Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level that can affect newborns, especially those who are premature, small for gestational age, or have diabetic mothers. However, hypoglycemia does not explain the high FHR, the low Apgar scores, or the pale and tachypneic appearance of the newborn.

Choice B reason: Phrenic nerve injury is a rare complication of cesarean section that can cause diaphragmatic paralysis and respiratory distress in the newborn. However, phrenic nerve injury usually affects only one side of the chest, and does not cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, or pallor.

Choice C reason: Sepsis is a serious infection that can affect newborns, especially those who are exposed to prolonged rupture of membranes, as in this case. Sepsis can cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, pale and tachypneic appearance, and other signs of shock and organ failure.

Choice D reason: Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition where the newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid into the lungs, causing respiratory distress. However, meconium aspiration syndrome usually occurs in term or post-term infants, and is associated with low FHR, not high FHR. Meconium aspiration syndrome also causes cyanosis, not pallor.

Choice A reason: Using fingertips when calming the newborn is not recommended, as it can overstimulate the immature nervous system and cause stress. Instead, the nurse should use gentle, firm, and sustained touch, such as cupping the head and feet, or swaddling the newborn.

Choice B reason: Positioning the premature infant on their abdomen is contraindicated, as it can increase the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The nurse should position the newborn on their back or side, with a rolled blanket or towel to support the spine and prevent flattening of the head.

Choice C reason: Keeping the newborn in a well-lit nursery is not advisable, as it can interfere with the development of the circadian rhythm and sleep patterns. The nurse should provide a dark and quiet environment for the newborn, and expose them to natural light during the day.

Choice D reason: Clustering the newborn's care activities is beneficial, as it can reduce the number of disruptions and allow for longer periods of rest and growth. The nurse should plan and coordinate the care activities, such as feeding, bathing, changing, and assessing, to minimize the stress on the newborn.

Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as surfactant is not an antibiotic and does not treat infections. Surfactant is a substance that is naturally produced by the lungs to reduce the surface tension and prevent the alveoli from collapsing. Premature infants may have insufficient surfactant, which can cause RDS.

Choice B reason: This statement is partially true, as surfactant can help reduce episodes of periodic apnea, which is a condition where the newborn stops breathing for more than 20 seconds. However, this is not the main purpose of surfactant therapy, and other interventions, such as oxygen, ventilation, and caffeine, may be needed to treat apnea.

Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as surfactant improves the ability of the baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are essential for life. Surfactant therapy can improve the lung function, reduce the need for mechanical ventilation, and prevent complications, such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia and pulmonary hemorrhage.

Choice D reason: This statement is false, as surfactant does not affect the level of sedation in the newborn. Surfactant is administered through an endotracheal tube, which may require sedation to reduce discomfort and agitation. The nurse should monitor the newborn's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and pain level during and after the procedure.

Choice A reason: Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 min are normal and expected in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which lasts from 4 to 8 cm of cervical dilation. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider.

Choice B reason: Each contraction lasting longer than 110 seconds is abnormal and concerning, as it can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can reduce the blood flow to the placenta and fetus, and cause fetal distress. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as stopping oxytocin infusion, administering tocolytics, or performing an emergency cesarean section.

Choice C reason: Contractions are strong in intensity are also normal and expected in the active phase of the first stage of labor, as they facilitate the cervical dilation and effacement. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider.

Choice D reason: Client reports feeling contractions in lower back are common and not harmful, especially if the fetus is in the occiput posterior position, which causes the fetal head to press against the sacrum. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can offer comfort measures, such as massage, counterpressure, heat, or position changes.

Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, diabetes, or renal impairment. A client with severe preeclampsia may have oliguria, which is a urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours, due to the decreased renal perfusion and function.

Choice B reason: Report of headache is an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or vasospasm. A client with severe preeclampsia may also have other neurological symptoms, such as blurred vision, scotoma, photophobia, or hyperreflexia.

Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, infection, anxiety, or fetal distress. A client with severe preeclampsia may have bradycardia, which is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure.

Choice D reason: Absence of clonus is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate normal or decreased neuromuscular irritability. A client with severe preeclampsia may have positive clonus, which is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, due to the increased reflex excitability and hyperactivity.

Choice A reason: Irregular fetal heart rate is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate fetal arrhythmia, distress, or demise. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have no fetal heart tones, as the pregnancy is nonviable and consists of abnormal trophoblastic tissue.

Choice B reason: Rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal termination of pregnancy. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have markedly elevated hCG levels, as the trophoblastic tissue secretes excessive amounts of the hormone.

Choice C reason: Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal cervical mucus production. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have vaginal bleeding, which is often dark brown or bright red, and may contain grape-like vesicles.

Choice D reason: Excessive uterine enlargement is an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it reflects the rapid growth of the trophoblastic tissue and the accumulation of fluid-filled vesicles. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have a uterus that is larger than expected for the gestational age, and may experience uterine cramping or pain.

Choice A reason: Nervousness is a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can provide reassurance and comfort to the client.

Choice B reason: Tremors are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes increased muscle activity and shakiness. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can monitor the client's vital signs and electrolyte levels, and advise the client to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.

Choice C reason: Dyspnea is an uncommon and serious side effect of terbutaline, as it can indicate pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, or discontinuation of terbutaline.

Choice D reason: Headaches are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the brain. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can administer analgesics as prescribed, and encourage the client to rest and hydrate.

Choice A reason: This statement is correct, as betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of delivering before 34 weeks of gestation. Betamethasone stimulates the production of surfactant, which is a substance that prevents the alveoli from collapsing and improves the lung function of the fetus.

Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as betamethasone does not affect the cervical dilation, which is a sign of labor progression. Betamethasone does not stop or delay labor, but rather reduces the complications of prematurity, such as respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, or necrotizing enterocolitis.

Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as betamethasone does not increase the fetal heart rate, which is a measure of fetal well-being. Betamethasone may cause transient fetal bradycardia, which is a decrease in the fetal heart rate, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the fetal heart rate and notify the provider if there are any signs of fetal distress.

Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as betamethasone is not used to stop preterm labor contractions, which are caused by the uterine muscle activity. Betamethasone does not have any tocolytic effect, which is the ability to inhibit uterine contractions. Other medications, such as magnesium sulfate, nifedipine, or indomethacin, may be used to stop preterm labor contractions.

Choice A reason: This statement is insensitive and dismissive, as it implies that the client's feelings are not valid or important. The nurse should not minimize the client's disappointment or guilt, but rather acknowledge and respect them.

Choice B reason: This statement is inaccurate and irrelevant, as it does not address the client's emotional needs or concerns. The nurse should not give false or misleading information, or focus on the physical aspects of recovery, but rather provide emotional support and education.

Choice C reason: This statement is presumptuous and unrealistic, as it assumes that the client wants or can have another pregnancy, and that a vaginal delivery is possible or preferable. The nurse should not make assumptions or promises, or compare different modes of delivery, but rather explore the client's feelings and expectations.

Choice D reason: This statement is empathetic and respectful, as it reflects the client's feelings and validates them. The nurse should use active listening and therapeutic communication skills, such as open-ended questions, clarifications, and summarizations, to help the client cope and express her emotions.

Choice A reason: Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation and pain. The risk factors for thrombophlebitis include immobility, dehydration, obesity, smoking, and cesarean birth. This client is not at increased risk for thrombophlebitis based on the information given.

Choice B reason: Retained placental fragments are pieces of the placenta that remain in the uterus after delivery and can cause bleeding, infection, or uterine subinvolution. The risk factors for retained placental fragments include placenta previa, placenta accreta, manual removal of the placenta, and incomplete separation of the placenta. This client is not at increased risk for retained placental fragments based on the information given.

Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is an infection of the reproductive tract that occurs within six weeks after delivery and can cause fever, malaise, abdominal pain, and foul-smelling lochia. The risk factors for puerperal infection include prolonged rupture of membranes, prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, operative delivery, and retained placental fragments. This client is not at increased risk for puerperal infection based on the information given.

Choice D reason: Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery and can cause excessive bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and hemorrhage. The risk factors for uterine atony include overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, oxytocin use, anesthesia, and trauma. This client is at increased risk for uterine atony due to the large size of the newborn, which can overstretch the uterus and impair its ability to contract.

Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause serious complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly and report any readings above 140/90 mm Hg to the provider.

Choice B reason: Increased urine output is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal physiological change of pregnancy, as the renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate increase. A client with preeclampsia may have decreased urine output, which can indicate renal impairment or oligohydramnios.

Choice C reason: Joint pain is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a common discomfort of pregnancy, as the hormones relaxin and progesterone loosen the ligaments and joints. A client with preeclampsia may have epigastric pain, which can indicate liver involvement or impending eclampsia.

Choice D reason: Vaginal discharge is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal occurrence of pregnancy, as the cervical glands secrete more mucus to protect the uterus from infection. A client with preeclampsia may have vaginal bleeding, which can indicate placental abruption or disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.

Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.

Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.

Choice A reason: Increased risk of anemia is not a likely cause of respiratory distress in a term macrosomic newborn, as it can affect any newborn regardless of the maternal diabetes status or the fetal size. Anemia can cause pallor, tachycardia, and poor feeding, but not respiratory distress.

Choice B reason: Hyperinsulinemia is a likely cause of respiratory distress in a term macrosomic newborn, as it results from the fetal exposure to high maternal glucose levels and the subsequent overproduction of insulin. Hyperinsulinemia can impair the synthesis of surfactant, which is a substance that prevents the alveoli from collapsing and facilitates gas exchange. Hyperinsulinemia can also cause hypoglycemia, which can affect the respiratory center and cause apnea.

Choice C reason: Increased blood viscosity is not a likely cause of respiratory distress in a term macrosomic newborn, as it can affect any newborn with polycythemia, which is an abnormally high number of red blood cells. Polycythemia can cause cyanosis, jaundice, and thrombosis, but not respiratory distress.

Choice D reason: Brachial plexus injury is not a likely cause of respiratory distress in a term macrosomic newborn, as it affects the nerves that supply the arm and hand, not the lungs. Brachial plexus injury can occur due to the excessive traction or stretching of the shoulder during delivery, and can cause weakness, paralysis, or sensory loss in the affected arm.

Choice A reason: This statement is correct, as these are the common complications of post-term infants, who are born after 42 weeks of gestation. Meconium aspiration can occur when the fetus passes meconium in utero and inhales it into the lungs, causing respiratory distress, inflammation, and infection. Hypoglycemia can occur due to the depletion of glycogen stores and the increased metabolic demands. Dry, cracked skin can occur due to the loss of vernix caseosa and the reduced amniotic fluid.

Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as these are the signs of neonatal hypocalcemia, which is a low level of calcium in the blood. Neonatal hypocalcemia can occur due to maternal diabetes, prematurity, or asphyxia, and can cause jitteriness, seizures, or tetany.

Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as these are the characteristics of preterm infants, who are born before 37 weeks of gestation. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin is a protective coating that prevents heat and water loss. Lethargy and RDS are signs of immaturity and underdevelopment of the central nervous system and the lungs.

Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as these are the features of infants with erythroblastosis fetalis, which is a hemolytic disease caused by the incompatibility of the Rh factor or the ABO blood group between the mother and the fetus. Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails are due to the accumulation of bilirubin, which is a breakdown product of red blood cells. Absence of scalp hair and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat are due to the chronic hypoxia and edema.

Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.

Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.

Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.

Choice A reason: Assisting the client with transferring to the gynecology unit is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it does not address the client's emotional needs or preferences. The nurse should first assess the client's coping and grieving process, and provide support and comfort.

Choice B reason: Offering mother private time with the newborn is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can facilitate the bonding and closure process, and help the client express her feelings and emotions. The nurse should respect the client's wishes and cultural beliefs regarding the viewing and holding of the stillborn infant, and provide a quiet and private environment.

Choice C reason: Administering alprazolam 0.5 mg PO is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the client's condition and history. The nurse should first use nonpharmacological methods, such as active listening, therapeutic communication, and counseling, to help the client cope and manage her anxiety and grief.

Choice D reason: Contacting the health care facility's clergy is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it may not be appropriate or desired by the client. The nurse should first ask the client if she wants any spiritual or religious support, and respect her decision and beliefs.

Choice A reason: Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia, along with hypertension. Proteinuria indicates renal damage and impaired glomerular filtration, which can lead to complications, such as oliguria, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome.

Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is a common and expected finding in pregnancy, as it results from the increased blood volume, venous pressure, and fluid retention. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is severe, generalized, or sudden.

Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is a normal and expected finding in pregnancy, as it reflects the growth and development of the fetus, placenta, and maternal tissues. Weight gain is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia, unless it is excessive, rapid, or associated with edema.

Choice D reason: Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg is a mild elevation that may indicate gestational hypertension, but not preeclampsia, unless it is accompanied by proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. The diagnostic threshold for preeclampsia is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.

Choice A reason: Prone positioning does not facilitate bone alignment, but rather increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The nurse should position the infant on their back or side, with a small pad or towel under the affected shoulder to elevate it slightly.

Choice B reason: No special treatment is not an appropriate option, as it can lead to complications, such as malunion, nonunion, or nerve damage. The nurse should provide proper care and treatment for the infant, such as pain management, immobilization, and monitoring.

Choice C reason: The shoulder should not be immobilized and cast applied, as it can cause stiffness, contractures, or growth disturbances. The nurse should use a soft splint or a figure-of-eight bandage to support the shoulder and prevent excessive movement.

Choice D reason: Parents should be taught range-of-motion exercises, as it is the most important intervention to promote healing and prevent complications. The nurse should instruct the parents to gently move the infant's arm and shoulder in all directions, several times a day, after the initial swelling and pain subside.

Choice A reason: Obtaining a type and crossmatch is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a preparatory step for blood transfusion, which may or may not be needed. The nurse should first identify the cause and severity of the hypotension, and initiate immediate interventions to stop the bleeding and restore the circulation.

Choice B reason: Administering oxytocin infusion is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the uterine tone and bleeding. The nurse should first evaluate the firmness of the uterus and massage it if needed, to stimulate the contraction and retraction of the uterine muscle.

Choice C reason: Initiating oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that aims to improve the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs. The nurse should first address the underlying cause of the hypotension, which is most likely postpartum hemorrhage, and prevent further blood loss and shock.

Choice D reason: Evaluating the firmness of the uterus is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can help determine the source and extent of the bleeding, and guide the subsequent interventions. The nurse should palpate the fundus and check the lochia, and report any signs of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice A reason: Placing the newborn in Trendelenburg position is not an appropriate nursing action, as it can cause increased intracranial pressure, decreased lung expansion, and aspiration. The nurse should position the newborn in a neutral or slightly elevated head position, with the neck slightly extended.

Choice B reason: Maintaining oxygen saturations between 93% to 95% is an appropriate nursing action, as it ensures adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs, while avoiding hyperoxia or hypoxia, which can cause complications, such as retinopathy of prematurity, intraventricular hemorrhage, or necrotizing enterocolitis.

Choice C reason: Inserting an orogastric tube for decompression of the stomach is not an appropriate nursing action, as it is not indicated for oxygen hood therapy, unless the newborn has abdominal distension, vomiting, or feeding intolerance. The nurse should monitor the newborn's abdominal girth, bowel sounds, and feeding tolerance, and report any signs of gastrointestinal dysfunction.

Choice D reason: Removing the hood every hour for 10 min to facilitate bonding is not an appropriate nursing action, as it can cause fluctuations in the oxygen concentration and temperature, and increase the risk of infection. The nurse should maintain the hood in place, and encourage the parents to touch, talk, and sing to the newborn, and provide skin-to-skin contact when possible.

Choice A reason: Monitoring the newborn's blood pressure is not the most appropriate action, as it is not directly related to the signs of diaphoresis, jitteriness, and lethargy. These signs are more indicative of hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can affect newborns, especially those who are premature, small for gestational age, or have diabetic mothers.

Choice B reason: Initiating phototherapy is not the most appropriate action, as it is used to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which is a high level of bilirubin in the blood that can cause jaundice, a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes. Hyperbilirubinemia does not cause diaphoresis, jitteriness, or lethargy.

Choice C reason: Obtaining blood glucose by heel stick is the most appropriate action, as it can confirm the diagnosis of hypoglycemia, which is the most likely cause of the signs of diaphoresis, jitteriness, and lethargy. The nurse should perform a heel stick using a sterile lancet and a glucose meter, and obtain a blood sample from the lateral aspect of the heel. The nurse should also provide warmth, stimulation, and feeding to the newborn, and report the blood glucose level to the provider.

Choice D reason: Placing the newborn in a radiant warmer is not the most appropriate action, as it can cause dehydration, fluid loss, and further hypoglycemia. The nurse should use a radiant warmer only if the newborn is hypothermic, which is a low body temperature that can also affect newborns. The nurse should monitor the newborn's temperature and skin color, and adjust the warmer accordingly.

Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.

Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.

Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.

Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.

Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.

Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.

Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.

Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.

Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.

Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.

Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.

Choice A reason: This statement is correct, as the ultrasound can help diagnose placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers the cervical opening and can cause painless, bright red bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa is a serious complication that can affect the delivery and the fetal oxygenation.

Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as the biparietal diameter is a measurement of the fetal head that is used to estimate the gestational age and the fetal growth. The biparietal diameter is not related to the cause or the severity of the bleeding.

Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as the fetal lung maturity is an assessment of the surfactant level in the amniotic fluid that is used to predict the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. The fetal lung maturity is not related to the cause or the severity of the bleeding.

Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as the viability of the fetus is an evaluation of the fetal heart rate, movement, and tone that is used to determine the fetal well-being and distress. The viability of the fetus is not related to the cause or the severity of the bleeding, although it can be affected by it.