Ati maternal newborn moitiso 4t exam
Total Questions : 25
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is providing education about postpartum nutritional needs for the client that is breastfeeding. What information should be included in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A high-fat diet is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers. While fats are an essential part of a balanced diet, excessive intake of high-fat foods can lead to unhealthy weight gain and may not provide the necessary nutrients for both the mother and the baby. Breastfeeding mothers should focus on a balanced diet that includes healthy fats, proteins, and carbohydrates to support their nutritional needs and milk production.
Choice B rationale
Stopping prenatal vitamins is not advisable for breastfeeding mothers. Prenatal vitamins contain essential nutrients such as folic acid, iron, and calcium that support the health of both the mother and the baby. Continuing to take prenatal vitamins can help ensure that breastfeeding mothers receive adequate nutrients, especially if their diet may not provide all the necessary vitamins and minerals.
Choice C rationale
Breastfeeding mothers need an additional 450-500 kCal per day to meet their increased energy requirements. This extra caloric intake supports milk production and helps the mother maintain her energy levels. The additional calories should come from a balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrient-dense foods.
Choice D rationale
Consuming only 8-16 oz of water per day is insufficient for breastfeeding mothers. Adequate hydration is crucial for milk production and overall health. Breastfeeding mothers should aim to drink at least 8-10 cups (64-80 oz) of water per day to stay hydrated and support their body’s increased fluid needs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum and observes a light amount of lochia rubra on the client’s perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is a common practice to prevent uterine atony and excessive bleeding. However, in this scenario, the fundus is already midline and firm at the umbilicus, indicating that the uterus is well-contracted. Therefore, this action is not necessary.
Choice B rationale
Notifying the client’s provider is not required in this situation. The findings of a light amount of lochia rubra and a firm, midline fundus are normal for 6 hours postpartum. There are no signs of complications that would necessitate contacting the provider.
Choice C rationale
Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client is the appropriate action. The client’s condition is stable, and the findings are within the expected range for 6 hours postpartum. Ongoing monitoring will ensure that any changes in the client’s condition are promptly addressed.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the frequency of fundal massage is not needed in this case. The fundus is already firm and midline, indicating that the uterus is well-contracted. Excessive fundal massage can cause discomfort and is unnecessary when the uterus is already in a good position.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 18 hours postpartum. Which finding should alert the nurse to the possibility of a postpartum complication?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A heart rate of 125 bpm is significantly elevated and may indicate a postpartum complication such as infection, hemorrhage, or other underlying conditions. Tachycardia in the postpartum period warrants further assessment and intervention to identify and address the cause.
Choice B rationale
The fundus being palpable at the umbilicus is normal for 18 hours postpartum. The uterus gradually descends into the pelvis over the postpartum period, and its position at the umbilicus at this stage is expected.
Choice C rationale
A urine output of 3,000 mL in 24 hours is within the normal range for postpartum diuresis. Increased urine output is common as the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Orthostatic hypotension can occur in the postpartum period due to blood volume changes and fluid shifts. While it requires monitoring, it is not as immediately concerning as tachycardia, which may indicate a more serious complication.
The nurse is reviewing the charts of several clients as she prepares to go over discharge teaching. Which of the following clients does the nurse recognize as having an increased risk for a difficult or ineffective transition to motherhood?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 29-year-old G3P3003 with an uncomplicated SVD at term and a supportive family environment is less likely to experience difficulties in transitioning to motherhood. The presence of her husband and older daughter provides a strong support system, which is beneficial for her adjustment.
Choice B rationale
A 37-year-old G3P1112 with worsening preeclampsia, induced at 34 weeks, currently on Magnesium Sulfate, and with a baby in the NICU, faces multiple stressors. The medical complications, preterm delivery, and separation from her baby due to NICU admission increase her risk for a difficult transition to motherhood. The use of Magnesium Sulfate can also affect her physical and emotional well-being.
Choice C rationale
A 31-year-old G3P2012 with a history of depression and a husband who is deployed faces significant challenges. The history of depression increases her risk for postpartum depression, and the absence of her husband can lead to feelings of isolation and increased stress.
Choice D rationale
A 16-year-old G1P1001 who delivered via cesarean section is at risk due to her young age and the surgical delivery. Adolescents may have less experience and resources to cope with the demands of motherhood, and the recovery from a cesarean section can add to the physical and emotional challenges.
Choice E rationale
A 20-year-old G1P1001 with an uncomplicated SVD and the presence of her boyfriend is less likely to face significant difficulties. The uncomplicated delivery and the support of her boyfriend provide a stable environment for her transition to motherhood. .
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a vaginal birth 20 hours ago. The nurse recognizes the client is in the taking-in phase of maternal postpartum adjustment. Which finding should the nurse expect during this phase?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Lack of appetite is not typically associated with the taking-in phase of maternal postpartum adjustment. During this phase, the mother is more focused on her own needs, such as rest and recovery from childbirth.
Choice B rationale
Eagerness to learn newborn care skills is more characteristic of the taking-hold phase, which follows the taking-in phase. In the taking-in phase, the mother is more passive and dependent, focusing on her own needs.
Choice C rationale
Discussion of the birth experience is a common behavior during the taking-in phase. The mother often wants to talk about her labor and delivery experience as a way to process and integrate the event.
Choice D rationale
Reconnection with her partner is not a primary focus during the taking-in phase. The mother is more focused on her own recovery and the immediate needs of her newborn.
A nurse is caring for a client who is breastfeeding and states that her nipples are sore and cracking. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ensuring the newborn has a successful latch is crucial for preventing and treating sore and cracked nipples. A poor latch can cause nipple trauma and pain.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the length of time between feedings is not recommended as it can lead to engorgement and further complications. Frequent breastfeeding helps maintain milk supply and prevents issues like mastitis.
Choice C rationale
Applying mineral oil to the nipples is not recommended. Instead, using expressed breast milk or medical-grade lanolin can promote healing.
Choice D rationale
Keeping the nipples covered between breastfeeding sessions is not necessary and can sometimes exacerbate the problem. Allowing the nipples to air dry or using hydrogel pads can be more beneficial.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum and is attempting to breastfeed. Which of the following findings indicate mastitis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Swelling in both breasts is more indicative of engorgement rather than mastitis. Mastitis typically affects only one breast.
Choice B rationale
A white patch on a nipple is more likely a sign of a yeast infection (thrush) rather than mastitis.
Choice C rationale
Cracked and bleeding nipples can be a risk factor for mastitis but are not a definitive sign of the condition.
Choice D rationale
A red and painful area in one breast is a classic sign of mastitis. This condition is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms such as fever and malaise.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and received a bolus of Oxytocin 30 units in 500 mL of NS over 1 hour following delivery of the placenta. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An increase in lochia is not an indicator of the effectiveness of oxytocin. Lochia is the vaginal discharge after childbirth and its amount can vary.
Choice B rationale
The absence of breast pain is not related to the effectiveness of oxytocin, which is used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale
An increase in blood pressure is not an expected outcome of oxytocin administration. Oxytocin primarily affects the uterus.
Choice D rationale
A firm fundus to palpation indicates that the uterus is contracting effectively, which is the desired effect of oxytocin administration to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client. The nurse emphasizes indications of potential complications and what to report to their provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse teach the client as a sign of a complication and requires further evaluation by a healthcare provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A headache that is not relieved by hydration, rest, or over-the-counter medication can be a sign of postpartum preeclampsia, a serious condition that can occur after childbirth. Postpartum preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and can lead to seizures, stroke, and other complications if not treated promptly.
Choice B rationale
Brownish red or pink lochia at 7 days postpartum is a normal finding. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that occurs after childbirth, and it typically changes color from bright red to pink or brownish red as the healing process progresses.
Choice C rationale
Chills and fever greater than 100.4°F (38.0°C) can indicate an infection, such as endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. This condition requires prompt medical evaluation and treatment with antibiotics to prevent complications.
Choice D rationale
Feelings or thoughts of harming oneself or the infant are indicative of postpartum depression or postpartum psychosis, both of which are serious mental health conditions that require immediate attention and intervention from a healthcare provider.
Choice E rationale
Increased urinary output is a common postpartum finding as the body eliminates excess fluid retained during pregnancy. It is not typically a sign of a complication.
Choice F rationale
Redness, pain, or tenderness in the calf can be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a blood clot that can occur in the legs. DVT is a serious condition that requires immediate medical evaluation and treatment to prevent the clot from traveling to the lungs and causing a pulmonary embolism.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days postpartum and is breastfeeding. The nurse notes that the fundus is three fingerbreadths below the umbilicus, lochia rubra is light, and the breasts are full and warm to palpation, without evidence of redness or pain. Which of the following interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The client is exhibiting expected assessment findings. Three days postpartum, it is normal for the fundus to be three fingerbreadths below the umbilicus, lochia rubra to be light, and the breasts to be full and warm to palpation without evidence of redness or pain. These findings indicate that the uterus is involuting properly, and the breasts are producing milk for breastfeeding.
Choice B rationale
The client is not exhibiting indications of mastitis. Mastitis is characterized by breast tenderness, redness, warmth, and pain, often accompanied by fever and flu-like symptoms. The absence of these symptoms suggests that the client does not have mastitis.
Choice C rationale
There is no indication that the client should be advised to remove her nursing bra. A well-fitting nursing bra can provide support and comfort during breastfeeding. The client should continue to wear a nursing bra as needed.
Choice D rationale
There is no indication that the client should be advised to stop breastfeeding. The assessment findings suggest that breastfeeding is going well, and the client should be encouraged to continue breastfeeding to provide optimal nutrition for the infant.
A nurse is providing education to a client about the Rubella vaccine. Which of the following statements made by the client indicated they understood the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The rubella vaccine should not be taken during pregnancy. It is a live attenuated vaccine, and there is a theoretical risk of harm to the developing fetus. Therefore, it is recommended to receive the vaccine before pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
The rubella vaccine is not recommended during each pregnancy. It is typically given as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine series in childhood, and immunity is usually lifelong. A booster dose is not needed during each pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
The rubella vaccine is not related to the Rh status of the baby. The vaccine is given to prevent rubella infection, which can cause serious birth defects if contracted during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
The correct statement is that the client should avoid pregnancy for 28 days after receiving the rubella vaccine. This is to ensure that the live attenuated virus does not pose a risk to a developing fetus.
The nurse is caring for a patient that delivered 6 hours ago. She had a spontaneous vaginal delivery (SVD) with a second degree laceration that was repaired. She pushed for three hours and has swollen perineum and inflamed hemorrhoids. The patient complains of overall perineal discomfort and rates it a 6/10 on the pain scale. Which of the following interventions would the nurse include in the client’s plan of care for pain management? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Warm compresses can help to reduce perineal pain and swelling by increasing blood flow to the area, which promotes healing and provides comfort. The warmth can also help to relax the muscles and reduce discomfort.
Choice B rationale
Tucks pads, which contain witch hazel, are effective in reducing perineal pain and swelling. Witch hazel has anti-inflammatory and astringent properties that help to soothe irritated skin and reduce swelling, providing relief from discomfort.
Choice C rationale
Dermaplast spray is a topical anesthetic that provides temporary relief from perineal pain. It contains benzocaine, which numbs the area and reduces pain. It also has antiseptic properties that help to prevent infection in the perineal area.
Choice D rationale
Ibuprofen 600 mg PO is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps to reduce pain and inflammation. It works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are chemicals that cause inflammation and pain. Taking ibuprofen can provide significant relief from perineal discomfort.
Choice E rationale
Encouraging the patient to sit in a high Fowler’s position is not recommended for perineal pain management. This position can increase pressure on the perineum, potentially worsening the pain and discomfort.
A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Changing the dressing on a cesarean incision for a patient who is 1 day post-op requires sterile technique and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel (AP). This task should be performed by a licensed nurse.
Choice B rationale
Documenting the lochia amount on the perineal pad of a client who just transferred from labor and delivery involves assessment and documentation, which are nursing responsibilities. This task should not be delegated to AP.
Choice C rationale
Assessing an area of redness on the breast of a client who is 4 days postpartum requires clinical judgment and assessment skills, which are within the scope of practice for a licensed nurse. This task should not be delegated to AP.
Choice D rationale
Providing a sitz bath to a client who has a third-degree laceration and is 2 days postpartum is an appropriate task for AP. It is a comfort measure that does not require clinical judgment or assessment skills, making it suitable for delegation to AP.
The nurse is providing education to a client that is 3 hours postpartum after a vaginal delivery with a second-degree laceration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the perineal care teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Washing hands before and after perineal care or voiding is essential to prevent infection. Proper hand hygiene reduces the risk of introducing bacteria to the perineal area, which is particularly vulnerable to infection postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Leaving the current pad on until it is fully saturated is not recommended. Changing pads frequently helps to maintain cleanliness and reduce the risk of infection. A saturated pad can harbor bacteria and increase the risk of infection.
Choice C rationale
Wiping the perineum thoroughly with a back-and-forth motion is not recommended. Instead, the perineum should be wiped from front to back to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the perineal area, reducing the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale
Using a perineal squeeze bottle to cleanse the perineum is recommended. It helps to gently clean the area without causing irritation or discomfort. The warm water can also provide soothing relief to the perineal area.
Choice E rationale
Applying ice or cold packs to the perineum can help to reduce swelling and provide pain relief. The cold temperature constricts blood vessels, reducing inflammation and numbing the area to alleviate discomfort.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and finds the fundus firm and deviated to the left, lochia is rubra and scant. Based on these findings, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking the client to rate her pain is important for assessing discomfort, but it does not address the immediate issue of a deviated fundus. A deviated fundus often indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging the client to perform Kegel exercises is beneficial for pelvic floor strengthening but does not address the immediate concern of a deviated fundus. The priority is to ensure the uterus can contract properly.
Choice C rationale
Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is the correct action. A full bladder can displace the uterus, preventing it from contracting effectively and increasing the risk of hemorrhage. Voiding helps the uterus return to its proper position and function.
Choice D rationale
Encouraging the client to move to the left lateral position may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of a full bladder causing uterine displacement.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is 4 weeks postpartum following the birth of a healthy newborn. The client reports feeling “down and sad,” having no energy, and wanting to cry. Which of the following is a priority action by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking the client if she has thoughts of or considered harming herself or her newborn is the priority action. This assessment is crucial for identifying postpartum depression and potential risks to the client and her newborn. Early identification and intervention can prevent harm.
Choice B rationale
Anticipating a prescription for an antidepressant is important but secondary to assessing immediate safety concerns. Medication can be part of the treatment plan after assessing the client’s mental state.
Choice C rationale
Assisting the family to identify prior use of positive coping skills is beneficial for long-term management but is not the immediate priority. The nurse must first ensure the client’s and newborn’s safety.
Choice D rationale
Reinforcing postpartum and newborn care discharge teaching is important for overall care but does not address the immediate concern of potential harm due to postpartum depression.
A nurse is providing education on preventing pregnancy to a postpartum client. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates additional education is needed?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Long-acting reversible contraceptives, like an intrauterine device (IUD), are highly effective in preventing pregnancy. This statement is accurate and does not indicate a need for additional education.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding is not a form of contraception. This statement is correct as breastfeeding alone is not a reliable method of preventing pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
The statement “I will begin to use a barrier method after I start my first menstrual cycle” indicates a need for additional education. Ovulation can occur before the first postpartum menstrual cycle, so contraception should be used as soon as sexual activity resumes.
Choice D rationale
The withdrawal method is not very effective at avoiding pregnancy. This statement is accurate and does not indicate a need for additional education.
A student nurse is reviewing the process of milk production in pregnancy and postpartum. Which of the following is the process of lactation maintenance and is reliant on breast stimulation and milk removal?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Galactopoiesis is the process of lactation maintenance and is reliant on breast stimulation and milk removal. This stage involves the ongoing production of milk in response to the infant’s demand.
Choice B rationale
Lactogenesis II refers to the onset of copious milk secretion that occurs around 2-3 days postpartum. It is triggered by the withdrawal of progesterone following the delivery of the placenta.
Choice C rationale
Mammogenesis is the development of the mammary glands during pregnancy. It involves the growth and differentiation of the breast tissue in preparation for lactation.
Choice D rationale
Lactogenesis I refers to the initial stage of milk production that begins during pregnancy and continues through the early postpartum period. It is hormonally driven and prepares the breasts for lactation. .
A nurse is caring for a client who is considering several methods of contraception. Which of the following methods of contraception should the nurse identify as being most reliable?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An intrauterine device (IUD) is one of the most reliable methods of contraception. It is a small, T-shaped device inserted into the uterus by a healthcare provider. IUDs can be hormonal or non-hormonal (copper). Hormonal IUDs release progestin, which thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg and thins the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Copper IUDs release copper ions, which are toxic to sperm. Both types of IUDs are over 99% effective and can last for several years, making them a highly reliable form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
Oral contraceptives, commonly known as birth control pills, are also effective but require daily adherence. They contain hormones (estrogen and progestin) that prevent ovulation, thicken cervical mucus, and thin the uterine lining. However, their effectiveness can decrease with missed doses, certain medications, or gastrointestinal disturbances. With typical use, their effectiveness is around 91%, meaning 9 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year.
Choice C rationale
Male condoms are a barrier method of contraception that prevent sperm from entering the uterus. They are also effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their effectiveness can be compromised by improper use, breakage, or slippage. With typical use, male condoms are about 85% effective, meaning 15 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year.
Choice D rationale
A diaphragm with spermicide is a barrier method of contraception. The diaphragm is a shallow, dome-shaped cup inserted into the vagina to cover the cervix, and spermicide is applied to kill sperm. Its effectiveness depends on correct and consistent use. With typical use, diaphragms are about 88% effective, meaning 12 out of 100 women may become pregnant each year. Additionally, diaphragms do not protect against STIs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hours postpartum following a successful vaginal birth of twins. The nurse should recognize that this client is at increased risk for which of the following postpartum complications?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that results in breast pain, swelling, warmth, and redness. It is more common in breastfeeding women and typically occurs when bacteria enter the breast tissue through a cracked or sore nipple. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not specifically associated with the delivery of twins.
Choice B rationale
Uterine infection, also known as endometritis, is an infection of the uterine lining. It can occur after childbirth, especially if there were complications such as prolonged labor, multiple vaginal exams, or manual removal of the placenta. However, it is not specifically associated with the delivery of twins.
Choice C rationale
Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It occurs when the uterus fails to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The risk of uterine atony is higher in cases of overdistension of the uterus, such as with multiple gestations (twins), polyhydramnios, or a large baby. Therefore, a client who has delivered twins is at increased risk for uterine atony.
Choice D rationale
Retained placental fragments occur when parts of the placenta remain in the uterus after childbirth. This can lead to postpartum hemorrhage and infection. While it is a potential complication, it is not specifically associated with the delivery of twins.
A nurse is providing teaching about comfort measures for breast engorgement to a client who is postpartum and is not planning on breastfeeding. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she understood the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Pumping out the milk when breasts become engorged can provide temporary relief, but it can also stimulate further milk production, leading to continued engorgement. This is not recommended for clients who are not planning to breastfeed.
Choice B rationale
Not wearing a bra throughout the day can lead to discomfort and inadequate support for engorged breasts. Wearing a supportive bra, such as a sports bra, can help alleviate discomfort and provide necessary support.
Choice C rationale
Applying hot packs to the breasts can increase blood flow and exacerbate engorgement. Cold packs or ice packs are recommended to reduce swelling and provide relief from discomfort.
Choice D rationale
Avoiding stimulation to the nipples is an effective measure to reduce milk production and alleviate breast engorgement. This includes avoiding activities that may stimulate the nipples, such as pumping or hand expressing milk.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client, who delivered yesterday and complains of constipation. She had a vaginal delivery complicated by a fourth degree laceration, which was repaired. Based upon this information, which of the following is contraindicated?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing fluid intake to 2-3 L/day is recommended to prevent dehydration and promote overall health. Adequate hydration can also help soften stools and prevent constipation.
Choice B rationale
Stool softeners are often recommended for postpartum clients, especially those with perineal trauma, to ease bowel movements and prevent straining. They help soften the stool, making it easier to pass without causing additional pain or injury.
Choice C rationale
Increasing fiber intake is beneficial for preventing constipation. High-fiber foods, such as fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, add bulk to the stool and promote regular bowel movements.
Choice D rationale
Rectal suppositories are contraindicated for clients with a fourth-degree laceration. Inserting a suppository can cause trauma to the perineal area and increase the risk of infection or further injury. Alternative methods to manage constipation should be considered.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with a distended bladder. The client is assisted to the bathroom, but is unable to void. Which of the following interventions would be contraindicated?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Using a bladder scanner to assess for urinary retention is a non-invasive and appropriate intervention. It helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder and can guide further management. This method avoids unnecessary catheterization and reduces the risk of infection.
Choice B rationale
Catheterizing to empty the bladder is a common intervention for urinary retention. However, it should be done with caution and only when necessary to avoid the risk of infection. In this scenario, it is not contraindicated but should be considered after other non-invasive methods have been tried.
Choice C rationale
Placing peppermint oil on a cotton ball and placing it in the urinary “hat” while the client is on the toilet is a non-invasive method that can help stimulate urination through the scent of peppermint. This method is safe and can be effective for some clients.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the client back to bed and telling her to try to void again in 2 hours is contraindicated because it delays the intervention for a distended bladder. A distended bladder can cause discomfort and potential complications, so timely intervention is necessary.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client, 2 days after birth. Which of the following expected findings does the nurse associate with the cardiovascular system changes in the postpartum period?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A temperature of 99.0°F (37.3°C) is within the normal range and is not specifically associated with cardiovascular system changes in the postpartum period. It is a common finding and does not indicate any specific cardiovascular changes.
Choice B rationale
A respiratory rate of 18/min is within the normal range for adults and is not specifically associated with cardiovascular system changes in the postpartum period. It is a common finding and does not indicate any specific cardiovascular changes.
Choice C rationale
An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count of 22,000/mm³ is a common finding in the postpartum period due to the body’s response to the stress of childbirth. This leukocytosis is a normal physiological response and is associated with the cardiovascular system changes during this period.
Choice D rationale
Urinary retention is not specifically associated with cardiovascular system changes in the postpartum period. It can occur due to various reasons, including the effects of anesthesia or trauma during delivery, but it is not a direct result of cardiovascular changes.
A nurse is caring for a client during delivery. What is a priority action of the nurse to promote parent-infant bonding immediately after delivery?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Teaching the parents how to swaddle is important for newborn care, but it is not the priority action immediately after delivery to promote parent-infant bonding. Skin-to-skin contact is more effective in establishing an initial bond.
Choice B rationale
Positioning the infant on the client’s chest for skin-to-skin care is the priority action to promote parent-infant bonding immediately after delivery. Skin-to-skin contact helps regulate the infant’s temperature, heart rate, and breathing, and promotes bonding through physical closeness and sensory interaction.
Choice C rationale
Offering to take the newborn to the nursery so the parents may nap is not the priority action for promoting bonding immediately after delivery. While rest is important, the initial moments after birth are crucial for establishing a bond through direct contact.
Choice D rationale
Assessing the infant under the radiant warmer is important for ensuring the infant’s health, but it is not the priority action for promoting parent-infant bonding immediately after delivery. Skin-to-skin contact should be prioritized unless there are medical concerns that require immediate attention. .
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