Ati maternal newborn moitoso
Total Questions : 28
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA client has received MSAFP test result. The client is requesting additional testing to determine whether the fetus has a chromosomal abnormality.
Which of the following antenatal tests would the nurse anticipate the provider will order?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic test that involves extracting a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus to test for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. It is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy. The fluid contains fetal cells and various chemicals produced by the baby, which can be analyzed to detect conditions such as Down syndrome, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects. This test is highly accurate and is often recommended when screening tests like the MSAFP indicate a potential issue.
Choice B rationale
A Nonstress Test (NST) is a non-invasive test that measures the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. It is used to assess fetal well-being, particularly in the third trimester, but it does not provide information about chromosomal abnormalities. The NST is typically used to monitor high-risk pregnancies and to ensure that the fetus is receiving enough oxygen.
Choice C rationale
A Biophysical Profile (BPP) combines an ultrasound with a Nonstress Test to evaluate the fetus’s health. It assesses fetal breathing movements, body movements, muscle tone, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate reactivity. While it provides a comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, it does not specifically diagnose chromosomal abnormalities. The BPP is often used in the third trimester to monitor high-risk pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) is another diagnostic test that can detect chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. It involves taking a small sample of placental tissue (chorionic villi) for analysis. CVS is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy, earlier than amniocentesis. While it provides similar diagnostic information, it is not the test of choice following an abnormal MSAFP result, which is usually conducted later in pregnancy.
A nurse is educating a client about a contraction stress test.
Which of the following is correct regarding the contraction stress test?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While a negative result in a Contraction Stress Test (CST) is desirable, this choice does not fully explain the significance of the result. A negative CST indicates that there are no late decelerations in the fetal heart rate in response to uterine contractions, suggesting that the fetus can handle the stress of labor.
Choice B rationale
This choice describes the criteria for a reactive Nonstress Test (NST), not a Contraction Stress Test (CST). In a CST, the focus is on the fetal heart rate response to contractions, not the number of contractions or variability.
Choice C rationale
A negative result in a CST indicates fetal well-being, meaning that the fetus can tolerate the stress of uterine contractions without showing signs of distress, such as late decelerations in the heart rate. This result suggests that the fetus is likely to handle labor well.
Choice D rationale
A positive result in a CST indicates that the fetus has late decelerations in response to contractions, which can be a sign of fetal distress. This result may suggest fetal growth restriction, lower Apgar scores, and the potential need for cesarean delivery. However, this choice does not fully capture the significance of a positive CST result.
The nursing preceptor asks the nursing student how to determine the intensity of contractions before placing the client on the electronic fetal monitor. What is the best explanation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring the patient’s vocalizations and facial expressions can provide some information about the intensity of contractions, but it is subjective and not a reliable method for accurately assessing contraction intensity.
Choice B rationale
Palpating the maternal abdomen during a contraction is the best method for determining the intensity of contractions. By feeling the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can assess whether the contractions are mild, moderate, or strong. This method provides a more objective measure of contraction intensity compared to other methods.
Choice C rationale
Timing the amount of time between the ending of one contraction and the beginning of the next provides information about the frequency of contractions, not their intensity. This choice does not address the question of how to determine contraction intensity.
Choice D rationale
Palpating the maternal abdomen right after a contraction does not provide information about the intensity of the contraction that just occurred. The uterus will be relaxed after the contraction, making it difficult to assess the strength of the previous contraction.
A nurse is caring for a client at term in labor.
The client states, “I can’t do this anymore.”. She reports rectal pressure and increasing nausea. SVE (sterile vaginal exam) performed: 9 cm, 100% effaced, +1 station.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to continue pushing is not appropriate at this stage. The client is 9 cm dilated, which indicates that she is in the transition phase of labor, not yet fully dilated and ready to push. Pushing at this stage could cause cervical swelling and delay progress.
Choice B rationale
Preparing the client for delivery is the most appropriate action. The client is in the transition phase of labor, with 9 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and +1 station. This indicates that delivery is imminent, and the nurse should prepare for the birth process.
Choice C rationale
Administering pain relief as prescribed may be considered, but it is not the priority action at this stage. The client is in the transition phase, and administering pain relief could interfere with the natural progression of labor. Non-pharmacological support may be more appropriate.
Choice D rationale
Reassuring the client and providing emotional support is important, but it is not the primary action at this stage. The nurse should focus on preparing for delivery while also providing support and reassurance.
A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test.
The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 130 bpm, there is moderate variability, but there have been no accelerations or fetal movement.
Which of the following actions should the nurse complete next?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to walk around for 30 minutes and then resume monitoring is not the most appropriate action in this scenario. Walking may help stimulate fetal movement, but it is not the first-line intervention when there are no accelerations or fetal movement during a nonstress test. The nurse should try other methods to stimulate fetal movement before resorting to walking.
Choice B rationale
Performing vibroacoustic stimulation is the correct action. Vibroacoustic stimulation involves using a device to produce a sound and vibration near the maternal abdomen to stimulate fetal movement and heart rate accelerations. This method is non-invasive and can help determine fetal well-being by eliciting a response from the fetus.
Choice C rationale
Immediately reporting the situation to the provider and preparing the client for induction of labor is premature. The absence of accelerations or fetal movement during a nonstress test does not immediately indicate a need for induction of labor. Other less invasive interventions, such as vibroacoustic stimulation, should be attempted first.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the client into a supine position is not recommended. The supine position can lead to supine hypotensive syndrome, which can decrease blood flow to the fetus. The nurse should avoid placing the client in a supine position and instead try other methods to stimulate fetal movement.
The nurse observes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing.
Which of the following is a correct interpretation of this finding?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Variable decelerations are not related to the use of narcotic analgesics. Narcotic analgesics can cause other fetal heart rate changes, such as decreased variability, but they do not cause variable decelerations.
Choice B rationale
Variable decelerations are due to umbilical cord compression. This is the correct interpretation. Umbilical cord compression can lead to transient decreases in fetal blood flow and oxygenation, resulting in variable decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing.
Choice C rationale
Variable decelerations are not caused by maternal hypotension. Maternal hypotension can lead to late decelerations due to uteroplacental insufficiency, but it does not cause variable decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Variable decelerations are not indicative of fetal hypoxia. While severe and persistent variable decelerations can lead to fetal hypoxia, the primary cause of variable decelerations is umbilical cord compression.
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant.
The client’s vital signs are as follows:
- Temperature 37.2°C (98.9°F)
- Pulse rate 80/min
- Respiratory rate 16/min
- Blood Pressure 120/69 mm Hg
What should the nurse monitor next?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is the next appropriate action. The fetal heart rate provides crucial information about the fetus’s well-being and can help identify any potential issues that may need further intervention.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring uterine contractions is important, but in this scenario, the client’s vital signs are stable, and there is no indication of labor. Therefore, monitoring the fetal heart rate takes precedence.
Choice C rationale
Amniotic fluid levels are important to monitor, but they are typically assessed through ultrasound rather than immediate bedside monitoring. The fetal heart rate provides more immediate information about the fetus’s condition.
Choice D rationale
Cervical dilation is relevant during labor, but there is no indication that the client is in labor based on the provided vital signs. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is more pertinent in this situation.
A nurse is caring for a client in active labor.
The nurse identifies tachysystole and late decelerations with each contraction.
The nurse performs intrauterine resuscitation interventions, including repositioning the client, initiating an IV fluid bolus, and applying oxygen.
After the stated interventions, the nurse continues to observe tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations.
Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to reduce uterine activity?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.
A female patient who is 37 weeks and 5 days gestation is having contractions every 3 minutes. The fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 9 lbs and is in the left occiput posterior (LOP) position.The nurse is concerned about the five P’s and their effect on the patient’s labor.
Which P is the concern from the patient’s history?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The “Passenger” refers to the fetus and its position, size, and presentation. In this case, the fetus has an estimated weight of 9 lbs and is in the left occiput posterior (LOP) position. These factors can complicate labor by making it more difficult for the fetus to navigate through the birth canal, potentially leading to prolonged labor and increased risk of interventions.
Choice B rationale
The “Passage” refers to the birth canal, including the pelvis and soft tissues. While the passage is an important factor in labor, the primary concern in this scenario is the size and position of the fetus, which falls under the “Passenger” category.
Choice C rationale
The “Powers” refer to the strength and frequency of uterine contractions. Although the patient is having contractions every 3 minutes, the main concern here is the fetal size and position, which are more directly related to the "Passenger"4.
Choice D rationale
The “Psyche” refers to the psychological state of the mother, including her stress levels and emotional well-being. While important, the primary concern in this scenario is the physical factors related to the fetus, which are categorized under the "Passenger"4.
The OB provider is concerned about placental perfusion and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) after noting minimal fetal growth over the past month.
What non-invasive antenatal test would the nurse anticipate the provider will order?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a non-invasive imaging technique that provides detailed images of the fetus and placenta. However, it is not typically used as the first-line test for assessing placental perfusion and IUGR. Doppler flow studies are more specific for evaluating blood flow and detecting issues related to placental insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Doppler flow studies are non-invasive tests that assess blood flow in the umbilical artery and other fetal vessels. These studies are particularly useful in evaluating placental perfusion and identifying intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). Abnormal Doppler flow patterns can indicate compromised blood flow to the fetus, which is a concern in cases of minimal fetal growth.
Choice C rationale
Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure that involves extracting a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing and assessment of fetal lung maturity. It is not used for evaluating placental perfusion or IUGR7.
Choice D rationale
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is an invasive procedure used for early genetic testing by sampling placental tissue. It is not used for assessing placental perfusion or IUGR7.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 39 weeks gestation and having contractions.
Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a sign of true labor?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine contractions that cause variable decelerations are not specific to true labor. Variable decelerations are typically associated with umbilical cord compression and can occur during both true and false labor.
Choice B rationale
Regular uterine contractions that cause cervical change are a definitive sign of true labor. True labor is characterized by contractions that become progressively stronger, more frequent, and more regular, leading to cervical dilation and effacement. This process indicates that the body is preparing for childbirth.
Choice C rationale
The station of the presenting part refers to the position of the fetus in relation to the ischial spines of the pelvis. While it is an important aspect of labor progression, it is not a definitive sign of true labor.
Choice D rationale
Rupture of the membranes, or the breaking of the water, can occur before true labor begins. While it often indicates that labor is imminent, it is not a definitive sign of true labor on its own.
A client who is 32 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes calls the provider’s office to report decreased fetal movement over the last several hours. The provider advises her to report to OB triage for further testing.
What test should you anticipate the provider will order?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A non-stress test (NST) is a common test used to evaluate fetal well-being, especially in cases of decreased fetal movement. It measures the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. A reactive NST, where the fetal heart rate increases with movement, indicates good oxygenation and neurological function.
Choice B rationale
A contraction stress test (CST) evaluates the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions, which can be induced by oxytocin or nipple stimulation. It is typically used to assess placental function and fetal tolerance to labor, not for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.
Choice C rationale
A biophysical profile (BPP) combines an NST with ultrasound to assess fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. While comprehensive, it is more time-consuming and usually reserved for further evaluation if the NST is non-reactive.
Choice D rationale
An ultrasound can assess fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and anatomical structures. However, it does not provide real-time information on fetal heart rate reactivity, making it less suitable for immediate assessment of decreased fetal movement.
The nurse is caring for a client at 39 weeks gestation who arrived to OB triage with a complaint of decreased fetal movement.
The client was placed on external fetal monitors for an ordered non-stress test.
The client was encouraged to drink some cold water and juice.
She reported she had not had anything to eat or drink yet for the day.
The nurse observes the following tracing.
How should the nurse document the non-stress test results?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A reactive non-stress test (NST) indicates that the fetal heart rate increases appropriately with fetal movements, suggesting good fetal oxygenation and neurological function. This is the desired outcome for an NST4.
Choice B rationale
A non-reactive NST means the fetal heart rate did not increase with movements, which could indicate fetal hypoxia or other issues. Further testing would be needed to assess fetal well-being.
Choice C rationale
An inconclusive NST means the test did not provide enough information to determine fetal well-being, possibly due to fetal sleep cycles or maternal factors. Additional testing would be required.
Choice D rationale
A positive NST is not a standard term used in fetal monitoring. The correct terms are reactive or non-reactive.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the client’s umbilicus at midline. The nurse should suspect that the fetus is in which of the following positions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Breech presentation means the fetus’s buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first. Fetal heart tones are often heard above the umbilicus in this position.
Choice B rationale
Transverse lie means the fetus is lying horizontally in the uterus. Fetal heart tones would typically be heard at the sides of the abdomen.
Choice C rationale
Cephalic presentation means the fetus’s head is positioned to be delivered first. Fetal heart tones are usually heard below the umbilicus in this position.
Choice D rationale
Oblique lie means the fetus is positioned diagonally in the uterus. Fetal heart tones can be variable depending on the exact position.
The labor and delivery nurse is caring for a client in active labor.
The nurse notes the fetal heart rate baseline is 175 bpm, moderate variability.
Accelerations are absent and no decelerations noted.
How should the nurse describe this tracing to the medical provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Category I tracings are considered normal and are associated with a well-oxygenated, non-acidotic fetus with a normal fetal heart rate baseline, moderate variability, and no late or variable decelerations. However, a baseline heart rate of 175 bpm is considered tachycardia, which does not fit the criteria for Category I.
Choice B rationale
Category II tracings are indeterminate and include any fetal heart rate pattern that does not fit into Category I or III. A baseline heart rate of 175 bpm with moderate variability and no accelerations or decelerations fits into this category. This indicates that the fetus may be experiencing some stress but is not in immediate danger.
Choice C rationale
Category III tracings are abnormal and are associated with an increased risk of fetal acidemia. These tracings include absent baseline variability with recurrent late or variable decelerations, bradycardia, or a sinusoidal pattern. The given tracing does not meet these criteria as it shows moderate variability and no decelerations.
Choice D rationale
There is no Category IV in the classification of fetal heart rate tracings. The standard classification includes only Categories I, II, and III.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately after epidural. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the anesthesia provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but it is not as critical as hypotension. It should be monitored, but it does not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or accompanied by other symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a common and potentially serious side effect of epidural anesthesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress, so it requires immediate attention and reporting to the anesthesia provider.
Choice C rationale
A pain level of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the epidural is effectively managing the client’s pain. This is a positive outcome and does not require reporting.
Choice D rationale
A pulse of 88 bpm is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate any immediate concern that needs to be reported to the anesthesia provider.
During the delivery, which fetal position would be considered optimal for a vaginal birth?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.
Choice B rationale
The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.
Choice C rationale
Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.
Choice D rationale
The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.
When interpreting a fetal monitoring tracing, which of the following findings would require the nurse to intervene?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Late decelerations are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. They occur after the peak of a contraction and indicate that the fetus is not receiving enough oxygen. This requires immediate intervention to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent fetal distress.
Choice B rationale
Variability in fetal heart rate of 12 bpm is considered moderate variability, which is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. It indicates that the fetus has a healthy autonomic nervous system and is not in distress.
Choice C rationale
Accelerations in fetal heart rate are also a reassuring sign. They indicate that the fetus is well-oxygenated and responding appropriately to stimuli. No intervention is needed for accelerations.
Choice D rationale
A baseline fetal heart rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range (110-160 bpm) and does not indicate any immediate concern. It is a sign of a healthy, well-oxygenated fetus.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor. The client is stating that her pain level is 8/10 during her contractions but does not want an epidural. The nurse assists with a position change and offers Fentanyl for pain relief. The client requests the offered pain medication. What action should the nurse perform first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Providing ice chips or mouth swabs can help keep the client comfortable and hydrated, but it is not the priority action when administering pain medication.
Choice B rationale
Assessing and documenting maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate after administering Fentanyl is crucial. This ensures that the medication is not causing any adverse effects on the mother or fetus and that both are stable.
Choice C rationale
Dimming the lights and providing a quiet atmosphere can help create a calming environment, but it is not the priority action when administering pain medication.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient with coping skills, including breathing techniques, is important for managing pain, but it is not the priority action when administering pain medication.
The nurse is caring for a client. Which of the following findings would the nurse report to the anesthesia provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A pulse of 88 bpm is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate any immediate concern that needs to be reported to the anesthesia provider.
Choice B rationale
A pain level of 1 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the epidural is effectively managing the client’s pain. This is a positive outcome and does not require reporting.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a common and potentially serious side effect of epidural anesthesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress, so it requires immediate attention and reporting to the anesthesia provider.
Choice D rationale
Dizziness can be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but it is not as critical as hypotension. It should be monitored, but it does not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or accompanied by other symptoms.
A nurse is creating the plan of care for a client in active labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Keeping four side rails up is a safety measure to prevent falls, but it is not specific to the care of a client in active labor. It is a general safety precaution used for clients who are at risk of falling or have impaired mobility.
Choice B rationale
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not a routine action for a client in active labor. Catheterization is typically reserved for specific medical indications, such as urinary retention or the need for accurate urine output measurement in certain high-risk situations.
Choice C rationale
Checking the cervix prior to administering medication is crucial in active labor. This ensures that the medication is appropriate for the stage of labor and helps avoid complications such as administering pain relief too early or too late, which could affect labor progression and fetal well-being.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) every hour is important, but it may not be frequent enough in active labor. Continuous or more frequent monitoring is often required to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and take appropriate actions.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of early decelerations?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Early decelerations are not caused by umbilical cord compression. Umbilical cord compression typically leads to variable decelerations, which have a different pattern and clinical significance.
Choice B rationale
Early decelerations are not caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Uteroplacental insufficiency is associated with late decelerations, which occur after the peak of a contraction and indicate reduced blood flow to the fetus.
Choice C rationale
Early decelerations are not a result of the administration of medications. Medications can affect fetal heart rate patterns, but early decelerations are specifically related to fetal head compression.
Choice D rationale
Early decelerations are related to fetal head compression. They occur as the fetal head descends into the maternal pelvis and are generally considered benign, indicating normal labor progression.
A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who arrived to the triage with complaints of decreased fetal movement. The nurse contacts the provider and reports the findings. The nurse anticipates an order for which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A non-stress test (NST) is a common initial assessment for decreased fetal movement. It evaluates fetal heart rate patterns in response to fetal movements, providing information about fetal well-being and oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
A biophysical profile (BPP) is a more comprehensive assessment that includes an NST and ultrasound evaluation of fetal movements, tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid volume. It may be ordered if the NST results are non-reassuring or if there are other concerns.
Choice C rationale
An ultrasound can provide valuable information about fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and placental function. It may be used in conjunction with other tests but is not the first-line assessment for decreased fetal movement.
Choice D rationale
Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used for specific indications, such as genetic testing or assessing fetal lung maturity. It is not typically used for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.
A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client following a vaginal examination by the provider which is documented as -2 station. Which of the following interpretations of this finding should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The presenting part being 2 cm below the ischial spines would be documented as +2 station, indicating that the fetal head is descending well into the pelvis.
Choice B rationale
The presenting part being 2 cm above the ischial spines is correctly documented as -2 station. This indicates that the fetal head is still relatively high in the pelvis and has not yet descended to the level of the ischial spines.
Choice C rationale
The presenting part being at the level of the ischial spines is documented as 0 station. This is the midpoint of the pelvis and indicates that the fetal head is engaged.
Choice D rationale
The presenting part being 2 cm below the cervix is not a standard way to describe fetal station. Station is measured relative to the ischial spines, not the cervix.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor at term. The nurse reviews the external monitor tracing below. The nurse identifies that the deceleration pattern seen indicates which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Early decelerations are characterized by a gradual decrease and return to baseline of the fetal heart rate that coincides with the peak of a contraction. They are typically benign and related to fetal head compression.
Choice B rationale
Late decelerations are characterized by a gradual decrease and return to baseline of the fetal heart rate that occurs after the peak of a contraction. They are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and require prompt intervention to improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice C rationale
Variable decelerations are characterized by an abrupt decrease in fetal heart rate that varies in duration, intensity, and timing relative to contractions. They are often caused by umbilical cord compression and may require interventions to relieve the compression.
Choice D rationale
Prolonged decelerations are characterized by a decrease in fetal heart rate that lasts longer than 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes. They indicate a more severe and sustained disruption in fetal oxygenation and require immediate intervention.
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