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Ati dosage rn dosage calculation rn mental proctored exam 3.2 assessment

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Question 1:

A nurse is reviewing a client's prescription for buspirone 1 tablet PO every 12 hr. Before administering this medication, the nurse should ask the provider to add which of the following components of a medication prescription?

Explanation

A. Dose: It is critical to confirm the specific dosage of buspirone (e.g., milligrams per tablet) before administering the medication. The correct dosage ensures that the client receives an effective and safe amount of the drug, optimizing treatment outcomes. Administering an incorrect dose could lead to insufficient therapeutic effects or increased risk of side effects, which can be particularly important in medications affecting anxiety and mood.

B. Medication: The medication is already clearly specified as buspirone in the prescription, so there is no need to add or clarify this component. The clarity of the medication name is crucial for safe administration.

C. Route: The prescription explicitly states the route as "PO" (by mouth), meaning no further clarification or addition is necessary. Clear documentation of the route is vital for ensuring the medication is taken as intended, minimizing the risk of administration errors.

D. Frequency: The frequency of "every 12 hr" is clearly indicated, meaning it does not require any modification. Proper frequency ensures that the medication maintains its effectiveness, and having it specified helps prevent potential overdosing or subtherapeutic dosing.


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Question 2:

A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions for several clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Explanation

A. Temazepam 15 mg PO at bedtime PRN sleep: This prescription is clear, as it specifies the medication, dosage, route, and that it is for as-needed use at bedtime. This is an appropriate use of a sedative-hypnotic medication for sleep issues.

B. Adderall XR 10 mg PO hs: The abbreviation "hs" typically means "at bedtime," but in the context of Adderall, which is a stimulant, this usage may raise concerns about inappropriate timing. Stimulants are usually prescribed in the morning to avoid insomnia and potential side effects, so clarifying this prescription is necessary to ensure safe and effective use.

C. Fluoxetine 20 mg PO every a.m.: This prescription is clearly stated, with an appropriate dosage and frequency. Fluoxetine is commonly prescribed for depression and can be taken in the morning, making this prescription acceptable.

D. Guanfacine 1 mg PO daily: The prescription is straightforward and appropriate, as guanfacine is often used for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) or hypertension and can be taken daily. There are no concerns that require clarification with this prescription.


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Question 3:

A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for escitalopram 10 mg daily for a client who has depression. Which of the following should the nurse clarify with the provider about the prescription?

Explanation

A. Medication: The prescription specifies escitalopram, which is a well-known selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression. There is no ambiguity regarding the medication itself, making this aspect clear.

B. Time: While escitalopram can be taken at any time of day, it is important to clarify whether it should be taken in the morning or evening, especially if the client has a history of sleep disturbances. This timing can impact the client's daily routine and overall treatment effectiveness, so confirming the preferred time for administration is essential.

C. Dose: The prescribed dose of 10 mg daily falls within the typical therapeutic range for escitalopram. This dosage is standard for initiating treatment, so there is no need for clarification on this point.

D. Route: The prescription states that the medication is to be taken orally, which is the standard route for escitalopram. There is no confusion regarding the route of administration, making this aspect clear as well.


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Question 4:

A nurse is reconciling the medications of a client who was newly admitted for management of mania. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Explanation

A. Clonazepam 0.5 mg PO three times daily: This dosage is common for managing anxiety and can be appropriate for clients experiencing mania, particularly if anxiety symptoms are present. It’s generally considered safe within this range.

B. Lithium 300 mg PO three times daily: This is a standard initial dose for lithium therapy in managing mania, and dosing may be adjusted based on therapeutic levels. Regular monitoring is essential for safety.

C. Risperidone 3.0 mg PO daily: This dosage aligns with typical dosing for managing manic episodes and is within the acceptable therapeutic range for antipsychotic medications. It's commonly used in acute settings.

D. Divalproex 1.5 g PO twice daily: This high dosage raises concern as it significantly exceeds typical recommendations for divalproex. Standard dosing usually starts much lower, and this amount could increase the risk of side effects and toxicity. Clarification with the provider is warranted to ensure safe medication management.


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Question 5:

A nurse is preparing to administer fentanyl 400 mcg via the buccal route. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Dissolve the tablet in 118 mL (4 oz) liquid: This option is incorrect because buccal tablets are specifically designed to dissolve in the mouth without liquid. Using liquid can dilute the medication and hinder effective absorption.

B. Have the client chew the medication before swallowing: Chewing the buccal tablet is not appropriate, as it can lead to rapid release and loss of the intended slow absorption through the mucous membranes. This method undermines the effectiveness of the medication.

C. Mix the medication in 5 mL (1 tsp) soft food: This action is also incorrect, as mixing the buccal tablet with food may interfere with its absorption. Buccal medications are intended to dissolve between the cheek and gums for optimal effect.

D. Place the tablet between the client's cheek and gums: This is the correct method for administering a buccal tablet. This placement allows the medication to dissolve slowly and be absorbed effectively through the buccal mucosa, providing the desired therapeutic effect.


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Question 6:

A nurse is reviewing a client's prescription for lorazepam 3 mg PO BID. The nurse should interpret which of the following information from the prescription?

Explanation

A. The medication should be administered as needed: This interpretation is incorrect because the prescription specifies a regular dosing schedule of twice daily (BID), indicating that it is not PRN (as needed) but rather a scheduled medication.

B. The medication is administered orally: This is correct as the prescription states "PO," which stands for "per os," meaning the medication is to be taken by mouth. This indicates the route of administration and is essential for ensuring the client receives the medication correctly.

C. The nurse should administer 1.5 mg twice daily: This interpretation is incorrect. The prescription specifically indicates a total dose of 3 mg to be taken, not divided into 1.5 mg doses. The correct administration is 3 mg at each dosing time, totaling 6 mg per day.

D. The medication is administered with every meal: This is not specified in the prescription. The dosing schedule of BID does not imply administration with meals unless explicitly stated. The nurse should follow the prescribed timing and not assume meal-related administration without clear instructions.


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Question 7:

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record. The nurse should identify that which of the following prescriptions requires further clarification?

Explanation

A. Albuterol metered dose inhaler 2 inhalations every 4 to 6 hr PRN for bronchospasm: This prescription is appropriate for managing acute bronchospasm. Albuterol is commonly used as a rescue inhaler, and the frequency aligns with standard practice for its use.

B. Clozapine 25 mg PO daily: This dosage is appropriate for initiating treatment with clozapine, which often starts at a low dose due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Regular monitoring of blood counts is required but the prescription itself is clear.

C. Haloperidol 0.5 mg PO 2 times each day: This prescription raises a concern due to the formatting error (there is a missing space after "Haloperidol"). The clarity of the dose is crucial, especially with potent medications like haloperidol, and the nurse should confirm the intended dosage to avoid medication errors.

D. Flunisolide 80 mcg inhalation twice daily: This is a standard prescription for a corticosteroid inhaler, used for long-term control of asthma or COPD. The dosage and frequency are appropriate, requiring no further clarification.


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