Ati med surg nursing 300 day exam
Total Questions : 57
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is teaching a health promotion class about preventing cancer. Which statement by a client indicates understanding of gastric cancer risk factors?
Explanation
A. Switching from regular to decaffeinated coffee does not significantly impact gastric cancer risk. The main dietary risk factors include high intake of salted, smoked, and processed foods, not caffeine consumption.
B. Consuming large amounts of salted, smoked, and processed foods has been shown to increase the risk of gastric cancer. These foods contain nitrates and nitrites, which can be converted into cancer-causing compounds in the stomach.
C. High-fiber diets are generally protective against gastrointestinal cancers, including gastric cancer, rather than increasing the risk. A reduction in fiber intake could contribute to other gastrointestinal problems.
D. Lactose intolerance is not a known risk factor for gastric cancer. Regular testing for gastric cancer is not necessary for people who are lactose-intolerant unless they have additional risk factors, such as a family history of gastric cancer.
The nurse is educating adolescent high school students about when to seek medical attention regarding suspected cancerous skin lesions. Which of the following are included in the nurse's teaching? The lesion has:
Explanation
A. An irregular border is a key characteristic of potentially cancerous skin lesions, particularly melanoma. Melanomas often have uneven, poorly defined edges.
B. Asymmetry is another sign of melanoma. If one half of a lesion does not match the other in shape or size, it should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.
C. Any lesion that has been increasing in size, particularly over a short period, is a concern and should be checked. Rapid growth can be a sign of malignancy.
D. A lesion with a diameter of less than 4 mm is generally less concerning, as most cancerous lesions are larger. However, the other factors (such as asymmetry and border irregularity) are more significant for diagnosis.
E. Ecchymosis (bruising) is not typically associated with cancerous skin lesions. Skin cancers like melanoma present as new or changing moles, not bruising.
The client recovering from an esophagogastrectomy is preparing for discharge. What instructions should be included in the dietary teaching for this client?
Explanation
A. High-protein foods are not typically irritating after an esophagogastrectomy and are essential for healing and maintaining nutritional status. Clients should be encouraged to eat balanced meals with adequate protein.
B. Clients recovering from an esophagogastrectomy should avoid snacking between meals to prevent dumping syndrome, a common complication where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine. Instead, small, frequent meals should be consumed.
C. While pureed foods may be part of the immediate post-operative diet, the long-term goal is to gradually reintroduce solid foods, following the physician's dietary recommendations. A pureed diet is not necessarily required long-term.
D. Lying flat after meals increases the risk of reflux, which can be particularly harmful to clients recovering from esophageal surgery. Clients should be advised to stay upright after eating to aid digestion and prevent reflux.
The nurse prepares to assess the patient's cranial nerves. Which tool is necessary to assess cranial nerve (CN) III (oculomotor)?
Explanation
A. An otoscope is used to examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane, not to assess cranial nerve III. This tool is more relevant for assessing cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear), which is responsible for hearing and balance.
B. A penlight is used to assess CN III (oculomotor) by evaluating the pupil's response to light and the ability to move the eye. This nerve controls most of the eye's movements, including constriction of the pupil in response to light.
C. A cotton ball is used to test the sensory function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal), which is responsible for facial sensation. It is not used for assessing CN III.
D. Lavender or other scents may be used to test CN I (olfactory), responsible for the sense of smell, but it is not related to CN III, which governs eye movements and pupil reactions.
. The nurse is caring for a client in the immediate postoperative period following a pancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple) procedure. The nurse is assessing for decreased fluid volume in the client. What would the nurse assess first?
Explanation
A. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and NG tube output provide important information about gastrointestinal function and the potential for complications like ileus or obstruction. However, they do not provide direct information regarding fluid volume status.
B. Vital signs (including blood pressure and heart rate), cardiac rhythm, and peripheral pulses are the first indicators to assess for decreased fluid volume. Hypovolemia often manifests as tachycardia, hypotension, and weak peripheral pulses, which are critical early signs of fluid depletion.
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and daily weight are useful in assessing kidney function and long-term fluid status, but they may not be as immediate indicators of acute fluid volume changes in the immediate postoperative period.
D. Respiratory rate, depth, and pulse oximetry are important for assessing respiratory function and oxygenation. While fluid volume imbalances can impact respiratory function, these parameters are not the most direct indicators of fluid volume status.
The nurse is caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. Which medication to treat the patient's pain would the nurse question?
Explanation
A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia. It works by stabilizing nerve activity and is appropriate for this condition.
B. Carbamazepine is considered the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia as it decreases nerve impulses, which helps reduce pain. It is a commonly prescribed medication for this condition.
C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and can be used in combination with anticonvulsants to treat trigeminal neuralgia by reducing muscle spasms associated with nerve irritation.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that treats general pain but is not typically effective for the specific type of neuropathic pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia. Opioids do not address the underlying nerve activity and are not recommended for long-term management of this condition.
In planning teaching sessions for a client undergoing photodynamic therapy for lung cancer, the nurse should include which statement?
Explanation
A. Reading glasses do not offer sufficient protection against the light sensitivity that results from photodynamic therapy. Special protective eyewear is needed to protect the eyes from exposure to bright light during recovery.
B. Clients are usually instructed to fast before treatments that involve anesthesia or sedation, such as photodynamic therapy. Eating a full breakfast is not typically recommended before this type of treatment.
C. After photodynamic therapy, clients become extremely sensitive to light, including sunlight. Exposure to sunlight or strong indoor lights can cause skin damage, so clients are advised to avoid sun exposure for at least 6 weeks.
D. Skin markings made for treatment guidance should be preserved between treatments, but this is less critical in photodynamic therapy compared to radiation therapy, where precise location is essential for targeting tumors.
The nurse is performing discharge planning for a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. It would be most important for the plan to include:
Explanation
A. While using the correct needle size is important for insulin administration, it is not the most critical aspect of discharge planning. The focus should be on managing blood glucose levels and recognizing when medical intervention is needed.
B. Monitoring the skin for dryness at the injection site is a good practice, but it is not the most urgent issue to address in discharge planning for a newly diagnosed diabetic client.
C. Consistently elevated blood glucose levels above 200 mg/dL may indicate poor control of diabetes and require prompt adjustments in treatment. Teaching the client to recognize and report hyperglycemia is essential to prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
D. Eye exams are important for long-term diabetes management to monitor for diabetic retinopathy, but every 3 months is excessive. Annual eye exams are typically sufficient unless otherwise indicated by the healthcare provider.
A jaundiced client has just been diagnosed with stage IV pancreatic cancer. The nurse anticipates the client will display which clinical manifestation?
Explanation
A. Stage IV pancreatic cancer often leads to bile duct obstruction, causing decreased bile flow into the intestines. This results in clay-colored stools due to the absence of bile pigments.
B. Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is not a common symptom of pancreatic cancer, even in advanced stages. It is more associated with conditions affecting the urinary system.
C. Jaundice causes dark, concentrated urine rather than pale, dilute urine due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream, which is excreted through the kidneys.
D. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is a common manifestation in clients with advanced pancreatic cancer due to malabsorption and cachexia.
The nurse determines through neurologic testing that a patient has sensory and motor impairment of bilateral lower extremities. The most important reason to assess for this in the client is to:
Explanation
A. Contributing to the medical diagnosis is a secondary goal for nursing care. The nurse's primary role is to ensure patient safety and prevent complications such as falls, which are more likely in patients with sensory and motor impairments.
B. While establishing a baseline for future comparison is important, it is not the most immediate concern. The nurse's priority is preventing falls and injury related to the impairment.
C. The priority in this case is to protect the client from falls or injury, as impaired motor and sensory function in the lower extremities increases the risk for accidents. Preventing injury will guide the development of the care plan, such as implementing fall precautions.
D. Anticipating other neurologic deficits is valuable but not the most urgent concern compared to protecting the client from the immediate risk of falls.
A client receives chemotherapy with an agent that causes thrombocytopenia. Which intervention is most important to teach the client?
Explanation
A. While a diet of soft foods and liquid protein may be beneficial for a client undergoing chemotherapy, it is not the most critical intervention related to thrombocytopenia. Nutritional needs can be managed but do not address the immediate risk of bleeding or injury.
B. Teaching safety in the home to reduce injury and falls is the most important intervention. Clients with thrombocytopenia have a significantly increased risk of bleeding and bruising, making it essential to prevent falls and injuries that could lead to serious complications.
C. Spacing activities throughout the day can help manage fatigue, but it is not as urgent as ensuring the client is safe from injuries related to low platelet counts.
D. Frequent hand hygiene is important to prevent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients, but it does not directly address the primary concern of preventing injuries related to thrombocytopenia.
The nurse is caring for a client post-operatively following an open (incisional) cholecystectomy. Which would be the priority nursing intervention for this client?
Explanation
A. While administering a narcotic analgesic may be necessary for pain management, it does not address the immediate post-operative needs related to respiratory function and mobility.
B. Encouraging a low-fat diet is important after a cholecystectomy, but this can be addressed after ensuring the client's respiratory function and mobilization are stable.
C. Encouraging the use of the incentive spirometer is the priority intervention as it promotes lung expansion, reduces the risk of atelectasis, and improves oxygenation, which is crucial in the post-operative period.
D. While ambulating the client is important for recovery and preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis, it should follow ensuring that the patient is able to effectively use the incentive spirometer to maintain respiratory function first.
The nurse is caring for a client who had a bowel resection 2 hours ago for adenocarcinoma removal. It would be necessary for the nurse to immediately notify the surgeon if the client's assessment revealed:
Explanation
A. The absence of bowel sounds shortly after surgery is not uncommon, especially within the first few hours, and does not necessarily indicate a complication at this time.
B. An SPO2 of 90% while the client is asleep may warrant attention, but it is not as critical as signs of a potential surgical complication. The nurse should assess the patient's respiratory status and consider interventions, but immediate notification to the surgeon is not required.
C. Increasing abdominal distention is a concerning sign that may indicate complications such as an anastomotic leak or bowel obstruction, which requires immediate evaluation and possible intervention by the surgeon.
D. A small amount of green-tinged fluid from the nasogastric tube is generally expected postoperatively and does not necessarily indicate a problem, thus does not require immediate notification of the surgeon.
The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer understands that the key to effective pain management is: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Explanation
A. Pain control options should be appropriate to the setting because different environments (e.g., home vs. hospital) may require different approaches to pain management, ensuring that the interventions align with the patient's needs and the context.
B. Timely and logical delivery of pain relief interventions is critical for effective pain management. Delays in treatment can lead to unnecessary suffering and complicate the overall management of the patient's condition.
C. Asking about pain only once a shift is insufficient for effective pain management. Pain can fluctuate frequently, especially in a client with cancer, so regular assessment is essential to address pain promptly.
D. Believing that pain is what the client reports it to be is fundamental to effective pain management. Pain is subjective, and clients' experiences and expressions of pain should be taken seriously to guide appropriate interventions.
E. A team approach is often the most effective for pain management, as it allows for a comprehensive plan that integrates multiple perspectives and disciplines, including nursing, medical, and possibly palliative care professionals, ensuring a holistic approach to managing pain.
The nurse is admitting a client who reports symptoms of dyspnea. The nurse notes edema of the upper arms, face, and neck. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
Explanation
A. Assessing the degree of upper body vasculature may provide some information, but it does not directly address the client's current symptoms or vital status.
B. Measuring arm circumference and evaluating the degree of edema are important for understanding the extent of swelling but do not assess the client’s hemodynamic stability or respiratory status.
C. Blood pressure and heart rate are critical assessments in this scenario, especially considering the client’s dyspnea and upper body edema. Changes in these vital signs can indicate potential respiratory distress, compromised cardiac function, or anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention.
D. While assessing peripheral sensation and movement is important for overall neurological function, it is not a priority in this context compared to assessing vital signs that can directly affect the client’s stability.
The nurse is caring for a client who had a bowel resection 2 hours ago for adenocarcinoma removal. It would be necessary for the nurse to immediately notify the surgeon if the client's assessment revealed:
Explanation
A. The absence of bowel sounds shortly after surgery is a common finding and does not necessarily indicate a complication at this time; it is expected during the initial postoperative period.
B. An SPO2 of 90% while the client is asleep is concerning, but it does not take precedence over signs of possible surgical complications that could require immediate intervention.
C. Increasing abdominal distention is a critical sign that could indicate serious complications such as an anastomotic leak, bowel obstruction, or intra-abdominal bleeding, and it requires immediate notification of the surgeon for further evaluation and potential intervention.
D. A small amount of green-tinged fluid from the nasogastric tube is typical postoperatively and does not necessitate immediate notification to the surgeon unless the volume is excessive or other concerning signs are present.
The client is hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial action by the nurse is to:
Explanation
A. Picking up the implant with gloved hands does not ensure safety and proper handling of a radioactive material, as gloves do not provide adequate protection against radiation exposure.
B. Using long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and placing it in a lead container is the correct action, as it minimizes radiation exposure to the nurse and ensures the safe containment of the radioactive source.
C. Calling for the rapid response team is unnecessary in this scenario; the situation requires immediate containment of the radioactive material rather than emergency medical intervention.
D. Calling the radiation oncologist is not the first action; while it is important to inform the physician afterward, the priority is to secure the radioactive implant properly to prevent exposure.
The nurse notes serosanguinous drainage from the nasogastric tube in the immediate postoperative period of a client who had a gastrectomy for gastric cancer. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Explanation
A. Measuring abdominal girth may be relevant for assessing potential complications like abdominal distention, but it is not the immediate priority in response to serosanguinous drainage from the nasogastric tube.
B. Continuing to monitor the drainage is appropriate, as serosanguinous fluid is common immediately after surgery and may gradually change as healing progresses. Monitoring allows for the identification of any changes that may require further intervention.
C. Notifying the physician may be necessary if the drainage increases or changes significantly, but immediate action is to observe and assess the drainage trend.
D. Irrigating the nasogastric tube is not warranted unless there is an obstruction or significant change in the drainage; it should only be done based on specific orders or protocols.
The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client newly diagnosed with lung cancer. The nurse understands the client requires additional discharge teaching when the client states:
Explanation
A. This statement indicates the client is aware of the importance of quitting smoking and is taking steps to do so, which is a positive action in managing their health after a lung cancer diagnosis.
B. Contacting the American Cancer Society shows the client and their family are seeking support, which is beneficial for coping with cancer, indicating good understanding of available resources.
C. Allowing others to smoke in the house poses significant health risks due to secondhand smoke exposure, which can aggravate the client's condition and hinder recovery. This indicates a lack of understanding regarding the dangers of smoking and the need for a smoke-free environment.
D. Spending quality time with family is a positive coping mechanism and reflects the client’s recognition of the importance of emotional support during their treatment journey.
The nurse is presenting information to the public regarding steps to decrease the risk for cancer development. The nurse includes which information as a form of primary prevention?
Explanation
A. The HPV vaccination is a form of primary prevention as it aims to prevent the initial occurrence of cervical cancer by protecting against the human papillomavirus, which is a major risk factor for this cancer.
B. BRCA1 and BRCA2 testing is a form of genetic testing used for risk assessment rather than prevention; it helps identify individuals at high risk for breast and ovarian cancers but does not prevent cancer itself.
C. Annual mammograms are a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection of breast cancer rather than preventing the disease from occurring, as they help identify cancer in its early stages.
D. Rehabilitation exercises post-chemotherapy are supportive measures for patients undergoing treatment; they do not constitute primary prevention, which focuses on measures taken before cancer develops.
A client has numerous skin lesions. Which one will the nurse evaluate first?
Explanation
A. A large cluster of pustules may indicate an infection or inflammatory process, but it is not necessarily indicative of an immediate danger compared to other options.
B. Raised, tubular, white areas may represent benign conditions, such as skin tags or cysts, which generally do not require urgent evaluation unless symptomatic.
C. Beige, small brown spots are often benign, such as liver spots or freckles; these typically do not signal immediate concern unless there are changes in size or color.
D. An irregular shaped, blue mole with white specks raises significant concern for potential melanoma, a serious form of skin cancer; any atypical characteristics in moles warrant immediate evaluation to rule out malignancy.
The nurse knows the rationale for combination chemotherapy is to:
Explanation
A. While limiting emesis is important in cancer treatment, combination chemotherapy primarily focuses on improving efficacy and minimizing toxicities, not specifically targeting nausea and vomiting episodes.
B. Combination chemotherapy can actually increase the risk of neutropenia due to the cumulative effects of multiple agents, as each may independently lower white blood cell counts.
C. Decreasing time intervals between remission is not a primary goal of combination chemotherapy; rather, it aims to achieve better overall treatment outcomes.
D. The main rationale for using combination chemotherapy is to broaden the range of cancer cell kill through different mechanisms of action while minimizing the side effects associated with higher doses of a single agent. This approach can improve treatment efficacy and reduce the likelihood of resistance.
The nurse is caring for a client who will undergo a cerebral biopsy for a brain tumor. The client's pre-operative teaching should include:
Explanation
A. Continuing antiepileptic drugs is crucial in patients with brain tumors, as these medications help prevent seizure activity, which is a common complication associated with brain tumors and surgical procedures.
B. While pain control is important, the specific medications used for postoperative pain management are determined after surgery; patients should be informed about general pain management strategies rather than specific drug administration.
C. Aspirin, an anticoagulant, should typically be stopped before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding complications; therefore, patients should not continue taking it unless specifically directed by their healthcare provider.
D. Patients are usually advised to discontinue alternative or complementary therapies before surgery due to potential interactions with anesthesia or surgical procedures, and it should be clarified with the healthcare provider before proceeding.
The nurse educates a community group regarding measures that will assist in the prevention of skin cancer. Which of the following statements addresses the need for further teaching? "I will:
Explanation
A. Using sunscreen while playing sports is an important measure to protect the skin from harmful UV radiation, which contributes to skin cancer; therefore, this statement indicates proper understanding.
B. Monthly self-examinations for suspicious lesions are recommended as part of early detection strategies for skin cancer, demonstrating a proactive approach to skin health.
C. Decreasing the use of a tanning bed to twice a month still poses a significant risk for skin damage and cancer, as tanning beds expose the skin to high levels of UV radiation. This statement indicates a lack of understanding of the dangers associated with artificial tanning.
D. Wearing a hat and sunglasses while in the sun is an effective strategy for minimizing sun exposure to sensitive areas, protecting the skin and eyes from UV rays, indicating proper sun safety practices.
The patient presents with a complaint of "always dropping things and falling down." During the neurologic assessment, the nurse observes that the patient's display of rapid alternating movements is slow and misses often. The patient also loses balance during the Romberg Test. What neurologic problem would the nurse suspect?
Explanation
A. A lesion of cranial nerve IX primarily affects swallowing and taste sensations rather than motor coordination or balance, so this is unlikely to explain the patient's symptoms.
B. Vestibular disease typically results in vertigo and balance issues, but the specific observations of slow alternating movements and loss of balance during the Romberg Test suggest a different underlying cause.
C. Dysfunction of the cerebellum would explain the patient's difficulties with rapid alternating movements and balance issues, as the cerebellum is responsible for coordinating motor activity and maintaining posture and balance. This aligns with the assessment findings, indicating a probable cerebellar dysfunction.
D. While an AVM in the frontal lobe could affect motor control, the specific symptoms presented, such as the inability to perform rapid movements and balance issues, are more characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction rather than a frontal lobe lesion.
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