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ATI Medical Surgery Exam Custom GI

Total Questions : 42

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Question 1:

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of gastroesophageal disease (GERD). Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the list of foods the client should avoid?

Explanation

A. Oatmeal: Oatmeal is often considered a bland and low-acid food that can be soothing for individuals with GERD. It's generally not a trigger for GERD symptoms and can be included in the diet of someone with this condition.

B. Non-fat milk: Non-fat milk and other low-fat dairy products are often recommended for individuals with GERD. However, individual tolerance varies, and some people might find that milk triggers their symptoms. It's best for the patient to monitor their own reactions to dairy products.

C. Chocolate: Chocolate is known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. For many people with GERD, chocolate can exacerbate symptoms and is typically advised to be avoided.

D. Apples: Apples are generally considered a safe and healthy food for individuals with GERD. However, some people may find that raw apples trigger their symptoms due to their natural acidity. Cooking or baking apples can often make them more tolerable for people with GERD.


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Question 2:

A nurse is assisting in the plan of care for a client who had surgery for a bowel obstruction. The client has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Perform leg exercises every 2 hr: Performing leg exercises every 2 hours is essential for preventing blood clots and maintaining circulation in immobile patients. This is especially important after surgery to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis.

B. Irrigate the nasogastric tube every 4 to 8 hr: Irrigating the nasogastric tube is not a standard nursing practice and should not be done without a physician's order. The nasogastric tube is typically used for decompression, drainage, or feeding. If the tube becomes clogged or there are concerns about drainage, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider for further instructions.

C. Maintain bed rest for 48 hr following surgery: While some bed rest might be necessary immediately after surgery, the goal is to encourage mobility as soon as possible to prevent complications such as atelectasis and deep vein thrombosis. Patients are usually encouraged to mobilize as soon as they are medically stable, often within hours after surgery.

D. Encourage hourly use of an incentive spirometer while awake: Using an incentive spirometer helps prevent atelectasis and promotes lung expansion after surgery. Encouraging the patient to use the incentive spirometer hourly while awake is a common nursing intervention to maintain respiratory function postoperatively.

E. Document the color, consistency, and amount of nasogastric drainage: Documenting the color, consistency, and amount of nasogastric drainage is crucial for monitoring the patient's condition. Changes in these factors could indicate bleeding, infection, or other complications, and timely documentation helps healthcare providers assess the patient's status and make appropriate interventions.


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Question 3:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis. Which of the following findings is expected for this condition?

Explanation

A. Ecchymosis of the extremities: Ecchymosis refers to the medical term for a bruise. It's characterized by a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by trauma to the blood vessels. This is not directly related to cholelithiasis.

B. Tenderness in the left upper abdomen: Tenderness in the left upper abdomen might be associated with conditions such as pancreatitis or splenic issues, not directly with obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis.

C. Straw-colored urine: Straw-colored urine is normal and healthy. Dark-colored or cloudy urine might indicate underlying issues, but straw-colored urine is generally a sign of proper hydration.

D. Fatty stools: When the common bile duct is obstructed due to cholelithiasis, proper digestion of fats doesn't occur, leading to the passage of fatty stools. This is due to the inability to properly digest and absorb fats, leading to their presence in the stool.


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Question 4:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has acute gastroenteritis. Which of the following data collection findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

Explanation

A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL:
This blood glucose level is slightly elevated but not significantly concerning on its own. It may be related to stress or other factors. In the context of acute gastroenteritis, it might be secondary to dehydration, but it is not an immediate priority unless the client is diabetic.

B. Potassium 2.5 mEq/L:
This is the correct answer. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) are a severe concern, especially in the context of acute gastroenteritis where there can be significant losses through vomiting and diarrhea. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and needs urgent correction.

C. Weight loss of 3% of total body weight:
While weight loss is an important parameter, a 3% weight loss is usually not an immediate concern. In cases of acute gastroenteritis, rapid weight loss might indicate severe dehydration, but this choice is not as urgent as addressing a severe electrolyte imbalance like hypokalemia.

D. Urine specific gravity 1.035:
This specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, which could be due to dehydration. While this finding is important and indicates the need for rehydration, it is not as urgent as correcting a critically low potassium level.


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Question 5:

A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. The client had one 8-oz cup of coffee, 3 oz of juice, and 12 oz of soda. The client's water pitcher had 300 ml and 200 ml remains. The client also had IV fluids infusing as 40 mL/hr via an infusion pump. How many ml should the nurse document as the client's total Intake for the shift?

Explanation

8-oz cup of coffee = 8 oz (since 1 fluid ounce is approximately 30 ml, this is roughly 240 ml).

3 oz of juice = 3 oz (approximately 90 ml).

12 oz of soda = 12 oz (approximately 360 ml).

Water pitcher had 300 ml, and 200 ml remains, so the client consumed 300 ml - 200 ml = 100 ml of water.

IV fluids infusing at 40 mL/hr for 8 hours = 40 ml/hr * 8 hr = 320 ml.

Now, sum up these values:

240 ml (coffee) + 90 ml (juice) + 360 ml (soda) + 100 ml (water) + 320 ml (IV fluids) = 1,110 ml
So, the nurse should document the client's total intake for the shift as 1,110 ml.


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Question 6:

A nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia and has manifestations of malnutrition. When reviewing the client's laboratory values. which of the following test results should the nurse expect to be low?

Explanation

A. Troponin:
Troponin is a protein found in the heart muscle. Elevated levels of troponin in the blood indicate damage to the heart, often due to a heart attack or other cardiac issues. This marker is crucial in diagnosing heart-related problems.

B. Albumin:
Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is essential for maintaining blood volume and regulating fluid balance. It also helps transport various substances in the blood. Low levels of albumin are indicative of malnutrition, liver disease, or kidney disorders.

C. D-dimer:
D-dimer is a substance in the blood that is released when a blood clot breaks up. Elevated levels of D-dimer can indicate the presence of an abnormal blood clot, but it is not specific to malnutrition. It is often used in diagnosing conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE).

D. Creatinine:
Creatinine is a waste product produced by the muscles and excreted by the kidneys. Creatinine levels in the blood can indicate how well the kidneys are functioning. Elevated levels can suggest kidney damage or other kidney-related issues but are not directly related to malnutrition.


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Question 7:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about dietary recommendations for a client who has a hiatal hernia. Which of the following client statements indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

A. "I will consume less caffeine and spicy foods":
Spicy foods and caffeine can irritate the esophagus, exacerbating symptoms of hiatal hernia. Avoiding these can help in managing symptoms.

B. "I will sleep with the head of my bed elevated”:
Keeping the head elevated can prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, reducing symptoms like heartburn. This is a helpful strategy for managing hiatal hernia.

C. "I will lie down for one half hour after meals”:
Lying down after meals can worsen symptoms because gravity can't help keep stomach acid in the stomach. Staying upright after eating helps prevent acid reflux.

D. "I will drink less fluid":
Drinking less fluid, especially during meals, can help prevent overfilling the stomach, reducing pressure on the hernia. This can be beneficial in managing hiatal hernia symptoms.

E. "I will try not to gain weight”:
Maintaining a healthy weight is important. Excess weight can increase pressure on the abdomen, potentially worsening hiatal hernia symptoms.


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Question 8:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN): glucose 72 mg/dL, chloride 100 mEq/L sodium 138 mEq/L, and potassium 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Explanation

A. Check the client for a positive Chvostek’s sign:
Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia, not related to the given laboratory values. The symptoms include facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve (VII) is tapped. There's no indication for this assessment based on the provided information.

B. Discontinue the TPN infusion:
The glucose level is within the normal range (70-99 mg/dL). Discontinuing TPN based solely on this glucose level is not warranted.

C. Request a potassium replacement:
The potassium level is low (normal range typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Given the low potassium level, the nurse should plan to request a potassium replacement. Potassium is crucial for various physiological functions, and a deficiency can lead to significant complications.

D. Administer glucagon IM:
Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia, but the client's glucose level is within the normal range, so administering glucagon is not indicated.


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Question 9:

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who has a gastric ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori. The nurse should anticipate that in addition to cimetidine and sucralfate, the provider will prescribe which of the following?

Explanation

A. Desmopressin:
Desmopressin is used to treat conditions like diabetes insipidus and bedwetting (enuresis) but is not related to the treatment of gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori.

B. Clarithromycin:
Correct Choice. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic often prescribed in combination with other medications to treat H. pylori infections. It helps eradicate the bacteria from the stomach, playing a crucial role in the treatment of gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori.

C. Mexiletine:
Mexiletine is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. It is not indicated in the treatment of gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori.

D. Filgrastim:
Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells in the body. It is not used in the treatment of gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori.


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Question 10:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a partial bowel resection. The client requires a complete dressing change, total parental nutrition administration, daily weight and is reporting pain at a level of 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse plan to complete first?

Explanation

A. Obtain the client's vital signs:
Vital signs are essential for assessing the client's overall condition and can provide crucial information about the client's stability. However, in this scenario, there's a higher priority nursing action that needs immediate attention.

B. Weigh the client:
Daily weight measurement is important, especially in postoperative patients, to monitor for fluid retention or loss. However, this is not the most urgent action in this situation.

C. Change the client's dressing:
Changing the dressing involves maintaining the surgical site's cleanliness and preventing infections. While this is important, it's not the highest priority in this situation.

D. Administer pain medication:
Correct Choice. Addressing the client's pain is a priority to ensure their comfort and well-being, especially postoperatively. Managing pain effectively is crucial for the client's recovery and can facilitate other necessary activities, such as changing the dressing or weighing the client.


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Question 11:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about lleostomy care with a client. The nurse should recognize which of the following statements by the client Indicates a need for further teaching?

Explanation

A. "I will use caution when eating high fiber foods."
Correct Choice. Clients with ileostomies need to avoid high-fiber foods as they can cause blockages in the stoma. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.

B. "I will empty my pouch when it becomes one third full."
This statement is correct. Regularly emptying the pouch prevents it from becoming too heavy and ensures comfort for the client.

C. "I will be certain to take enteric-coated medications."
This statement is correct. Enteric-coated medications are designed to pass through the stomach and dissolve in the intestines, which is suitable for clients with ileostomies.

D. "I will change my entire pouch system at least weekly."
This statement is correct. Changing the pouch system regularly helps maintain hygiene and prevents skin irritation.


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Question 12:

A nurse is checking a client's bowel sounds. At which of the following times should the nurse auscultate the client's abdomen?

Explanation

A. Prior to percussing the abdomen
Bowel sounds are typically auscultated before performing any other abdominal assessments. This allows the nurse to get an accurate representation of the client's bowel activity without any interference from other assessment techniques.

B. Prior to inspecting the abdomen
Inspecting the abdomen involves observing for any visible abnormalities, such as distension or lesions. Bowel sounds are auscultated first to get an initial sense of the client's gastrointestinal activity.

C. After checking for kidney tenderness
Kidney tenderness assessment is not directly related to bowel sounds. These assessments are separate and do not impact each other's sequence.

D. After palpating the abdomen
Palpating the abdomen should be done after auscultation. Palpation can stimulate bowel activity, potentially altering the natural bowel sounds. Therefore, it is essential to auscultate the abdomen before palpating it.


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Question 13:

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has an NG tube that has drained 2,500 ml. In the past 6 hr. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte Imbalances?

Explanation

A. Decreased potassium level
NG tube drainage can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the loss of gastric fluids, which contain significant amounts of potassium. This choice is correct.

B. Decreased calcium level
Calcium levels are not directly affected by NG tube drainage.

C. Elevated magnesium level
NG tube drainage does not typically lead to elevated magnesium levels.

D. Elevated sodium level
NG tube drainage can result in hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the loss of gastric fluids. Elevated sodium levels are not expected in this situation.


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Question 14:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN): glucose 72 mg/dL, chloride 100 mEq/L. sodium 138 mEq/L, and potassium 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Explanation

A. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), not related to the client's potassium levels. The given potassium level is low, not calcium.

B. Discontinue the TPN infusion.
While the potassium level is low, discontinuing TPN without addressing the potassium deficiency can lead to further complications. TPN can be adjusted to include potassium supplementation.

C. Request a potassium replacement.
The client's low potassium level (3.0 mEq/L) requires potassium replacement. This can be done through the TPN solution or via a separate IV infusion. This choice is correct.

D. Administer glucagon IM.
Glucagon is not used to treat low potassium levels.


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Question 15:

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has alcohol use disorder. The client reports frequent bruising and nosebleeds. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

Explanation

A. Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes mellitus can cause easy bruising and slow wound healing, but it is not typically associated with frequent nosebleeds.

B. Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A primarily affects the liver and does not cause frequent bruising and nosebleeds.

C. Cirrhosis
Cirrhosis, which is scarring of the liver tissue due to long-term liver damage, can lead to impaired liver function. One consequence of cirrhosis is decreased production of clotting factors, which can result in easy bruising. Additionally, the enlarged spleen in cirrhosis can lead to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), contributing to bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Cirrhosis is the most likely condition given the symptoms described.

D. Cholecystitis
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder and is not directly associated with frequent bruising and nosebleeds.


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Question 16:

The nurse is caring for a client who has a bowel obstruction and a new prescription for the insertion of a nasogastric tube. Which of the following Interventions should the nurse take when inserting the nasogastric tube?

Explanation

A. Place the client in a supine position.
Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (sitting upright) is the appropriate position for inserting a nasogastric tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the nasopharynx and into the esophagus and stomach.

B. Withdraw the tube if the client gags during insertion.
Gagging during insertion is a normal response. Advancing the tube slowly and having the client swallow can help pass the tube through the nasopharynx.

C. Measure the tube for insertion from the tip of the nose to the umbilicus.
The correct measurement for insertion is from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process (not the umbilicus).

D. Instruct the client to place his chin to his chest and swallow.
This instruction is appropriate. Asking the client to flex their head slightly forward and swallow helps guide the tube into the esophagus.


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Question 17:

A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a prescription for lactulose. Following administration, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Explanation

A. Headache
Headache is not a common side effect of lactulose.

B. Diarrhea
Lactulose is a laxative often prescribed for patients with cirrhosis to prevent or treat hepatic encephalopathy. Its primary side effect is diarrhea, which helps remove excess ammonia from the body, a substance that can exacerbate encephalopathy in patients with liver disease.


C. Peripheral edema
Peripheral edema is not a typical side effect of lactulose.

D. Dry mouth
Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of lactulose.


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Question 18:

A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who has anemia and has been taking ferrous gluconate for several weeks. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Explanation

A. Take this medication between meals.
Iron supplements like ferrous gluconate are absorbed better on an empty stomach. Taking them between meals or one hour before meals, with a glass of orange juice (which contains vitamin C and enhances iron absorption), helps improve absorption.

B. Limit intake of Vitamin C while taking this medication.
This is incorrect. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption and is often recommended to be taken with iron supplements.

C. Take this medication with milk.
Taking iron supplements with milk is not recommended because calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption.

D. Limit intake of whole grains while taking this medication.
Whole grains contain phytates, which can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, it's a good idea to avoid consuming large amounts of whole grains with iron supplements.


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Question 19:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of gastrointestinal perforation?

Explanation

A. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is not a direct symptom of gastrointestinal perforation. When a perforation occurs, the body's response is often to increase the heart rate (tachycardia) due to the stress and shock.

B. Report of epigastric fullness
Epigastric fullness might be a symptom of peptic ulcer disease but is not specific to gastrointestinal perforation.

C. Severe upper abdominal pain
Correct choice. Severe upper abdominal pain, particularly sudden and intense pain, can be indicative of gastrointestinal perforation. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention.

D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Gastrointestinal perforation can lead to absent or hypoactive bowel sounds due to inflammation and irritation of the abdominal cavity, not hyperactive bowel sounds.


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Question 20:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has diverticular disease. The nurse should expect the client to report abdominal pain in which of the following locations?

Explanation

A. Upper left quadrant: Pain in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen can be associated with issues related to the spleen, stomach, or parts of the colon. It's not a typical location for pain related to diverticular disease.

B. Upper right quadrant: Pain in the upper right quadrant is often associated with issues related to the liver, gallbladder, or part of the colon. Again, not a typical location for diverticular disease-related pain.

C. Lower left quadrant: This is the correct answer. Diverticular disease often causes pain in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen, particularly if the inflammation or infection is in the sigmoid colon, which is a common site for diverticula.

D. Lower right quadrant: Pain in the lower right quadrant can be related to issues with the appendix or parts of the colon. It's not a typical location for diverticular disease-related pain.


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Question 21:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 12 hr postoperative following a colectomy with colostomy placement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

A. Slight bleeding of the stoma site: This is typically normal in the immediate postoperative period. It's caused by surgical trauma and should improve with time. However, if it becomes excessive, it should be reported.

B. Purplish colored stoma: A purplish or bluish color of the stoma can be an indication of inadequate blood supply (ischemia). This is a concerning finding and should be reported promptly to the provider.

C. No stool noted in the collection bag: It's normal not to have stool in the collection bag immediately after surgery since the digestive system needs time to resume normal function. This is usually not a concern within the first 12 hours postoperatively. However, if it continues beyond this time frame, it should be reported.

D. Edematous stoma: Some edema or swelling around the stoma site can be normal initially after surgery. However, if the stoma becomes significantly edematous or starts to compromise blood flow, this should be reported to the provider.


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Question 22:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching a client who is scheduled for a barium swallow to evaluate dysphagia. Which of the following statements Indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

Explanation

A. "I will expect a warm feeling when the dye is injected."
This statement is incorrect. Barium swallow involves swallowing a contrast medium, not an injection. The warm feeling might be associated with injected substances but not with a barium swallow.

B. "I will drink plenty of fluids after the test."
This statement is correct. After a barium swallow, it's important to drink plenty of fluids to help clear the barium from the body and prevent constipation.

C. "I will maintain a clear liquid diet 24 hours before the test."
This statement is incorrect. A clear liquid diet might be recommended before certain medical procedures, but for a barium swallow, often patients are asked to avoid eating or drinking for a few hours before the test.

D. "I will expect my stool to be black after this procedure."
This statement is correct. Barium can cause stools to appear white or light-colored for several days after the procedure. This is a common and expected side effect


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Question 23:

A nurse is planning to collect data about the abdomen of a client who reports "stomach pain". Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

A. Percuss:
Percussion involves tapping the abdomen with the fingers to assess for areas of dullness or resonance. Dullness might indicate organ enlargement or mass, while resonance is the typical sound over air-filled structures. This step helps identify the borders and size of organs.

B. Auscultate:
Auscultation involves listening to the abdomen using a stethoscope. The nurse listens for bowel sounds, which are the noises made by the movement of the intestines. Absence or abnormal bowel sounds can indicate intestinal obstruction or other gastrointestinal issues.

C. Palpate:
Palpation involves gently pressing the abdomen to assess for tenderness, masses, or areas of discomfort. This step helps identify areas of pain or tenderness, guarding, or rigidity, which might indicate inflammation, infection, or other abdominal issues.

D. Inspect:
Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any visible abnormalities such as scars, distention, pulsations, or visible masses. It's the first step in the abdominal assessment process as it provides initial information about the overall condition of the abdomen before physical contact.


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Question 24:

A nurse is caring for four clients who have drainage tubes. The nurse should identify the client who has which of the following tubes as being at risk for hypokalemia?

Explanation

A. A nephrostomy tube to a drainage bag:
A nephrostomy tube drains urine from the kidney to a drainage bag. While it's essential for urinary drainage, it doesn't lead to significant potassium loss, as potassium is primarily excreted through the urine.

B. An NG tube to suction:
An NG tube (Nasogastric tube) is inserted through the nose into the stomach. When connected to suction, it can remove stomach contents, including gastric acid and potassium. Excessive suctioning can lead to significant potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia.

C. An indwelling urinary catheter to gravity drainage:
An indwelling urinary catheter drains urine from the bladder into a drainage bag by gravity. While potassium can be found in urine, the drainage through a catheter does not cause significant potassium loss unless there are underlying kidney issues, which are not specified in this scenario.

D. A chest tube to water-seal drainage:
A chest tube removes air or fluid from the pleural space around the lungs. While chest tubes are vital for lung expansion, they don't result in significant potassium loss as they are not connected to body fluids rich in potassium, like gastric acid or urine.


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Question 25:

A nurse is caring for a client who receives intermittent enteral feedings through an NG tube. Before administering a feeding, the nurse should measure the gastric residual for which of the following purposes?

Explanation

A. To remove gastric acid that might cause dyspepsia:
This statement is not accurate. Measuring gastric residuals is not done to remove gastric acid but rather to ensure that the previous feeding has been digested and moved into the intestines before the next feeding is administered.

B. To identify delayed gastric emptying:
While it's true that measuring gastric residuals can indicate delayed gastric emptying if there's a significant amount of residual feeding, the primary purpose is to confirm the placement of the NG tube. Delayed gastric emptying might be a secondary concern that can be inferred from the measurement but is not the primary reason for checking residuals.

C. To determine the client's electrolyte balance:
Measuring gastric residuals is not used to assess the client's overall electrolyte balance. Electrolyte balance is typically assessed through blood tests and clinical evaluations, not by checking gastric residuals.

D. To confirm the placement of the NG tube:
This is the correct answer. Measuring gastric residuals is a standard procedure to ensure the NG tube is correctly placed in the stomach and not the lungs. If there's a significant amount of residual feeding, it indicates that the previous feeding has not moved into the intestines, suggesting that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. This helps prevent aspiration pneumonia, which can occur if feedings are accidentally administered into the lungs.


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