Ati maternal newborn ob (moitoso)
Total Questions : 29
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA client expresses concern about teratogen exposure on fetal development.Which factor does the nurse emphasize as a priority related to the effects of teratogen exposure?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The mother’s size does not significantly impact the effects of teratogen exposure on fetal development. Teratogens are substances that cause congenital abnormalities in a developing fetus, and their impact is more related to the timing, duration, and type of exposure rather than the mother’s physical characteristics.
Choice B rationale
The timing and duration of exposure are critical factors in determining the effects of teratogen exposure. Teratogens can cause the most harm during specific periods of fetal development, particularly during the first trimester when organogenesis occurs. The duration of exposure also influences the severity of the effects, with prolonged exposure leading to more significant developmental issues.
Choice C rationale
The type of teratogen is also important, as different teratogens can cause different types of congenital abnormalities. For example, alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, while certain medications can cause neural tube defects. However, the timing and duration of exposure are generally considered more critical factors.
Choice D rationale
The father’s health does not directly impact the effects of teratogen exposure on fetal development. Teratogens affect the fetus through the mother’s exposure to harmful substances during pregnancy.
A nurse is teaching a group of first-time parents.When reviewing the facts of intimate partner violence (IPV), which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching presentation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intimate partner violence (IPV) does not necessarily decrease during pregnancy. In fact, pregnancy can sometimes increase the risk of IPV due to various stressors and changes in the relationship dynamics.
Choice B rationale
IPV consists of more than just physical abuse. It can also include emotional, psychological, and sexual abuse. Emotional abuse can involve manipulation, threats, and controlling behavior, while sexual abuse includes any non-consensual sexual activity.
Choice C rationale
IPV can indeed include emotional, physical, and sexual abuse. This comprehensive understanding is crucial for recognizing and addressing all forms of IPV, as each type can have severe and lasting impacts on the victim’s health and well-being.
Choice D rationale
IPV is not rare; it is a common issue affecting millions of people worldwide. It can occur in any demographic and socioeconomic group, making it a significant public health concern.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with anemia.The client has been prescribed iron supplements by their provider.What should the nurse include in education about iron supplementation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Taking iron with milk is not recommended because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron. It is better to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption.
Choice B rationale
Iron supplements typically cause constipation rather than loose stools. Common side effects include nausea, vomiting, and dark stools.
Choice C rationale
Taking iron with vitamin C enhances absorption. Vitamin C converts iron into a form that is more easily absorbed by the body, making it more effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
Choice D rationale
Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, but they can cause gastrointestinal discomfort. If this occurs, taking them with a small amount of food may help, but it should not be taken with dairy products or calcium-rich foods.
A nurse is teaching about fetal development to a group of clients in the antenatal clinic.Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fetal movements, known as quickening, are typically felt by the mother between 16 and 25 weeks of pregnancy, not specifically at week 245.
Choice B rationale
The baby’s heartbeat can be detected by 10-12 weeks of pregnancy using a Doppler ultrasound device. This is an important milestone in fetal development and prenatal care
.
Choice C rationale
Lanugo, the fine hair covering the fetus, usually appears around 20 weeks of pregnancy and starts to disappear closer to the end of the third trimester, not specifically by week 355.
Choice D rationale
The sex of the baby is determined at conception, but it can be detected via ultrasound around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not by week 85.
The nurse is counseling a couple who just learned their 16-week fetus tested positive for a serious genetic disorder.The couple has decided to continue the pregnancy.Which of the following actions by the nurse would be inappropriate?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Providing additional information about the disorder is appropriate as it helps the couple understand the condition better and prepare for the future. This information can include the nature of the disorder, potential complications, and available treatments or interventions.
Choice B rationale
Referring the couple to a disorder-specific support group is also appropriate. Support groups can provide emotional support, practical advice, and a sense of community for families facing similar challenges. This can help the couple cope with the diagnosis and connect with others who have similar experiences.
Choice C rationale
Determining whether termination has been considered is inappropriate because the couple has already decided to continue the pregnancy. Bringing up termination at this point can be distressing and may undermine their decision. The nurse should respect their choice and focus on providing support and information relevant to continuing the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Explaining that they may experience grief, which is normal, is appropriate. Grief is a common response to learning about a serious genetic disorder in a fetus, and normalizing these feelings can help the couple process their emotions and seek appropriate support.
A nurse is teaching a client in her second trimester about measures to relieve heartburn during pregnancy.Which of the following measures does the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Lying down after meals can exacerbate heartburn by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. It is generally recommended to remain upright after eating to help prevent this.
Choice B rationale
Remaining upright after meals helps prevent heartburn by keeping stomach acid in the stomach and reducing the likelihood of acid reflux. This can be achieved by sitting or standing for at least 30 minutes after eating.
Choice C rationale
Eating small, frequent meals can help prevent heartburn by reducing the amount of food in the stomach at any one time, which decreases the pressure on the stomach and the likelihood of acid reflux.
Choice D rationale
Drinking large amounts of water before meals can increase the volume in the stomach and may exacerbate heartburn. It is generally better to drink fluids between meals rather than before or during meals.
Choice E rationale
Discussing antacid recommendations with the provider is appropriate. Antacids can help neutralize stomach acid and provide relief from heartburn, but it is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure that the chosen antacid is safe for use during pregnancy.
A client at 34 weeks gestation is undergoing an ultrasound.The report shows the amniotic fluid volume is estimated at 1900 mL. Which deduction does the nurse make from this finding?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Oligohydramnios refers to a condition where there is too little amniotic fluid. An amniotic fluid volume of 1900 mL is above the normal range, indicating that oligohydramnios is not present.
Choice B rationale
Polyhydramnios is the condition of having too much amniotic fluid. The normal range for amniotic fluid volume at 34 weeks gestation is between 800 and 1000 mL. An estimated volume of 1900 mL indicates polyhydramnios, which can be associated with various maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice C rationale
A follow-up glucose test is not directly indicated by the finding of polyhydramnios. While polyhydramnios can be associated with gestational diabetes, the decision to perform a glucose test would depend on other clinical factors and the patient’s history.
Choice D rationale
An amniotic fluid volume of 1900 mL is above the normal range for 34 weeks gestation, so it is not considered normal for gestational age. This finding indicates polyhydramnios rather than a normal fluid level.
A nurse is providing education to a client during the first prenatal visit.Which of the following statements by the client indicates she understood the education?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The recommended limit for caffeine intake during pregnancy is generally 200 mg or less per day. Consuming 400 mg of caffeine daily exceeds this recommendation and may increase the risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes.
Choice B rationale
It is recommended to avoid alcohol entirely during pregnancy, as even small amounts can increase the risk of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders and other complications. Therefore, having one alcoholic beverage a week is not considered safe.
Choice C rationale
Drinking at least 8-10 cups of fluid each day is a good practice during pregnancy to maintain adequate hydration, support increased blood volume, and promote overall health. This statement indicates that the client understood the education provided.
Choice D rationale
Pregnant individuals should not decrease their intake of essential nutrients like calcium, magnesium, iron, and vitamin D. These nutrients are important for fetal development and maternal health. Instead, they should ensure they are getting adequate amounts through diet and supplements as recommended by their healthcare provider.
You are reviewing medications with a client who is planning pregnancy.The client states she was diagnosed with hypertension three years ago and is taking Lisinopril daily and wants to know if it is safe to continue during pregnancy.What is the best response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Lisinopril is not a beta blocker; it is an ACE inhibitor. Beta blockers, such as metoprolol, are generally considered safer during pregnancy compared to ACE inhibitors. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on your heart and blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. However, they are not without risks and should be used under medical supervision during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, which is contraindicated during pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimesters. ACE inhibitors can cause fetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios, and even fetal death. Therefore, it is essential to discuss alternative medications that are safer during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect because ACE inhibitors, including lisinopril, are not safe to continue during pregnancy. They pose significant risks to the fetus, particularly in the later stages of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Lisinopril is not an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB); it is an ACE inhibitor. ARBs, like ACE inhibitors, are also contraindicated during pregnancy due to similar risks of fetal toxicity and adverse outcomes.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who asks what her estimated date of delivery will be if her last menstrual period began on November 15th.Which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) involves adding 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Starting from November 15th, adding 280 days results in an EDD around August 22nd, not July 12th.
Choice B rationale
Using the same calculation method, adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd, not August 12th.
Choice C rationale
This choice is close but not accurate. Adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct calculation. Adding 280 days to November 15th results in an EDD around August 22nd.
A client in the first trimester of pregnancy states, “I don’t understand how my uterus will be able to stretch to hold a full-term baby.”.Which of the following statements specifically addresses the client’s concern for the uterus?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The uterus can indeed increase in size by 20 times its non-pregnant size. This significant expansion is necessary to accommodate the growing fetus and the increased blood supply required during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
While the weight of the uterus does increase significantly during pregnancy, from about 100 grams to approximately 1,000 grams, this statement does not directly address the client’s concern about the uterus’s ability to stretch.
Choice C rationale
About 25% of the increased capacity of the uterus is related to uteroplacental content, but this does not fully explain the uterus’s ability to stretch to accommodate a full-term baby.
Choice D rationale
The increase in uterus size during pregnancy is not solely related to amniotic fluid volume. The uterus itself grows and stretches significantly to accommodate the developing fetus.
The nurse is reviewing the OB history of a multigravida client at her seven-week prenatal appointment.Which of the following statements would indicate that the client would benefit from genetic testing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Having a child with blue eyes is not an indication for genetic testing. Eye color is a polygenic trait and does not typically warrant genetic testing.
Choice B rationale
Reactive airway disease in preterm children is not a direct indication for genetic testing. This condition is more related to the complications of prematurity rather than genetic factors.
Choice C rationale
Neonatal jaundice is common and usually resolves without long-term issues. It is not typically an indication for genetic testing unless there is a suspicion of an underlying genetic disorder.
Choice D rationale
Tay-Sachs Disease is a genetic disorder, and having a child with this condition is a strong indication for genetic testing. This would help determine the risk of recurrence in future pregnancies and provide valuable information for family planning. .
A nurse is reviewing a client’s prenatal record while scheduling an induction of labor.The records indicate that the client is currently 37 weeks gestation.She has had a previous 39-week vaginal delivery of a male infant and a 35-week vaginal delivery of a male infant.What does the nurse document as the client’s GTPAL?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This choice indicates G3-T1-P0-A1-L2. Gravida (G) is the total number of pregnancies, which is correct as 3. Term (T) is the number of pregnancies carried to term (37 weeks or more), which is 1. Preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, which is 0. Abortions (A) is the number of pregnancies lost before 20 weeks, which is 1. Living (L) is the number of living children, which is 2. However, this choice incorrectly counts the preterm delivery as an abortion.
Choice B rationale
This choice indicates G3-T2-P0-A0-L2. Gravida (G) is correct as 3. Term (T) is the number of pregnancies carried to term, which is 2. Preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, which is 0. Abortions (A) is the number of pregnancies lost before 20 weeks, which is 0. Living (L) is the number of living children, which is 2. This choice incorrectly counts the preterm delivery as a term delivery.
Choice C rationale
This choice indicates G3-T1-P1-A0-L2. Gravida (G) is correct as 3. Term (T) is the number of pregnancies carried to term, which is 1. Preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, which is 1. Abortions (A) is the number of pregnancies lost before 20 weeks, which is 0. Living (L) is the number of living children, which is 2. This choice correctly accounts for the term and preterm deliveries.
Choice D rationale
This choice indicates G2-T1-P1-A0-L2. Gravida (G) is incorrect as it should be 3. Term (T) is the number of pregnancies carried to term, which is 1. Preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, which is 1. Abortions (A) is the number of pregnancies lost before 20 weeks, which is 0. Living (L) is the number of living children, which is 2. This choice incorrectly counts the total number of pregnancies.
A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy.The client tells the nurse that she is feeling confused lately because, although she and her husband planned this pregnancy, she is not sure that she is happy about being pregnant.Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This response is dismissive and does not address the client’s feelings. It may make the client feel invalidated and unsupported.
Choice B rationale
This response acknowledges that ambivalent feelings are common in early pregnancy. It normalizes the client’s feelings and provides reassurance, which is appropriate and supportive.
Choice C rationale
This response imposes an expectation of happiness on the client, which may make her feel guilty or inadequate for not feeling happy. It does not validate her current feelings.
Choice D rationale
This response redirects the client’s feelings to another person (her mother) rather than addressing them directly. It may not be helpful if the client does not have a supportive relationship with her mother.
A nurse is teaching a group of students about the ovarian cycle.Complete the following sentence using the list of options.The follicular phase is when the follicle is maturing under the influence of the _______.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal glands to release cortisol. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice B rationale
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles. It is the correct hormone involved in the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
Choice C rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone involved in childbirth and lactation. It stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection but is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice D rationale
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the pituitary gland and triggers ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase.
Choice E rationale
Prolactin is a hormone that stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. It is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
Choice F rationale
Progesterone is a hormone produced by the corpus luteum and the placenta during pregnancy. It prepares the endometrium for implantation and maintains pregnancy but is not involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles.
A nurse in labor and delivery is caring for a client who has just delivered a healthy baby boy.Following delivery of the placenta, the nurse examines the umbilical cord.Which of the following vessels should the nurse expect to observe in the umbilical cord?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The umbilical cord does not typically contain one artery and one vein. This configuration would not provide the necessary blood flow to support fetal development. The umbilical cord must have two arteries to carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, and one vein to carry oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus.
Choice B rationale
Two veins and one artery is also incorrect. The umbilical cord must have two arteries to ensure that deoxygenated blood and waste products are efficiently transported from the fetus to the placenta. Having only one artery would not suffice for the required blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Two arteries and one vein is the correct configuration of the umbilical cord. The two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, while the single vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. This arrangement is essential for maintaining proper fetal circulation during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Two arteries and two veins is incorrect. The umbilical cord only needs one vein to carry oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. Having two veins would be redundant and unnecessary for fetal development.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of adolescent females who are pregnant about expected changes related to pregnancy.Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, are a common occurrence during pregnancy due to the rapid stretching of the skin. They are not a medical emergency and do not require immediate attention from a healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
During pregnancy, the nipples and areola typically become darker, not paler, as the breasts enlarge. This change is due to hormonal influences and increased blood flow to the area.
Choice C rationale
Fetal movement, also known as quickening, is usually felt by the mother between 18 to 25 weeks of gestation, not as early as 10 weeks. At 10 weeks, the fetus is still too small for its movements to be felt by the mother.
Choice D rationale
Some nausea and vomiting, known as morning sickness, is normal during pregnancy. However, if a pregnant woman is unable to keep food or water down, it is important to contact a healthcare provider to ensure she and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and hydration.
A nurse is caring for a patient in the obstetric clinic that has made the difficult decision to terminate the pregnancy due to a confirmed genetic abnormality that is incompatible with life.Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing action?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Not providing resources immediately may leave the patient feeling unsupported and isolated. It is important to offer resources and support to help the patient cope with the emotional and psychological impact of terminating a pregnancy due to a genetic abnormality.
Choice B rationale
Discussing the stages of grief is an appropriate nursing action. It helps the patient understand that their feelings are normal and provides a framework for processing their emotions. This support can be crucial in helping the patient navigate their grief and begin the healing process.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the patient to rethink their decision is not appropriate. The decision to terminate a pregnancy due to a genetic abnormality is often difficult and deeply personal. It is important to respect the patient’s decision and provide support rather than questioning their choice.
Choice D rationale
Encouraging the couple not to share their emotions with each other can be harmful. Open communication between partners is essential for mutual support and understanding during such a challenging time. Encouraging them to share their feelings can strengthen their relationship and help them cope with the loss together.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 9 weeks pregnant at her first prenatal visit.Vital signs Medical History 0900: Medical history Gravida 3 Para weeks of gestation Allergies: Penicillin Height 5 feet 4 inches, 163 cm Weight 178 lb, 80.7 kg BMI 30.6 Client reports two previous children were born vaginally and at term.Client reports, “I have had a vaginal spotting and mild abdominal cramping the last couple days”. Diagnostic tests Client reports dysuria and urinary frequency.Client reports mild nausea in the morning for the last 2-3 weeks.Abdominal enlargement is noted.Chadwick’s sign is present.(Select All that Apply.) Blood pressure Gastrointestinal complaints Lower abdominal cramping Hcg result Vaginal spotting Heart rate.Time What priority information should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure is a critical parameter to monitor during pregnancy. Elevated blood pressure, as seen in this case (149/91 mmHg), can indicate the onset of hypertensive disorders such as preeclampsia, which can have severe consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. It is essential to report elevated blood pressure to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice B rationale
Gastrointestinal complaints, such as nausea and vomiting, are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. However, they are typically not a priority unless they are severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms. In this case, the gastrointestinal complaints are mild and have been present for 2-3 weeks, which is consistent with normal early pregnancy symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Lower abdominal cramping can be a sign of various conditions, including normal uterine growth, gastrointestinal issues, or more serious concerns such as ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage. Given the patient’s report of vaginal spotting and mild abdominal cramping, it is crucial to report this to the provider to rule out any potential complications.
Choice D rationale
The hCG result is important for confirming pregnancy and monitoring its progression. However, in this context, it is not the most immediate priority compared to other symptoms. Elevated or abnormal hCG levels can indicate potential issues, but the presence of other symptoms such as spotting and cramping takes precedence.
Choice E rationale
Vaginal spotting during early pregnancy can be a sign of implantation bleeding, but it can also indicate more serious conditions such as threatened miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Given the patient’s report of spotting and cramping, it is essential to report this to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice F rationale
Heart rate is an important vital sign to monitor, but in this case, the patient’s heart rate is within the normal range for pregnancy. Therefore, it is not a priority to report unless there are other concerning symptoms or significant changes in heart rate.
Choice G rationale
Dysuria, or painful urination, can indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI), which is common during pregnancy and can lead to complications if left untreated. UTIs can cause discomfort and may lead to more serious infections such as pyelonephritis. It is important to report dysuria to the provider for appropriate testing and treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 9 weeks pregnant at her first prenatal visit.0900 HR 78 bpm BP 149/91 mmHg RR 16/min Temp 98.6°F 0915 HR 80 bpm BP 140/81 mmHg RR 16/min Medical history Diagnostic tests (Select All that Apply.) Blood pressure Gastrointestinal complaints Lower abdominal cramping What priority information should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure is a critical parameter to monitor during pregnancy. Elevated blood pressure, as seen in this case (149/91 mmHg), can indicate the onset of hypertensive disorders such as preeclampsia, which can have severe consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. It is essential to report elevated blood pressure to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice B rationale
Gastrointestinal complaints, such as nausea and vomiting, are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. However, they are typically not a priority unless they are severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms. In this case, the gastrointestinal complaints are mild and have been present for 2-3 weeks, which is consistent with normal early pregnancy symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Lower abdominal cramping can be a sign of various conditions, including normal uterine growth, gastrointestinal issues, or more serious concerns such as ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage. Given the patient’s report of vaginal spotting and mild abdominal cramping, it is crucial to report this to the provider to rule out any potential complications.
Choice D rationale
The hCG result is important for confirming pregnancy and monitoring its progression. However, in this context, it is not the most immediate priority compared to other symptoms. Elevated or abnormal hCG levels can indicate potential issues, but the presence of other symptoms such as spotting and cramping takes precedence.
Choice E rationale
Vaginal spotting during early pregnancy can be a sign of implantation bleeding, but it can also indicate more serious conditions such as threatened miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Given the patient’s report of spotting and cramping, it is essential to report this to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice F rationale
Heart rate is an important vital sign to monitor, but in this case, the patient’s heart rate is within the normal range for pregnancy. Therefore, it is not a priority to report unless there are other concerning symptoms or significant changes in heart rate.
Choice G rationale
Dysuria, or painful urination, can indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI), which is common during pregnancy and can lead to complications if left untreated. UTIs can cause discomfort and may lead to more serious infections such as pyelonephritis. It is important to report dysuria to the provider for appropriate testing and treatment.
A nurse is completing a new client intake form and asks the client about her job.The client states she owns and operates a hair and nail salon.Based upon this information, what should the nurse include in client education?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Changing professions is not necessary solely due to pregnancy. However, it is important to consider the specific risks associated with the current job. In this case, the client works in a hair and nail salon, which may expose her to various chemicals and environmental toxins. These toxins can pose risks to both the mother and the developing fetus. Therefore, the focus should be on minimizing exposure to these hazards rather than changing professions altogether.
Choice B rationale
While it is important to be mindful of weight limits during pregnancy to avoid strain and injury, this is not the primary concern for a client working in a hair and nail salon. The main risk in this scenario is exposure to environmental toxins, which can have more significant implications for the health of the mother and the developing fetus.
Choice C rationale
Exposure to environmental toxins is a significant concern for pregnant women working in hair and nail salons. These environments often contain chemicals such as formaldehyde, toluene, and phthalates, which can be harmful to both the mother and the developing fetus. Educating the client about the risks associated with these toxins and providing guidance on how to minimize exposure is crucial for ensuring a healthy pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
While reducing the number of clients seen in a day may help manage physical strain and fatigue, it does not address the primary concern of exposure to environmental toxins. The focus should be on minimizing contact with harmful chemicals and ensuring a safe working environment for the pregnant client.
A client arrives for her second prenatal visit and the provider is reviewing the results of her tests.The client’s blood type and Rh factor are B- (negative). What additional intervention is needed for this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood transfusion just after delivery is not a standard intervention for a client with Rh-negative blood type. The primary concern for Rh-negative clients is the potential for Rh incompatibility with the fetus, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition is prevented by administering RhO(D) immune globulin during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) testing is used to screen for certain fetal abnormalities, such as neural tube defects, but it is not specifically related to Rh incompatibility. The primary intervention for Rh-negative clients is the administration of RhO(D) immune globulin to prevent sensitization.
Choice C rationale
RhO(D) immune globulin is administered at around 28 weeks of gestation to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative clients. This intervention is crucial for preventing the development of antibodies that could harm the fetus in current or future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A three-hour glucose tolerance test is used to screen for gestational diabetes, which is a separate concern from Rh incompatibility. The primary intervention for Rh-negative clients is the administration of RhO(D) immune globulin.
A nurse is caring for an 18-week pregnant client in a prenatal clinic.The client asks if some of her new symptoms are common in pregnancy.Highlight the findings that the nurse would include in teaching about expected physiological changes in pregnancy.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nausea is a common symptom during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. It is often referred to as morning sickness, although it can occur at any time of the day. The client’s report of nausea almost every day for the last two months, but lasting for a shorter period of the day, is consistent with typical pregnancy-related nausea.
Choice B rationale
Malodorous vaginal discharge is not a common or expected physiological change during pregnancy. It may indicate an infection or other medical condition that requires further evaluation and treatment.
Choice C rationale
Increased frequency of urination is a common symptom during pregnancy. It occurs due to hormonal changes and the growing uterus putting pressure on the bladder. The client’s report of voiding more frequently without pain is consistent with normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Fundal height measurement is used to assess fetal growth and development. At 18 weeks of gestation, the fundal height is typically around 18 cm, which corresponds to the number of weeks of pregnancy. This finding is consistent with expected physiological changes during pregnancy.
Choice E rationale
The darkened line of skin noted midline on the abdomen, known as the linea nigra, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is caused by increased pigmentation and is a normal finding.
Choice F rationale
A dry, reddened patch of skin below the knee bilaterally is not a common or expected physiological change during pregnancy. It may indicate a dermatological condition or other medical issue that requires further evaluation.
A nurse is discussing fetal circulation with a group of nursing students.The ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus are key factors in fetal circulation.Which of the following explains the purpose of these shunts in fetal circulation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus are shunts in fetal circulation that bypass the lungs and liver, directing oxygenated blood to the brain and body. The foramen ovale allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the lungs. The ductus venosus shunts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver.
Choice B rationale
This choice is incorrect because the primary purpose of these shunts is not to ensure proper development of the fetal heart. While they do play a role in directing blood flow, their main function is to bypass the non-functional fetal lungs and liver.
Choice C rationale
This choice is incorrect because the shunts are not primarily involved in regulating blood pressure in the fetus. Their main function is to direct oxygenated blood to vital organs like the brain and heart.
Choice D rationale
This choice is incorrect because the shunts bypass the lungs, which are not yet functional in the fetus. Gas exchange occurs in the placenta, not the fetal lungs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in her first trimester and is teaching the client about warning signs to report immediately.The nurse should instruct the client to call the clinic if she experiences which of the following manifestations?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Heartburn and nausea are common symptoms during pregnancy and are not typically considered warning signs that require immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a normal sign of pregnancy and does not indicate a complication that needs immediate reporting.
Choice C rationale
Abdominal cramping can be a sign of a serious condition such as ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage, and it is important for the client to report this symptom immediately.
Choice D rationale
Urinary frequency is a common symptom during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and the growing uterus pressing on the bladder. It is not typically a warning sign that requires immediate medical attention.
Sign Up or Login to view all the 29 Questions on this Exam
Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.
Sign Up Now
