ATI Custom Sp23 N144 FINAL
Total Questions : 60
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA charge nurse is providing an inservice for staff nurses on the use of new IV pumps.
Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take to best evaluate staff competency with the new equipment?
Explanation
Allowing time during the workday when each nurse can demonstrate proficiency is the best way to evaluate staff competency with the new equipment. This method ensures that the nurses can perform the skills correctly and safely under the charge nurse’s supervision and feedback.
Choice A is wrong because verbally questioning the staff about the new equipment does not assess their practical skills or ability to use the equipment correctly.
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Prepared by Dr Paul Mugo
Choice B is wrong because requiring each nurse to take a written examination about the new equipment does not assess their hands-on skills or ability to troubleshoot problems with the equipment.
Choice D is wrong because asking each nurse to read the procedure and sign a form acknowledging competency does not verify that the nurses have understood the procedure or can apply it in practice.
It also relies on the nurses’ honesty and self-assessment, which may not be accurate or reliable.
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client.
Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates advocacy for client rights?
Explanation
This demonstrates advocacy for client rights because it respects the client’s autonomy, dignity, and preferences. It also helps the client to make informed decisions about their own health.
Choice B is wrong because telling the client that refusal of the medication is considered noncompliance is coercive and violates the client’s right to refuse treatment.
It also does not address the client’s reasons for refusing the medication or provide any information or education.
Choice C is wrong because informing the client that the medication is the same as taken at home is not enough to ensure that the client understands the purpose, benefits, and risks of the medication.
It also does not verify that the client is taking the medication correctly at home or that there are no changes in the dosage or frequency.
Choice D is wrong because insisting the client takes the prescribed medications is also coercive and violates the client’s right to refuse treatment.
It also does not respect the client’s autonomy, dignity, and preferences.
It may also cause harm to the client if they have an allergy, intolerance, or contraindication to the medication.
Advocacy for nursing stems from a philosophy of nursing in which nursing practice is the support of an individual to promote his or her own well-being, as understood by that individual. It is an ethic of practice that requires nurses to protect and uphold their patients’ rights, values, and interests.
Which thermoregulatory condition is an elderly person most at risk for?
Explanation
Hypothermia is a condition where the body temperature drops below 35°C (95°F) and affects the normal functioning of the body. Elderly people are more at risk for hypothermia because they have a lower muscle mass, a decreased
shiver reflex, and lower immunity. They also tend to have a lower body temperature and may not develop fevers when they contract a viral or bacterial illness.
Choice B. Normothermia is wrong because it means having a normal body temperature, which is around 37°C (98.6°F).
Choice C. Hyperthermia is wrong because it means having a high body temperature, which is above 37.5°C (99.5°F).
Hyperthermia can be caused by heat exposure, infection, inflammation, or certain medications.
Choice D. Malignant hyperthermia is wrong because it is a rare genetic disorder that causes a severe reaction to certain anesthetics or muscle relaxants.
It is not related to thermoregulation in elderly people.
Question 5.
A client has a history of gastric bypass surgery within the past year. She presents to her primary care office for a check-up and states she has been troubled by several seemingly unrelated ailments: a sore tongue, tingling in her fingers, and “almost” falling several times due to lack of balance. The nurse notes that she is pale and slightly tachycardic.
Which type of anemia does the nurse suspect?
Explanation
This type of anemia is caused by the reduced absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine after gastric bypass surgery. Vitamin B12 is needed for the production of healthy red blood cells and nerve function. The symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia include sore tongue, tingling in the fingers, and balance problems.
Choice A is wrong because folic acid deficiency anemia is caused by the lack of folic acid in the diet or increased demand for folic acid, such as during pregnancy.
Folic acid is also needed for red blood cell production, but it does not cause nerve symptoms.
Choice B is wrong because aplastic anemia is caused by the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells.
It is not related to gastric bypass surgery or nutrient deficiency. It can be caused by infections, drugs, radiation, or autoimmune diseases.
Choice D is wrong because acquired anemia is a general term for any type of anemia that is not inherited or present at birth.
It can have many causes, such as blood loss, infection, inflammation, or chronic disease.
It does not specify the type of anemia or the underlying mechanism. Normal ranges for hemoglobin are 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL for men and 12 to 15.5 g/dL for women. Normal ranges for vitamin B12 are 200 to 900 pg/mL.
The nurse includes which of the following as an appropriately constructed goal statement for the client with COPD?
Explanation
This is an appropriately constructed goal statement for the client with COPD because it is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and time-bound (SMART). It also addresses the client’s education needs and promotes self-care.
Choice A is wrong because it is not realistic or attainable for a client with COPD to have O2 saturation > 92% by discharge.
The normal range for O2 saturation is 95-100%, but clients with COPD may have lower levels due to chronic hypoxia.
Choice B is wrong because it is not a goal statement, but an intervention.
A goal statement should describe the expected outcome of the intervention, not the intervention itself.
Choice D is wrong because it is not measurable or time-bound.
A goal statement should have a clear indicator of how and when the outcome will be achieved.
The RN performs an admission assessment and determines the client is a fall risk. What is a priority nursing intervention for this client?
Explanation
This is because a fall risk wristband alerts the staff and other caregivers that the client is at risk of falling and needs extra precautions and supervision. A walker, a cane, or a chair on either side of the bed are not priority interventions for a fall risk client, as they do not address the root cause of the problem or prevent potential falls.
Choice A is wrong because a walker may not be appropriate for the client’s condition or mobility level, and it may pose a tripping hazard if not used correctly.
Choice B is wrong because placing a chair on either side of the bed may limit the client’s access to the bed or the bathroom, and it may also create clutter and obstruction in the room.
Choice C is wrong because a cane may not provide enough stability or support for the client, and it may also be difficult to use in narrow spaces or on slippery surfaces.
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has COPD. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Explanation
Choice B is wrong because laying down for 1 hour after meals can increase the pressure on the diaphragm and make breathing more difficult. It can also increase the risk of aspiration and reflux.
Choice C is wrong because restricting the client’s fluid intake to less than 1 L/day can lead to dehydration and thickening of secretions, which can obstruct the airways and impair gas exchange. Fluid intake should be adequate to maintain hydration and thin secretions.
Choice D is wrong because using the upper chest for respiration is a sign of inefficient breathing and respiratory distress.
It can increase the oxygen demand and cause fatigue. The client should be encouraged to use the diaphragm and abdominal muscles for respiration, which are more efficient and reduce the work of breathing.
Normal ranges for oxygen saturation are 95% to 100%, for arterial blood gas pH are 7.35 to 7.45, for PaCO2 are 35 to 45 mmHg, for PaO2 are 80 to 100 mmHg, and for HCO3 are 22 to 26 mEq/L.
A nurse is cheering on participants in a marathon and one runner collapses nearby. He begins to vomit and complain of a throbbing headache. The nurse notes that he is not sweating, yet his skin is red and very hot to touch, and his pulse is 170 bpm and strong. The nurse knows that:
Explanation
Some of the symptoms of heat stroke are:
• High body temperature of 104 F (40 C) or higher
• Altered mental state or behavior, such as confusion, agitation, slurred speech, seizures or coma
• Lack of sweating despite the heat
• Red, hot and dry skin
• Rapid and strong pulse
• Throbbing headach
• Nausea and vomiting
Choice B is wrong because it is necessary to call 911 if someone has heat stroke. Heat stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention and cooling of the body.
Choice C is wrong because it is not normal to vomit and not sweat during a marathon. Vomiting and lack of sweating are signs of dehydration and heat stroke, which indicate that the body is unable to regulate its temperature properly.
Choice D is wrong because getting the patient to a cooler, air-conditioned place will not reverse the heat exhaustion.
Heat exhaustion is a milder form of heat-related illness that can lead to heat stroke if not treated. Heat exhaustion symptoms include heavy sweating, weakness, dizziness, nausea and muscle cramps. Getting the patient to a cooler place may help with heat exhaustion, but heat stroke requires more aggressive cooling measures such as immersing the patient in cold water or applying ice packs to the body.
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about preventing health care associated infections (HAIs).
The nurse should include which of the following as a common cause of these infections?
Explanation
Urinary catheterization is a common cause of health care-associated infections (HAIs), which are infections that patients get while receiving medical treatment in a health care facility. Urinary catheterization involves inserting a tube into the bladder to drain urine, which can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract and cause infections.
Choice B is wrong because malnutrition is not a direct cause of HAIs, although it can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of infections.
Choice C is wrong because multiple caregivers are not a direct cause of HAIs, although they can increase the exposure to different pathogens and cross contamination if they do not follow proper hygiene and infection control practices.
Choice D is wrong because chlorhexidine washes are not a cause of HAIs, but rather a preventive measure to reduce the risk of HAIs by disinfecting the skin and mucous membranes.
An elderly man fell during his hospitalization and has died from a head injury sustained in the fall.
What is the role of the risk manager in this situation?
Explanation
The role of the risk manager is to identify and analyze the factors that contributed to the adverse event and to implement strategies to prevent or reduce the likelihood of recurrence. The risk manager is not concerned with assigning blame or protecting the staff from litigation, but rather with improving the quality and safety of care.
Choice A is wrong because it implies a punitive approach that does not address the underlying system issues.
Choice B is wrong because it suggests a defensive attitude that does not foster a culture of learning and improvement.
Choice D is wrong because it assumes that the nurses were not aware of the patient’s fall risk, which may not be the case.
The risk manager should investigate all aspects of the situation, including the communication and documentation of the patient’s fall risk assessment and interventions.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about informed consent.
Which of the following should be included as a responsibility of the nurse in this process?
Explanation
This is a responsibility of the nurse in the process of informed consent, which is the patient’s choice to have a treatment or procedure based on their full understanding of its benefits, risks, and alternatives. The nurse should provide written materials in the client’s spoken language, when possible, and verify that the client comprehends and consents to the care and procedures.
Choice A is wrong because confirming that the client is competent to sign for the procedure is not a responsibility of the nurse, but of the health professional who directs the care. The nurse can only obtain consent when initiating care or reviewing consent before providing care ordered by another health professional.
Choice B is wrong because discussing the risks of the procedure with the client is not a responsibility of the nurse, but of the health professional who directs the care. The nurse can only inform the client about what will occur during the procedure and answer any questions they may have.
Choice D is wrong because explaining alternatives to the procedure to the client is not a responsibility of the nurse, but of the health professional who directs the care. The nurse can only inform the client about what will occur during the procedure and answer any questions they may have.
A charge nurse is discussing evidence-based practice (EBP) with a newly licensed nurse.
Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the hierarchy of evidence?
Explanation
One of the highest levels of evidence are randomized, controlled, double-blind studies. This is because these studies reduce the risk of bias and confounding factors by randomly assigning participants to intervention or control groups, blinding the participants and researchers to the group allocation, and using a placebo or standard treatment as a comparison.
Choice B is wrong because ideas, editorials, and opinions are considered low levels of evidence as they are based on personal views and not on rigorous research methods.
Choice C is wrong because the purpose of the hierarchy of evidence is to help the nurse evaluate the quality and strength of the research findings, not to compare patient values with research findings.
Patient values are important for evidence-based practice, but they are not part of the hierarchy of evidence.
Choice D is wrong because all forms of evidence should not be considered equally when determining evidence-based practice. The hierarchy of evidence ranks different types of research designs according to their validity and applicability, and the nurse should use the highest level of evidence available for their clinical question.
A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing.
Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
Explanation
This is the nurse’s priority because it will help determine the severity of the client’s difficulty breathing and guide the appropriate interventions. According to the Mayo Clinic, oxygen therapy for COPD is indicated when there is not enough oxygen in the blood, which can be measured by a pulse oximeter or a blood gas test. Increasing the oxygen flow without assessing the oxygen level could be harmful or ineffective. Having the client cough and expectorate secretions may help clear the airway, but it is not the first action to take. Calling emergency services may be necessary if the client’s condition is life threatening, but it should not be done before assessing the respiratory status.
Choice A is wrong because it does not address the immediate need of assessing the respiratory status and may cause unnecessary panic or delay in treatment.
Choice B is wrong because it does not follow the guidelines for oxygen therapy for COPD, which require a prescription and monitoring of oxygen levels.
Increasing the oxygen flow without assessing the oxygen level could cause oxygen toxicity or suppress the respiratory drive.
Choice C is wrong because it is not the most urgent action to take.
Having the client cough and expectorate secretions may help clear the airway, but it may also increase the work of breathing and worsen hypoxia.
Assessing the respiratory status should come first.
Normal ranges for oxygen saturation are 95% to 100% for healthy individuals and 88% to 92% for most people with COPD. Normal ranges for blood gas tests vary depending on the laboratory, but generally, normal values for arterial blood gas are: pH 7.35 to 7.45, PaCO2 35 to 45 mm Hg, PaO2 80 to 100 mm Hg, HCO3 22 to 26 mEq/L.
A nurse is teaching about values to a newly licensed nurse.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding?
Explanation
This statement indicates an understanding of the ethical principle of respect for autonomy, which means that the nurse respects the client’s right to make their own decisions about their care and respects their values and beliefs.
Choice A is wrong because “A nurse’s personal values are not considered when making ethical decisions.” This statement contradicts the ethical principle of integrity, which means that the nurse acts in accordance with their personal and professional values and standards.
Choice B is wrong because “A nurse’s behaviors and actions are called values.” This statement confuses values with morals, which are the judgments about behaviors and actions based on personal or societal beliefs.
Choice D is wrong because “Value clarification involves maintaining clinical competency.” This statement confuses value clarification with professionalism, which involves maintaining clinical competency, accountability, and responsibility. Value clarification is a process of self-exploration and reflection that helps the nurse identify their own values and understand how they affect their ethical decisions.
In individuals who have appendicitis, the pain will typically localize to McBurney’s point.
Which quadrant of the abdomen is McBurney’s point found?
Explanation
Choice A is wrong because the left lower quadrant is where the sigmoid colon and part of the small intestine are located.
These organs are not related to appendicitis.
Choice B is wrong because the left upper quadrant is where the stomach, spleen, and part of the pancreas are located.
These organs are also not related to appendicitis.
Choice C is wrong because the right upper quadrant is where the liver, gallbladder, and part of the small intestine are located. These organs can cause pain in this area if they have problems, but not appendicitis
While preparing a client for surgery, the nurse marks the arm that is to be amputated and participates in a “time-out” procedure before the surgery begins.
Which sentinel event is this action intended to prevent?
Explanation
This action is intended to prevent a sentinel event, which is a patient safety event that results in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm. A sentinel event is a serious adverse event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response. Removing the wrong arm would be a devastating and irreversible outcome for the patient and the health care provider.
Choice A is wrong because the lack of healing of the stump is not a sentinel event. It is a possible complication of amputation that may be related to the natural course of the patient’s illness or underlying condition.
Choice B is wrong because ineffective control of the client’s pain is not a sentinel event. It is a quality of care issue that may affect the patient’s comfort and recovery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.
Choice D is wrong because the client being mildly sedated is not a sentinel event. It is a level of anesthesia that may be appropriate for some types of surgery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.
The nurse identifies chronic pain as an appropriate nursing priority (or problem/diagnosis) for a client with fibromyalgia.
Which manifestation did the client most likely report that caused the nurse to select this priority?
Explanation
This is because fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues. Fibromyalgia often co-exists with other conditions, such as irritable bowel syndrome, chronic fatigue syndrome, migraine and other types of headaches. One of the main symptoms of fibromyalgia is widespread pain that has lasted for at least three months. To be considered widespread, the pain must occur on both sides of your body and above and below your waist. The pain could also be felt in specific areas called tender points. These are places on the body where even light pressure causes pain. There are 18 possible tender points on the body. Having pain in at least 11 of these points is one way to help diagnose fibromyalgia.
Choice A is wrong because chronic ocular pain related to stress, fatigue, and certain triggers is not a typical symptom of fibromyalgia.
Ocular pain is more likely to be caused by other conditions, such as dry eye syndrome, glaucoma, or eye infections.
Choice B is wrong because pain and sensitivity in the upper extremities and neck are not enough to indicate fibromyalgia. The pain must be widespread and affect both sides of the body and above and below the waist. Choice C is wrong because dull joint pain that accompanies physical exertion and which is relieved with rest is not a characteristic of fibromyalgia. The pain associated with fibromyalgia is often described as a constant dull ache that does not improve with rest. It may also be accompanied by other symptoms, such as fatigue, cognitive difficulties, and sleep problems.
The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished.
Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Explanation
The client may have a ruptured appendix, which is a life-threatening complication of appendicitis. A ruptured appendix can cause peritonitis, which is an infection of the lining of the abdomen, or an abscess, which is a collection of pus around the appendix. These conditions require immediate medical attention and surgery to remove the appendix and clean the abdominal cavity.
Choice A is wrong because administering the prescribed medication may mask the symptoms of a ruptured appendix and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B is wrong because repositioning the client and applying a heating pad may increase the risk of rupture or spread of infection.
Choice D is wrong because calling the operating room team is not the nurse’s responsibility and may not be feasible depending on the availability of the surgical team and the operating room.
A person with anemia is prescribed erythropoietin subcutaneously. The nurse knows that erythropoietin:
Explanation
This helps increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and corrects anemia.
Choice B is wrong because erythropoietin is not given to all people with anemia. It is only used for certain types of anemia, such as those caused by chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because erythropoietin is not given for iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is treated with iron supplements and dietary changes.
Choice D is wrong because erythropoietin does not stimulate bone marrow production of white blood cells. White blood cells are involved in immune responses and are produced by different growth factors.
Question 22.
The nurse does not turn a client every two hours as ordered, and the client develops a pressure injury.
What legal concept applies?
Explanation
This is because the nurse had a legal obligation to turn the client every two hours as ordered, and by failing to do so, they did not exercise reasonable care that could foreseeably prevent harm to the client. This is an example of negligence, which requires four elements: duty, breach, injury and causation.
Choice B is wrong because criminality refers to the violation of criminal laws, such as theft or assault, which are not applicable in this case.
Choice C is wrong because scope of practice refers to the range of activities that a health care professional is authorized to perform based on their education, training and certification.
The nurse’s failure to turn the client does not relate to their scope of practice. Choice D is wrong because false imprisonment refers to the unlawful restraint of a person’s freedom of movement, such as locking them in a room or restraining them against their will.
The nurse’s failure to turn the client does not involve any such restraint.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about healthful sleep habits.
Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client needs further instructions?
Explanation
Watching television until falling asleep at night is a poor sleep habit because it can interfere with the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle and make it harder to fall asleep and stay asleep. Television can also expose the eyes to bright light and stimulating or stressful content, which can affect the production of melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep.
Choice B is wrong because having a small snack and taking a bath before going to bed each day are good sleep habits that can promote relaxation and sleep quality.
Choice C is wrong because not taking naps throughout the day is a good sleep habit that can help maintain a consistent sleep schedule and avoid disrupting the night-time sleep.
Choice D is wrong because going to bed and getting up at the same times each day is a good sleep habit that can reinforce the body’s circadian rhythm and make it easier to fall asleep and wake up.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a cloudy, opaque area over the lens of one eye.
The nurse should identify that this is a manifestation of which of the following visual impairments?
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Cataracts are a cloudy, opaque area over the lens of one eye that can impair vision
Choice B is wrong because diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the blood vessels of the retina, not the lens. It can cause blurred vision, floaters, or vision loss
Choice C is wrong because glaucoma is a condition that damages the optic nerve due to high pressure in the eye. It can cause blind spots, halos around lights, or vision loss
Choice D is wrong because macular degeneration is a condition that damages the macula, the central part of the retina. It can cause blurred or no vision in the center of the visual field
: https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/cataracts/
: https://www.nei.nih.gov/learn-about-eye-health/eye-conditions-and diseases/diabetic-retinopathy
: https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/glaucoma/symptoms causes/syc-20372839
: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Macular_degeneration
The nurse utilizes the SBAR format to give report to the next nurse. Which one of the following statements is correct about the SBAR?
Explanation
The SBAR is used to organize and standardize communication between members of the health care team about a patient’s condition. It is an acronym for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
Choice B is wrong because the SBAR is not used to help Physical Therapy determine the client’s abilities.
Physical Therapy may use other tools or methods to assess the client’s functional status.
Choice C is wrong because the SBAR is not used to help physicians with diagnoses.
The SBAR is a communication tool, not a diagnostic tool.
Physicians may use other sources of information or tests to make diagnoses.
Choice D is wrong because the SBAR is not used to educate clients about their disease processes.
The SBAR is a tool for interprofessional communication, not for patient education.
Clients may receive education from other sources or materials.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a newly licensed nurse about ethical principles.
The nurse should include that working to not cause harm to a client, while trying to achieve the best possible outcome, is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
Explanation
Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm or preventing harm to a client. It is based on the Hippocratic oath of “primum non nocere” or “first, do no harm”. It means that the nurse should act in the best interest of the client and avoid any actions that could cause injury or suffering.
Choice B. Fidelity is the ethical principle of being faithful and loyal to a client.
It means that the nurse should keep promises, respect confidentiality, and maintain trust.
Choice C. Justice is the ethical principle of treating clients fairly and equally.
It means that the nurse should distribute resources and services based on the client’s needs and not on personal biases.
Choice D. Autonomy is the ethical principle of respecting a client’s right to make their own decisions.
It means that the nurse should inform the client of their options and support their choices, as long as they do not harm others.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of fibromyalgia.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
According to Mayo Clinic, physical therapy and exercises can improve strength, flexibility and stamina for people with fibromyalgia.
Low-impact aerobics, such as swimming or biking, are recommended as they are less likely to cause muscle soreness or injury.
Choice A is wrong because antidepressant medications can help ease the pain and fatigue associated with fibromyalgia.
They are often prescribed as part of the treatment plan.
Choice B is wrong because physical manifestations of the disease do not become progressively worse despite treatment.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition, but it does not damage the joints, muscles or organs.
Choice D is wrong because narcotic analgesia will not be used for long-term pain control. Opioid medications can cause significant side effects and dependence and will worsen the pain over time.
They are not recommended for fibromyalgia treatment.
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