the main mechanism of heat production in newborns. Shivering is an involuntary contraction of muscles that generates heat by increasing metabolism. Newborns have limited ability to shiver because of their immature nervous system and low muscle mass. They rely more on brown fat and increased metabolic rate to produce heat. • Choice D reason:

Cold stress. This is correct because a newborn under a radiant heat warmer will prevent cold stress, which is a condition where the newborn's body temperature drops below normal and causes adverse effects. Cold stress can impair oxygen delivery, increase acidosis, decrease blood glucose, and increase the risk of infection and bleeding. A radiant heat warmer provides a neutral thermal environment for the newborn and prevents heat loss by radiation.

: 1 : 2 : 3 : 4.

Choice A reason:

Lochial color changes from rubra to alba in the early postpartum period is a normal event. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that occurs after childbirth, and it progresses from bright red (rubra) to pink or brownish (serosa) to whitish-yellow (alba) as the days pass.

Choice B reason:

Extreme hunger and thirst in the early postpartum period may indicate abnormal blood sugar levels and can be a sign of gestational diabetes or other metabolic disorders. It requires further evaluation and monitoring by healthcare providers.

Choice C reason:

Diuresis (increased urination) and diaphoresis (increased sweating) are normal events in the early postpartum period. After childbirth, the body eliminates excess fluid that was retained during pregnancy, leading to increased urination and sweating.

Choice D reason:

Flatulence (passing gas) and constipation can be normal events in the early postpartum period due to the body recovering from the effects of labor, changes in diet, and the use of pain medications during childbirth.

Choice A reason:

Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm is a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia, which can lead to brain damage or death if not corrected promptly. The nurse should immediately report this finding to the physician and prepare for emergency intervention, such as a cesarean section or assisted vaginal delivery.

Choice B reason:

The maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm is within the normal range for a pregnant woman in labor and does not indicate any complications. The nurse should monitor the maternal vital signs regularly but does not need to report this finding to the physician.

Choice C reason:

Maternal blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg is also within the normal range for a pregnant woman in labor and does not indicate any complications. The nurse should monitor the maternal vital signs regularly but does not need to report this finding to the physician.

Choice D reason:

A decrease in the intensity of uterine contractions is a common reason for using vacuum extraction, as it indicates that the labor is not progressing adequately and the baby may need assistance to be delivered. The nurse should inform the physician of this finding, but it is not an emergency situation.

Choice A reason:

Charting the normal axillary temperature is not the priority in this situation. The infant's temperature is subnormal, indicating hypothermia, which requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason:

Rechecking the infant's temperature rectally may provide a more accurate reading, but it is not the priority action at this moment. The infant's low temperature indicates the need for immediate warming to prevent further complications.

Choice C reason:

Placing the infant in a radiant warmer is the priority nursing action. The axillary temperature of 35.9°C (96.6°F) is below the normal range for a newborn, which is around 36.5-37.5°C (97.7-99.5°F). Hypothermia in newborns can be dangerous and lead to respiratory distress, metabolic problems, and other complications. A radiant warmer provides a controlled heat source to warm the infant and stabilize their body temperature.

Choice D reason:

Having the mother breastfeed the infant may help provide warmth and comfort, but it is not the priority action. The immediate concern is to raise the infant's body temperature to a safe range using a radiant warmer.

Choice A reason:

Assisting the client on a bedpan to urinate is important for assessing urinary output and preventing bladder distension. However, in this situation, the priority is to assess and manage postpartum hemorrhage, which is indicated by the excessive bleeding.

Choice B reason:

Increasing the client's fluid intake is generally a good measure for promoting hydration and maintaining blood volume. However, it is not the priority in this scenario of excessive postpartum bleeding.

Choice C reason:

Palpating the client's uterine fundus is the priority nursing intervention at this time. The excessive bleeding indicated by saturating two perineal pads in a 30-minute period suggests postpartum hemorrhage, which can result from uterine atony (failure of the uterus to contract adequately after childbirth). Palpating the fundus allows the nurse to assess if the uterus is firm or boggy, and if it is not contracting properly, immediate interventions can be initiated to control the bleeding.

Choice D reason:

Preparing to administer oxytocic medication (such as oxytocin) can help stimulate uterine contractions and prevent or manage postpartum hemorrhage. However, the priority is to first assess the uterine fundus and confirm the cause of the excessive bleeding before administering any medication.

The question is about a client who has been in the latent phase of labor for 12 hours and wants some medication to help her rest. The nurse has to predict which medication the healthcare provider will prescribe. The choices are:. • A. Fentanyl: a synthetic opioid that is used for pain relief and sedation. It is fast-acting and potent, but can cause respiratory depression and nausea. • B. Meperidine: a synthetic opioid that is used for pain relief and sedation. It is less potent than fentanyl, but can cause seizures and serotonin syndrome. • C. Morphine: a natural opioid that is used for pain relief and sedation. It is less potent than fentanyl, but can cause respiratory depression and itching. • D. Secobarbital: a barbiturate that is used for sedation and anesthesia. It is not an opioid, but can cause respiratory depression and addiction.

Choice A reason:

Human placental lactogen (hPL) is a hormone produced by the placenta that promotes mammary gland growth for lactation. It also helps regulate maternal glucose and lipid metabolism. However, hPL is not the basis for pregnancy tests, as it is not produced by the fertilized egg and does not maintain the corpus luteum.

Choice B reason:

Estrogen (estriol) is a steroid hormone produced by the placenta that stimulates the growth of the uterus and allows it to contract by countering the effect of progesterone. It also prepares the breasts for milk production and enhances fetal organ development. However, estrogen is not the basis for pregnancy tests, as it is not produced by the fertilized egg and does not maintain the corpus luteum.

Choice C reason:

Progesterone (progestin) is a steroid hormone produced by the ovaries and by the placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone supports the lining of the uterus, which provides the environment for the fetus and the placenta to grow. It also prevents the shedding of the lining and suppresses uterine contractions, which are important in preventing labor from occurring before the end of pregnancy. However, progesterone is not the basis for pregnancy tests, as it is not produced by the fertilized egg and does not maintain the corpus luteum. Choice D reason:

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the fertilized egg after it implants in the uterus. hCG helps maintain the corpus luteum during the early stages of pregnancy, which is essential for producing progesterone. hCG levels rise rapidly in the first few weeks of pregnancy and can be detected in urine or blood samples. Therefore, hCG is the basis for pregnancy tests, as it indicates that a fertilization and implantation have occurred.

Choice A reason:

Rupture of the membranes is not a reliable sign of true labor, as it can occur before or during labor, or be artificially induced by the provider. • Choice B reason:

Patterns of contractions can vary depending on the stage and phase of labor, and can also be influenced by factors such as hydration, activity, and medication. Contractions alone do not indicate true labor unless they are accompanied by cervical changes. • Choice C reason:

Changes in the cervix, such as effacement (thinning) and dilation (opening), are the most accurate indication of true labor. Cervical changes are caused by the pressure of the presenting part and the force of the contractions. The nurse should assess the cervix periodically to determine the progress of labor. • Choice D reason:

The station of the presenting part refers to the relationship of the fetal head to the maternal ischial spines, which are bony landmarks in the pelvis. The station can range from -5 (high) to +5 (low), with 0 being at the level of the ischial spines. Station does not indicate true labor, as it can vary depending on the parity, pelvic shape, and fetal position of the client.

The correct answer is choice B. Prolactin.

Choice A reason:

Estrogen. Estrogen is a hormone that plays a role in the development of the mammary glands and the ductal system during pregnancy. However, estrogen does not directly produce milk.

In fact, high levels of estrogen during pregnancy inhibit milk secretion by blocking prolactin. Therefore, estrogen is not the hormone necessary for milk production. • Choice B reason:

Prolactin. Prolactin is the hormone responsible for the production of breast milk. Prolactin is secreted by the pituitary gland in response to suckling or nipple stimulation. Prolactin levels rise during pregnancy and peak after delivery, when the sudden drop in estrogen and progesterone allows prolactin to take over and initiate lactation. Therefore, prolactin is the hormone necessary for milk production. • Choice C reason:

Progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone that also contributes to the development of the mammary glands and the alveoli during pregnancy. However, like estrogen, progesterone does not directly produce milk. Progesterone also inhibits milk secretion by blocking prolactin during pregnancy. Therefore, progesterone is not the hormone necessary for milk production. •

Choice D reason:

Lactogen. Lactogen is not a hormone, but a general term for any substance that stimulates lactation. There are different types of lactogens, such as human placental lactogen (hPL), which is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and has some lactogenic effects on the mammary glands. However, hPL is not the main hormone responsible for milk production. That role belongs to prolactin. Therefore, lactogen is not the hormone necessary for milk production.

Choice A reason:

The woman in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each does not require the immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Early labor is characterized by mild and infrequent contractions as the cervix begins to dilate and efface. Choice B reason:

The woman in active labor with contractions every 30 minutes lasting 60 seconds each also does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Active labor typically involves regular and stronger contractions as the cervix continues to dilate and the baby progresses downward.

Choice C reason:

The woman in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each does not require immediate cessation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. These contractions are within the expected range for active labor and may be considered normal.

Choice D reason:

The woman in transition with contractions every 1.5 minutes lasting 95 seconds each should have the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion discontinued immediately. Transition is the most intense phase of labor, characterized by rapid and strong contractions as the cervix completes dilation. Prolonged and frequent contractions during this phase can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and result in fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is necessary to reduce the intensity and frequency of contractions, ensuring better fetal well-being during this critical phase of labor.