Ati maternal newborn moitiso exam
Total Questions : 26
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is providing newborn nutrition education to new parents. The nurse will include which of the following as a sign (cue) of feeding readiness?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Stretching arms out and then back in is a common reflex in newborns known as the Moro reflex. It is not a sign of feeding readiness but rather a response to a sudden loss of support or a loud noise.
Choice B rationale
Turning the head toward a parent’s voice is a sign of auditory recognition and bonding, not necessarily feeding readiness. It indicates the infant’s ability to recognize familiar sounds.
Choice C rationale
Grasping a parent’s finger when placed in the infant’s palm is a primitive reflex known as the palmar grasp reflex. It is not related to feeding readiness but is a normal reflexive action in newborns.
Choice D rationale
Bringing their hand to their mouth is a sign of feeding readiness. This action indicates that the infant is hungry and ready to feed. It is an early cue that the baby is ready to eat.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a characteristic of the newborn immune system?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Newborns are not born with fully developed immune responses. Their immune system is immature and continues to develop after birth. They rely on maternal antibodies for initial protection.
Choice B rationale
Newborns do not have a mature gut microbiome immediately after birth. The gut microbiome develops over time and is influenced by factors such as breastfeeding and exposure to the environment.
Choice C rationale
Newborns do not rely solely on their innate immune system. They receive passive immunity from maternal antibodies transferred through the placenta and colostrum, which provides initial protection against infections.
Choice D rationale
Newborns receive passive immunity through the placenta and colostrum, but their own immune system is not fully functional until several months of age. This passive immunity helps protect them from infections during the early months of life.
A nursery nurse is admitting a neonate and is performing the neonatal assessment. The apical pulse is auscultated with a rate of 124 bpm, after one full minute of listening.
What is the next appropriate action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An apical pulse rate of 124 bpm is within the normal range for a neonate (110-160 bpm). There is no need to ask another nurse to verify the heart rate as it is not an abnormal finding.
Choice B rationale
Calling the provider for an apical pulse rate of 124 bpm is unnecessary as it is within the normal range for a neonate. This action would be appropriate if the heart rate were significantly outside the normal range.
Choice C rationale
Preparing the newborn for transport to the NICU for an apical pulse rate of 124 bpm is not warranted. The heart rate is within the normal range, and there is no indication for further cardiac observation.
Choice D rationale
Documenting the expected finding is the appropriate action. An apical pulse rate of 124 bpm is within the normal range for a neonate, and no further action is needed.
A nurse is teaching a newborn’s parent to care for the umbilical cord stump. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wiping the cord daily with alcohol prep pads is not recommended. Current guidelines suggest keeping the cord clean and dry without the use of alcohol, as it can delay the natural drying and falling off process.
Choice B rationale
Keeping the cord moist is not recommended. The cord should be kept dry to promote natural drying and separation. Moisture can increase the risk of infection.
Choice C rationale
Folding the top of the diaper underneath the cord is recommended to keep the cord exposed to air and prevent irritation from urine or stool. This helps the cord dry out and fall off naturally.
Choice D rationale
Applying petroleum jelly to the cord stump is not recommended. The cord should be kept dry, and the use of ointments or creams can interfere with the natural drying process. .
A nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother voices concerns about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The nurse should include which of the following statements in a discussion with the mother?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placing a baby on their back to sleep significantly reduces the risk of SIDS. This position helps keep the airway open and reduces the risk of suffocation.
Choice B rationale
There is no direct correlation between SIDS and the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines. Vaccines are safe and do not increase the risk of SIDS3.
Choice C rationale
SIDS rates have actually decreased over the last 10 years, largely due to public health campaigns promoting safe sleep practices.
Choice D rationale
Sleep apnea is not the main cause of SIDS. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown, but it is believed to be related to defects in the brain that control breathing and arousal from sleep.
A nurse is caring for a newborn and assessing newborn reflexes. To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse should take which of the following actions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the outer edge of the sole of the newborn’s foot, moving up toward the toes. This causes the big toe to move upward and the other toes to fan out.
Choice B rationale
Turning the newborn’s head quickly to one side is used to elicit the tonic neck reflex, not the Babinski reflex.
Choice C rationale
Holding the newborn vertically and allowing one foot to touch the table surface is used to elicit the stepping reflex, not the Babinski reflex.
Choice D rationale
Clapping near the crib and making a loud noise is used to elicit the startle (Moro) reflex, not the Babinski reflex.
A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which of the following respiratory rates is within the expected reference range for a newborn?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 110/min is too high for a newborn and may indicate respiratory distress.
Choice B rationale
A respiratory rate of 100/min is also too high for a newborn and may indicate respiratory distress.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 24/min is too low for a newborn and may indicate respiratory depression.
Choice D rationale
The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is between 30 to 60 breaths per minute. A rate of 60/min is within this range.
A nurse is assessing a newborn and evaluating for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). What assessment finding would indicate DDH?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An inwardly turned foot is not a sign of DDH. It may indicate a different condition such as clubfoot.
Choice B rationale
Asymmetrical gluteal folds are a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). This occurs because the hip joint is not properly aligned, causing uneven skin folds.
Choice C rationale
The absence of the Babinski sign is not related to DDH. The Babinski sign is a reflex test used to assess neurological function.
Choice D rationale
The absence of the stepping reflex is not related to DDH. The stepping reflex is a normal newborn reflex that disappears after a few months.
The nurse is preparing to teach the postpartum mom about newborn feeding cues. Which of the following behaviors of the infant would be considered early hunger cues? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sucking on their fingers is an early hunger cue in infants. It indicates that the baby is ready to feed.
Choice B rationale
Smacking their lips is another early hunger cue. It shows that the baby is thinking about feeding.
Choice C rationale
Extending their tongue is also an early hunger cue. It indicates that the baby is ready to latch onto the breast or bottle.
Choice D rationale
Crying is a late hunger cue. It is better to feed the baby before they start crying to make feeding easier.
Choice E rationale
Rooting is an early hunger cue. It involves the baby turning their head towards the breast or bottle, indicating they are ready to feed. .
A nurse in the newborn nursery is caring for a group of newborns. Which of the following newborns requires immediate intervention?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A newborn with a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F) is within the normal range for newborns and does not require immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
A newborn who has not voided within 27 hours post-delivery requires immediate intervention. Newborns should void within the first 24 hours of life. Failure to void may indicate dehydration, urinary tract obstruction, or renal issues.
Choice C rationale
A newborn who has not passed meconium within 18 hours post-delivery is concerning but not as urgent as not voiding. Newborns typically pass meconium within the first 24-48 hours.
Choice D rationale
Acrocyanosis, or bluish discoloration of the hands and feet, is common in newborns and usually resolves on its own. It does not require immediate intervention.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was born at 39 weeks gestation and weighs 3350 g. Based on the weight and gestational age, what is the most appropriate way to document the findings?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Small for gestational age (SGA) refers to newborns whose birth weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Choice B rationale
Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) refers to newborns whose birth weight is between the 10th and 90th percentiles for their gestational age. A newborn weighing 3350 g at 39 weeks gestation falls within this range.
Choice C rationale
Low birth weight is defined as a birth weight of less than 2500 g, which does not apply to this newborn.
Choice D rationale
Large for gestational age (LGA) refers to newborns whose birth weight is above the 90th percentile for their gestational age.
The nurse is caring for a newborn one hour after delivery. Which of the following assessment findings does the nurse identify as signs of respiratory distress? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Flexion of arms is a normal finding in newborns and does not indicate respiratory distress.
Choice B rationale
Caput succedaneum is a common condition where the scalp swells due to pressure during delivery. It does not indicate respiratory distress.
Choice C rationale
A heart rate of 158 bpm is within the normal range for newborns and does not indicate respiratory distress.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 66/min is above the normal range (30-60 breaths per minute) and indicates respiratory distress.
Choice E rationale
Acrocyanosis is common in newborns and does not indicate respiratory distress.
Choice F rationale
Subcostal retractions indicate increased work of breathing and are a sign of respiratory distress.
Choice G rationale
Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress as it indicates increased effort to breathe.
Choice H rationale
Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress as it indicates difficulty in maintaining lung expansion.
A nursery nurse is caring for a newborn who was born 2 hours ago. Upon review of the prenatal records, the nurse notes the following prenatal panel results:
A positive, Hepatitis B positive, RPR negative, Rubella immune, HIV negative, GBS positive. In addition to Vitamin K and Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, what injection(s) should the newborn receive?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering only the Hepatitis B vaccine within 1 hour of birth is not sufficient for a newborn born to a Hepatitis B positive mother. The newborn also needs Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) to provide immediate passive immunity.
Choice B rationale
Administering both the Hepatitis B vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) within 12 hours of delivery is the recommended practice for newborns born to Hepatitis B positive mothers. This provides both active and passive immunity.
Choice C rationale
Administering only Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) within 12 hours of birth is not sufficient. The newborn also needs the Hepatitis B vaccine to develop long-term immunity.
Choice D rationale
Administering Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) within 12 hours, followed by monthly Hepatitis B vaccines for 12 months, is not the standard practice. The newborn should receive the Hepatitis B vaccine series according to the recommended schedule. .
A nurse places a newborn under a radiant heat warmer after birth. The purpose of this action is to prevent which of the following in the newborn?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Shivering is not a primary concern for newborns as they have limited ability to shiver. Instead, they rely on non-shivering thermogenesis to maintain body temperature.
Choice B rationale
Cold stress is a significant concern for newborns as it can lead to hypothermia, increased oxygen consumption, and metabolic acidosis. Placing a newborn under a radiant heat warmer helps maintain their body temperature and prevent cold stress.
Choice C rationale
Brown fat production is a natural process in newborns that helps generate heat. However, the primary purpose of using a radiant heat warmer is to prevent cold stress, not to stimulate brown fat production.
Choice D rationale
Basal metabolic rate reduction is not the primary concern. The focus is on preventing cold stress and maintaining the newborn’s body temperature.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Faint red marks on the plantar surface are more common in preterm infants and are not typically seen in post-term infants.
Choice B rationale
Copious vernix is usually seen in preterm infants. Post-term infants often have little to no vernix.
Choice C rationale
Dry, cracked skin is a common finding in post-term infants due to prolonged exposure to the amniotic fluid.
Choice D rationale
Scant scalp hair is more common in preterm infants. Post-term infants usually have more developed hair.
A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following actions by the nurse caring for the newborn reduces heat loss by evaporation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Drying the newborn’s skin thoroughly immediately after birth helps reduce heat loss by evaporation, which is a significant concern as wet skin can cause rapid heat loss.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining ambient room temperature at 24°C (75°F) helps prevent heat loss by convection but does not directly address evaporation.
Choice C rationale
Placing the newborn on a warm surface helps prevent heat loss by conduction but does not address evaporation.
Choice D rationale
Preventing air drafts helps reduce heat loss by convection but does not address evaporation.
A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth after 3 hours of pushing. The newborn’s mother asks about the swollen area on her son’s head. After palpation and identification that the swelling does cross the suture line, which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Erythema toxicum is a common, benign rash in newborns but does not cause swelling that crosses suture lines.
Choice B rationale
A caput succedaneum is swelling of the scalp that crosses suture lines and is caused by prolonged pressure on the head during delivery.
Choice C rationale
Mongolian spots are benign, flat, congenital birthmarks with wavy borders and irregular shapes, typically found on the lower back and buttocks, not the head.
Choice D rationale
A cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and its periosteum that does not cross suture lines. .
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5% Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to a newborn. Which route and dose should the nurse apply?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Applying a 1-2 cm ribbon from outer to inner canthus is incorrect because it increases the risk of contamination and infection by moving from a less clean area to a more clean area.
Choice B rationale
Applying a 2-3 inch ribbon from inner to outer canthus is incorrect because the length of the ribbon is too long and the direction is not recommended for preventing contamination.
Choice C rationale
Applying a 1-2 cm ribbon from inner to outer canthus is correct as it minimizes the risk of contamination by moving from a cleaner area to a less clean area, ensuring proper application of the ointment.
Choice D rationale
Applying a 1-2 inch ribbon to the upper eyelid is incorrect because the upper eyelid is not the recommended site for application, and the length of the ribbon is too long.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for newborn care. The parents have chosen to formula feed their infant. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching about bottle feeding? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bottles can be put in the dishwasher, boiled, or cleaned with hot soapy water to ensure they are thoroughly sanitized and safe for the infant.
Choice B rationale
Holding the baby in a supine position during feedings is incorrect because it increases the risk of aspiration. The baby should be held in a semi-upright position.
Choice C rationale
Only burping the baby after they have finished the entire feeding is incorrect because it can lead to discomfort and gas buildup. The baby should be burped during and after feedings.
Choice D rationale
Always holding the bottle while feeding and not propping the bottle is correct as it prevents choking and ensures the baby is feeding safely.
Choice E rationale
Keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding is correct as it prevents the baby from swallowing air, which can cause gas and discomfort.
Choice F rationale
Prepared formula can be kept in the refrigerator for 48 hours, ensuring it remains safe and free from bacterial growth.
The nursery nurse is receiving a report on her assigned 4 neonates. Which of the following conditions is high risk for unconjugated bilirubin and jaundice?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Microcephaly is not typically associated with an increased risk of unconjugated bilirubin and jaundice.
Choice B rationale
Polydactyly is a congenital condition involving extra fingers or toes and is not associated with an increased risk of unconjugated bilirubin and jaundice.
Choice C rationale
Caput succedaneum is a condition involving swelling of the scalp in a newborn and is not typically associated with an increased risk of unconjugated bilirubin and jaundice.
Choice D rationale
Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby’s scalp and the skull bone. It is associated with an increased risk of unconjugated bilirubin and jaundice due to the breakdown of red blood cells in the hematoma. .
A nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother has diabetes mellitus. The nurse should recognize which of the following potential newborn complications as the priority focus of care?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hyperbilirubinemia, or high levels of bilirubin in the blood, can occur in newborns of diabetic mothers due to increased red blood cell breakdown. However, it is not the primary concern immediately after birth. The priority is to address conditions that can cause immediate harm, such as hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale
Hypomagnesemia, or low magnesium levels, can occur in newborns of diabetic mothers, but it is not the most critical issue. Magnesium levels can be monitored and corrected if necessary, but hypoglycemia poses a more immediate threat to the newborn’s health.
Choice C rationale
Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur in newborns of diabetic mothers. While it is important to monitor and manage calcium levels, hypoglycemia is a more urgent concern because it can lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice D rationale
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar levels, is the most critical concern for newborns of diabetic mothers. These newborns are at high risk for hypoglycemia due to the high levels of insulin they produce in response to their mother’s elevated blood glucose levels during pregnancy. Hypoglycemia can cause serious complications, including seizures and brain damage, if not treated immediately.
A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes depressed fontanels. Which of the following is true regarding depressed fontanels in newborn assessment?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Depressed fontanelles are not exclusive to premature newborns. They can occur in both premature and full-term infants and are not an indicator of prematurity.
Choice B rationale
Depressed fontanelles do not indicate infection. Infections in newborns typically present with other symptoms such as fever, irritability, and poor feeding.
Choice C rationale
Depressed fontanelles are a sign of dehydration in newborns. When a newborn is dehydrated, the fontanelles can appear sunken due to the lack of fluid in the body.
Choice D rationale
Depressed fontanelles are not a normal finding in newborns. Normally, fontanelles should be flat or slightly curved inward. A depressed fontanelle is a clinical sign that requires further evaluation and intervention.
A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a newborn. Which of the following anatomical landmarks should the nurse use when measuring the newborn’s chest circumference?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The xiphoid process is not the correct anatomical landmark for measuring chest circumference in newborns. It is located at the lower end of the sternum and does not provide a consistent measurement point.
Choice B rationale
The fifth intercostal space is not used for measuring chest circumference in newborns. This space is located between the ribs and is not a reliable landmark for consistent measurements.
Choice C rationale
The sternal notch is not the correct landmark for measuring chest circumference. It is located at the top of the sternum and does not provide a consistent measurement point.
Choice D rationale
The nipple line is the correct anatomical landmark for measuring chest circumference in newborns. This method ensures that the measurement is taken at a consistent and reproducible location, providing an accurate assessment of the chest size relative to growth and development standards.
A nurse is caring for a newborn 4 hours after birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent jaundice?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important for newborns, especially those at risk for hypoglycemia. However, it does not directly prevent jaundice. Jaundice is caused by elevated bilirubin levels, which are not directly related to blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale
Beginning phototherapy immediately is a treatment for jaundice, not a preventive measure. Phototherapy is used to reduce high bilirubin levels in newborns who already have jaundice.
Choice C rationale
Initiating early feeding is an effective way to prevent jaundice in newborns. Early feeding helps promote regular bowel movements, which aids in the excretion of bilirubin from the body, thereby reducing the risk of jaundice.
Choice D rationale
Preparing for a blood transfusion is a treatment for severe jaundice, not a preventive measure. Blood transfusions are used in cases of extreme hyperbilirubinemia that do not respond to other treatments.
A nurse is completing a newborn assessment and notes small raised pearly white spots on the nose and chin. This finding is characteristic of which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Erythema toxicum is a common, benign rash seen in newborns. It appears as red patches with small white or yellow pustules in the center. It is not characterized by small raised pearly white spots on the nose and chin.
Choice B rationale
Milia spots are small raised pearly white spots that commonly appear on the nose, chin, and cheeks of newborns. They are caused by trapped keratin and are harmless, usually resolving on their own within a few weeks.
Choice C rationale
Mongolian spots are flat, blue-gray patches commonly found on the lower back and buttocks of newborns, especially those with darker skin. They are not raised and do not appear on the nose and chin.
Choice D rationale
Epstein’s pearls are small white or yellow cysts found on the gums or roof of the mouth in newborns. They are not found on the nose and chin. .
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