ATI > RN

Exam Review

ATI Maternal Newborn Rn

Total Questions : 54

Showing 25 questions, Sign in for more
Question 1:

A nurse in the ambulatory surgery center is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a dilation and curettage (D&C) following a spontaneous miscarriage. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Vaginal intercourse should be avoided for at least 4 weeks after a D&C to prevent infection and bleeding.

Choice B reason: Products of conception are usually removed during a D&C, so vaginal bleeding should not contain any fetal tissue.

Choice C reason: Zinc is an essential mineral for wound healing and immune function, so increased intake of zinc-rich foods such as meat, seafood, nuts, and seeds can help the client recover from a D&C.

Choice D reason: Aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of bleeding after a D&C, so it should be avoided. The client can take acetaminophen or ibuprofen for cramps instead.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 days postoperative following a right radical mastectomy. Which of the following activities should the nurse anticipate being the most difficult for this client to perform with her right hand?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Brushing teeth does not require much strength or range of motion in the hand, so it should not be very difficult for the client.

Choice B reason: Buttoning a blouse can be done with one hand or with the help of the other hand, so it should not be very difficult for the client.

Choice C reason: Eating breakfast can be done with the left hand or with utensils that are easy to hold, so it should not be very difficult for the client.

Choice D reason: Combing hair requires lifting the arm above the shoulder and moving the hand through the hair, which can be painful and challenging for the client who had a mastectomy and may have impaired lymphatic drainage and nerve damage in the right arm.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 3:

A postmenopausal woman with uterine prolapse is being fitted with a pessary. The nurse would be most alert for which side effect?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Increased vaginal discharge is a normal and expected outcome of using a pessary, as it helps to lubricate and cleanse the vagina.

Choice B reason: Urinary tract infection is not a common side effect of using a pessary, as it does not interfere with urination or introduce bacteria into the urinary tract.

Choice C reason: Vaginitis is not a common side effect of using a pessary, as it does not cause inflammation or infection of the vagina. However, the client should maintain good hygiene and use vaginal cream or gel as prescribed to prevent irritation.

Choice D reason: Vaginal ulceration is a serious and possible side effect of using a pessary, as it can cause pressure necrosis and erosion of the vaginal mucosa. The client should report any bleeding, pain, or foul-smelling discharge to the provider and have the pessary removed and replaced regularly.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 4:

The public health nurse is teaching young adolescents in a sexual health class the proper use of a condom. Which statements made by the students indicate teaching was successful? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A reason: Baby oil is not an acceptable lubricant, as it can damage the condom and reduce its effectiveness. The students should use water-based or silicone-based lubricants instead.

Choice B reason: Ensuring a tight fit of the condom is not advisable, as it can cause discomfort and increase the risk of breakage. The students should leave some space at the tip of the condom to collect semen and prevent spillage.

Choice C reason: Only using latex condoms is correct, as they are more effective than other materials in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections. The students should avoid using condoms made of natural skin or lambskin, as they are porous and can allow viruses to pass through.

Choice D reason: Placing the condom on an erect penis is correct, as it ensures proper application and prevents slippage. The students should unroll the condom over the entire length of the penis before any sexual contact.

Choice E reason: Storing the condoms in a cool dry place is correct, as it prevents exposure to heat, moisture, sunlight, or sharp objects that can damage the condom. The students should check the expiration date and integrity of the condom before use.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 5:

A client who has come to the clinic is diagnosed with endometriosis. What would the nurse expect the primary care provider to prescribe as a first-line treatment?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Antiestrogens are not a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can cause severe side effects such as bone loss, hot flashes, and vaginal dryness.

Choice B reason: Progestins are a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can suppress the growth of endometrial tissue and reduce pain and bleeding.

Choice C reason: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues are a second-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can induce temporary menopause and cause bone loss, hot flashes, and mood changes.

Choice D reason: NSAIDs are not a treatment for endometriosis, as they can only provide symptomatic relief for pain and inflammation.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 6:

The public health nurse is teaching young adolescents in a sexual health class the proper use of a condom. Which statements made by the students indicate teaching was successful? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A reason: Baby oil is not an acceptable lubricant, as it can damage the condom and reduce its effectiveness. The students should use water-based or silicone-based lubricants instead.

Choice B reason: Ensuring a tight fit of the condom is not advisable, as it can cause discomfort and increase the risk of breakage. The students should leave some space at the tip of the condom to collect semen and prevent spillage.

Choice C reason: Only using latex condoms is correct, as they are more effective than other materials in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections. The students should avoid using condoms made of natural skin or lambskin, as they are porous and can allow viruses to pass through.

Choice D reason: Placing the condom on an erect penis is correct, as it ensures proper application and prevents slippage. The students should unroll the condom over the entire length of the penis before any sexual contact.

Choice E reason: Storing the condoms in a cool dry place is correct, as it prevents exposure to heat, moisture, sunlight, or sharp objects that can damage the condom. The students should check the expiration date and integrity of the condom before use.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 7:

A nurse is working with a woman who has been diagnosed with severe fibrocystic breast disease. After describing the medications that can be used as treatment, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the client identifies which drug is being used.

Explanation

Choice A reason: Danazol is a synthetic androgen that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease, as it can reduce estrogen levels and shrink breast tissue.

Choice B reason: Penicillin is an antibiotic that has no effect on fibrocystic breast disease, as it does not target hormonal or cellular changes in the breast.

Choice C reason: Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease, as it can lower prolactin levels and reduce breast tenderness.

Choice D reason: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease, as it can block estrogen receptors and inhibit breast cell growth.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 8:

The nurse is working with a group of community health members to develop a plan to address the special health needs of women. The group would design educational programs to address which condition is the priority.

Explanation

Choice A: Cancer is not the correct answer because it is not the leading cause of death among women. According to the World Health Organization, cancer accounted for 15% of all deaths among women in 2019.

Choice B: Heart Disease is the correct answer because it is the leading cause of death among women worldwide. According to the World Health Organization, heart disease accounted for 21% of all deaths among women in 2019. Many women are unaware of the risk factors and symptoms of heart disease, and may not seek timely medical attention. Therefore, educational programs that raise awareness and promote the prevention of heart disease are a priority for women's health.

Choice C: Diabetes is not the correct answer because it is not the leading cause of death among women. According to the World Health Organization, diabetes accounted for 4% of all deaths among women in 2019. However, diabetes can increase the risk of developing other complications such as heart disease, kidney disease, and blindness. Therefore, educational programs that teach women how to manage their blood sugar levels and prevent complications are important for women's health.

Choice D: Smoking is not the correct answer because it is not a condition, but a risk factor for many diseases. Smoking can increase the risk of developing lung cancer, heart disease, stroke, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Therefore, educational programs that help women quit smoking and avoid exposure to secondhand smoke are beneficial for women's health.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 9:

The nurse is working with a group of community health members to develop a plan to address the special health needs of women. The group would design educational programs to address which condition is the priority.

Explanation

Choice A: Cancer is not the correct answer because it is not the leading cause of death among women. According to the World Health Organization, cancer accounted for 15% of all deaths among women in 2019.

Choice B: Heart Disease is the correct answer because it is the leading cause of death among women worldwide. According to the World Health Organization, heart disease accounted for 21% of all deaths among women in 2019. Many women are unaware of the risk factors and symptoms of heart disease, and may not seek timely medical attention. Therefore, educational programs that raise awareness and promote the prevention of heart disease are a priority for women's health.

Choice C: Diabetes is not the correct answer because it is not the leading cause of death among women. According to the World Health Organization, diabetes accounted for 4% of all deaths among women in 2019. However, diabetes can increase the risk of developing other complications such as heart disease, kidney disease, and blindness. Therefore, educational programs that teach women how to manage their blood sugar levels and prevent complications are important for women's health.

Choice D: Smoking is not the correct answer because it is not a condition, but a risk factor for many diseases. Smoking can increase the risk of developing lung cancer, heart disease, stroke, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Therefore, educational programs that help women quit smoking and avoid exposure to secondhand smoke are beneficial for women's health.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 10:

When describing the menstrual cycle to a group of young women, the nurse explains that estrogen levels are highest during which phase of the endometrial cycle?

Explanation

Choice A: Menstrual is not the correct answer because it is the phase when estrogen levels are lowest. The menstrual phase occurs when the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) is shed along with blood and mucus through the vagina.

Choice B: Ischemic is not the correct answer because it is the phase when estrogen levels are decreasing. The ischemic phase occurs when the blood supply to the endometrium is reduced due to vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). This phase prepares the endometrium for shedding if fertilization does not occur.

Choice C: Secretory is not the correct answer because it is the phase when progesterone levels are highest. The secretory phase occurs when the endometrium becomes thick and spongy due to increased secretion of mucus and glycogen (a form of sugar). This phase provides a suitable environment for implantation if fertilization occurs.

Choice D: Proliferative is the correct answer because it is the phase when estrogen levels are highest. The proliferative phase occurs when the endometrium regenerates and grows due to increased stimulation by estrogen. This phase prepares the endometrium for implantation if fertilization occurs.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 11:

A nurse in a community clinic is counseling a client who received a positive test result for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

Explanation

Choice A: "If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed." This statement is false and misleading. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause serious complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain if left untreated. Chlamydia can also be passed on to newborns during delivery, causing eye infections or pneumonia. Therefore, it is important that both the client and their sexual partner(s) receive treatment and abstain from sexual activity until they are cured.

Choice B: "This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin." This statement is true and accurate. Azithromycin is an antibiotic that can effectively treat chlamydia with one oral dose. However, some people may experience side effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal pain after taking azithromycin. Therefore, it is important that the client follows the instructions and completes the treatment as prescribed.

Choice C: "You need to return in 6 months for retesting." This statement is false and unnecessary. Retesting for chlamydia is recommended only if the client has symptoms, has a new or multiple sexual partner(s), or is pregnant. Otherwise, retesting is not required if the client and their partner(s) have completed the treatment and have no further exposure to chlamydia.

Choice D: "You have to avoid sexual relations for 3 days." This statement is false and insufficient. The client should avoid sexual relations until they and their partner(s) have completed the treatment and have no symptoms of chlamydia. This may take longer than 3 days, depending on the type and duration of the treatment. Therefore, it is advisable that the client uses condoms or abstains from sexual activity until they are cured.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 12:

A nurse is working with a woman who has been diagnosed with severe fibrocystic breast disease. After describing the medications that can be used as treatment, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the client identifies which drug as being used?

Explanation

Choice A: Danazol is not the correct answer because it is a drug that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease. Danazol is a synthetic hormone that reduces the production of estrogen and progesterone, which are involved in the development of breast cysts.

Choice B: Penicillin is the correct answer because it is a drug that has no effect on fibrocystic breast disease. Penicillin is an antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections, such as strep throat or syphilis. It has no role in the management of fibrocystic breast disease.

Choice C: Bromocriptine is not the correct answer because it is a drug that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease. Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that inhibits the secretion of prolactin, which is a hormone that stimulates breast tissue growth and milk production.

Choice D: Tamoxifen is not the correct answer because it is a drug that can be used to treat fibrocystic breast disease. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen that blocks the action of estrogen on breast cells, which can reduce the size and number of breast cysts.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 13:

A pregnant woman diagnosed with syphilis comes to the clinic for a visit. The nurse discusses the risk of transmitting the infection to her newborn, explaining that this infection is transmitted to the newborn through the:

Explanation

Choice A: Breast milk is not the correct answer because it is not a route of transmission for syphilis. Syphilis is caused by a bacterium called Treponema pallidum, which cannot survive in breast milk. However, breastfeeding mothers with syphilis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent other complications.

Choice B: The birth canal is not the correct answer because it is not a route of transmission for syphilis. Syphilis can be transmitted through sexual contact, but not through vaginal delivery. However, pregnant women with syphilis should be screened and treated before delivery to prevent congenital syphilis in their newborns.

Choice C: Amniotic fluid is not the correct answer because it is not a route of transmission for syphilis. Syphilis cannot cross the amniotic membrane, which protects the fetus from infections in the uterus. However, pregnant women with syphilis should be monitored for signs of fetal distress or premature rupture of membranes.

Choice D: Placenta is the correct answer because it is a route of transmission for syphilis. Syphilis can cross the placenta, which connects the mother and the fetus through blood vessels. This can result in congenital syphilis, which can cause serious problems such as stillbirth, miscarriage, low birth weight, deformities, or neurological damage in newborns.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 14:

A client with trichomoniasis is to receive metronidazole. What should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this drug?

Explanation

Choice A: Caffeine is not the correct answer because it does not interact with metronidazole. Caffeine is a stimulant that can increase alertness, energy, and heart rate. However, it has no effect on the effectiveness or side effects of metronidazole.

Choice B: Chocolate is not the correct answer because it does not interact with metronidazole. Chocolate is a food that contains caffeine, sugar, and fat. However, it has no effect on the effectiveness or side effects of metronidazole.

Choice C: Nicotine is not the correct answer because it does not interact with metronidazole. Nicotine is a substance that can be found in tobacco products, such as cigarettes, cigars, or chewing tobacco. However, it has no effect on the effectiveness or side effects of metronidazole.

Choice D: Alcohol is the correct answer because it interacts with metronidazole. Alcohol is a substance that can be found in beverages, such as beer, wine, or liquor. It can cause a severe reaction when combined with metronidazole, resulting in symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, and palpitations. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 15:

A nurse reading a journal article about the care of a woman with pelvic organ prolapse would expect to find information on which disorder. Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A: Rectal incontinence is not the correct answer because it is not a disorder related to pelvic organ prolapse. Rectal incontinence is a condition that causes loss of control over bowel movements, resulting in leakage of stool or gas. It can be caused by various factors, such as nerve damage, muscle weakness, or diarrhea.

Choice B: Rectocele is the correct answer because it is a disorder related to pelvic organ prolapse. Rectocele is a condition that occurs when the rectum bulges into the vagina due to weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and connective tissue. It can cause symptoms such as constipation, difficulty emptying the bowel, or a feeling of pressure or fullness in the vagina.

Choice C: Urinary incontinence is the correct answer because it is a disorder related to pelvic organ prolapse. Urinary incontinence is a condition that causes loss of control over urination, resulting in leakage of urine or urgency to urinate. It can be caused by various factors, such as stress, urge, overflow, or mixed types of incontinence.

Choice D: Cystocele is the correct answer because it is a disorder related to pelvic organ prolapse. Cystocele is a condition that occurs when the bladder bulges into the vagina due to weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and connective tissue. It can cause symptoms such as frequent urination, difficulty emptying the bladder, or a feeling of pressure or fullness in the vagina.

Choice E: Enterocele is the correct answer because it is a disorder related to pelvic organ prolapse. Enterocele is a condition that occurs when the small intestine bulges into the vagina due to weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and connective tissue. It can cause symptoms such as lower back pain, pelvic pressure, or difficulty having bowel movements.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 16:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about self-care with a client who has pelvic inflammatory disease. The client does not speak English. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

Explanation

Choice A: Ask the client's English-speaking family member to translate. This action is not appropriate because it may compromise the accuracy and confidentiality of the information. The family member may not have sufficient medical knowledge or vocabulary to translate correctly or may omit or alter some details due to personal bias or embarrassment.

Choice B: Use a translation dictionary to reinforce the teaching. This action is not appropriate because it may be time-consuming and ineffective. The translation dictionary may not have all the relevant terms or phrases or may provide inaccurate or ambiguous translations. The nurse may also lose the client's attention or interest by relying on the dictionary.

Choice C: Seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter. This action is appropriate because it ensures the quality and clarity of the communication. The facility-approved interpreter is a professional who has the skills and training to provide accurate and unbiased translation of the information. The interpreter can also facilitate the interaction and feedback between the nurse and the client.

Choice D: Ask an assistive personnel (AP) who speaks the client's language to serve as an interpreter. This action is not appropriate because it may violate the scope of practice and ethical standards of the AP. The AP may not have the qualifications or authority to provide interpretation services or may have a conflict of interest or role confusion with the client. The AP may also have other duties or responsibilities that may interfere with the interpretation process.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 17:

A maternity client is in need of surgery. Which healthcare member is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure?

Explanation

Choice A: The social worker is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The social worker is a professional who provides psychosocial support and advocacy for clients and families, such as counseling, referrals, or discharge planning.

Choice B: The nurse is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The nurse is a professional who provides direct care and education for clients and families, such as assessment, medication administration, or teaching. However, the nurse can assist the physician in obtaining informed consent by witnessing the client's signature, verifying the client's understanding, or documenting the process.

Choice C: The physician is the correct answer because they are legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The physician is a professional who diagnoses and treats clients and families, such as performing surgery, prescribing medication, or ordering tests. The physician must explain the purpose, benefits, risks, alternatives, and consequences of the procedure to the client and obtain their voluntary agreement before proceeding.

Choice D: The unit secretary is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The unit secretary is a staff member who performs clerical and administrative tasks for the unit, such as answering phones, filing records, or scheduling appointments.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 18:

A nurse is preparing to administer hydrocortisone 100 mg IM daily to a client. Available as hydrocortisone 250 mg/2 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Explanation

- To find the amount of mL to administer per dose, we need to use a ratio and proportion method.

- We can set up a proportion as follows: 250 mg/2 mL = 100 mg/x mL

- To solve for x, we cross-multiply and get: 250x = 200

- Then we divide both sides by 250 and get: x = 200/250

- To simplify, we can reduce the fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 50 and get: x = 4/5

- To convert the fraction to a decimal, we divide 4 by 5 and get: x = 0.8

- Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of hydrocortisone per dose.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 19:

A nurse is reviewing information about the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

Explanation

Choice A: "Information about a client can be disclosed to family members at any time." This statement indicates a need for further teaching because it is false and violates HIPAA. HIPAA protects the privacy and security of clients' health information and limits who can access or share it without their consent. Information about a client can only be disclosed to family members if they are involved in the client's care or payment, or if the client gives permission.

Choice B: "HIPAA established regulations of individually identifiable health information in verbal, electronic, or written form." This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching because it is true and reflects HIPAA. HIPAA defines individually identifiable health information as any information that relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual; the provision of health care to an individual; or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual; and that identifies the individual or for which there is a reasonable basis to believe it can be used to identify the individual.

Choice C: "HIPAA is a federal law, not a state law." This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching because it is true and reflects HIPAA. HIPAA is a federal law that was enacted in 1996 by Congress and signed by President Clinton. It applies to all states and territories of the United States. However, some states may have additional or stricter laws that protect clients' health information.

Choice D: "A client's address would be an example of personally identifiable information." This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching because it is true and reflects HIPAA. HIPAA lists 18 identifiers that can be used to identify an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, medical record number, or biometric identifiers. A client's address is one of these identifiers and must be protected under HIPAA.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 20:

A maternity client is in need of surgery. Which healthcare member is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure?

Explanation

Choice A: The social worker is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The social worker is a professional who provides psychosocial support and advocacy for clients and families, such as counseling, referrals, or discharge planning.

Choice B: The nurse is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The nurse is a professional who provides direct care and education for clients and families, such as assessment, medication administration, or teaching. However, the nurse can assist the physician in obtaining informed consent by witnessing the client's signature, verifying the client's understanding, or documenting the process.

Choice C: The physician is the correct answer because they are legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The physician is a professional who diagnoses and treats clients and families, such as performing surgery, prescribing medication, or ordering tests. The physician must explain the purpose, benefits, risks, alternatives, and consequences of the procedure to the client and obtain their voluntary agreement before proceeding.

Choice D: The unit secretary is not the correct answer because they are not legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. The unit secretary is a staff member who performs clerical and administrative tasks for the unit, such as answering phones, filing records, or scheduling appointments.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 21:

A woman is admitted for repair of cystocele and rectocele. She has nine living children. In taking her health history, what would the nurse expect to find?

Explanation

Choice A: Sporadic vaginal bleeding accompanied by chronic pelvic pain is not the correct answer because it is not a symptom of cystocele or rectocele. This symptom may indicate other conditions such as endometriosis, fibroids, or cervical cancer.

Choice B: Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism on the chin are not the correct answers because they are not symptoms of cystocele or rectocele. These symptoms may indicate other conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), thyroid disorder, or menopause.

Choice C: Heavy leukorrhea with vulvar pruritus is not the correct answer because it is not a symptom of cystocele or rectocele. This symptom may indicate other conditions such as bacterial vaginosis, yeast infection, or sexually transmitted infection (STI).

Choice D: Stress incontinence with a feeling of low abdominal pressure is the correct answer because it is a symptom of cystocele or rectocele. Stress incontinence is a condition that causes leakage of urine when there is increased pressure on the bladder, such as during coughing, sneezing, laughing, or lifting. Cystocele or rectocele can cause stress incontinence by weakening the pelvic floor muscles and connective tissue that supports the bladder and urethra. The feeling of low abdominal pressure is also a symptom of cystocele or rectocele, as it indicates that the bladder or rectum is protruding into the vagina.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 22:

While obtaining a health history from a male adolescent during a good check-up, the nurse assesses his sexual behavior and risk for sexually transmitted infections. Based on the information, the nurse plans to teach the adolescent about using a condom. What statement would the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Explanation

Choice A: "Store your condoms in your wallet so they are ready for use." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Storing condoms in a wallet can damage them by exposing them to heat, friction, or puncture. Damaged condoms can break or leak during sexual activity and increase the risk of STIs or pregnancy.

Choice B: "Use petroleum jelly with a latex condom for extra lubrication." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Using petroleum jelly or any oil-based lubricant with a latex condom can weaken the latex material and cause it to break or slip off. Only water-based or silicone-based lubricants should be used with latex condoms.

Choice C: "Put the condom on before engaging in any genital contact." This statement is correct and should be included in the teaching plan. Putting the condom on before engaging in any genital contact can prevent the transmission of STIs or pregnancy by avoiding contact with pre-ejaculate fluid, semen, or vaginal fluid.

Choice D: "You can reuse a condom if it's within 3 hours." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Reusing a condom can increase the risk of STIs or pregnancy by exposing the partner to residual fluid, bacteria, or sperm. A new condom should be used for each sexual act.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 23:

After teaching a group of adolescent girls about female reproductive development, the nurse determines that teaching was successful when the girls state that menarche is defined as a woman's first:

Explanation

Choice A: Sexual experience is not the correct answer because it is not related to female reproductive development. Sexual experience is a personal and subjective term that can vary depending on the individual's definition, values, and preferences. It has no biological or physiological significance for female reproductive development.

Choice B: Menstrual period is the correct answer because it is related to female reproductive development. The menstrual period is a cyclic phenomenon that occurs when the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) is shed along with blood and mucus through the vagina. It marks the onset of puberty and fertility in females. Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual period in a woman's life.

Choice C: Sign of breast development is not the correct answer because it is not related to female reproductive development. A sign of breast development is a physical change that occurs during puberty in females. It involves the growth and maturation of the mammary glands, which are responsible for producing milk during lactation. However, it does not indicate the start of menstruation or fertility in females.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 24:

Assessment of a female client reveals a thick, white vaginal discharge. She also reports intense itching and dyspareunia. Based on these findings, the nurse would suspect that the client has:

Explanation

Choice A: Trichomoniasis is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by a parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It can cause symptoms such as yellow-green or gray frothy vaginal discharge, foul odor, itching, burning, or redness of the vulva or vagina.

Choice B: Genital herpes simplex is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Genital herpes simplex is an STI caused by a virus called herpes simplex virus (HSV). It can cause symptoms such as painful blisters or ulcers on or around the genitals, fever, headache, or swollen lymph nodes.

Choice C: Candidiasis is the correct answer because it matches the findings of the client. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by a yeast called Candida albicans. It can cause symptoms such as thick, white, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge, intense itching, burning, or soreness of the vulva or vagina, or dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse).

Choice D: Bacterial vaginosis is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an imbalance of the normal vaginal flora (the bacteria that live in the vagina). It can cause symptoms such as thin, gray-white or yellow vaginal discharge, fishy odor, itching, or burning of the vulva or vagina.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 25:

While obtaining a health history from a male adolescent during a well check-up, the nurse assesses his sexual behavior and risk for sexually transmitted infections. Based on the information, the nurse plans to teach the adolescent about using a condom. What statement would the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Explanation

Choice A: "Store your condoms in your wallet so they are ready for use." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Storing condoms in a wallet can damage them by exposing them to heat, friction, or puncture. Damaged condoms can break or leak during sexual activity and increase the risk of STIs or pregnancy.

Choice B: "Use petroleum jelly with a latex condom for extra lubrication." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Using petroleum jelly or any oil-based lubricant with a latex condom can weaken the latex material and cause it to break or slip off. Only water-based or silicone-based lubricants should be used with latex condoms.

Choice C: "Put the condom on before engaging in any genital contact." This statement is correct and should be included in the teaching plan. Putting the condom on before engaging in any genital contact can prevent the transmission of STIs or pregnancy by avoiding contact with pre-ejaculate fluid, semen, or vaginal fluid.

Choice D: "You can reuse a condom if it's within 3 hours." This statement is not correct and should not be included in the teaching plan. Reusing a condom can increase the risk of STIs or pregnancy by exposing the partner to residual fluid, bacteria, or sperm. A new condom should be used for each sexual act.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 54 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Sign Up Now
learning