ATI nsg 234 med surg exam Neurologyendocrine and sensory
Total Questions : 45
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has primary hypothyroidism. The nurse should anticipate an elevation of which of the following laboratory values?
Explanation
A. Serum thyroxine (T4) is typically decreased in primary hypothyroidism due to reduced thyroid hormone production.
B. In primary hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland fails to produce sufficient hormones, which leads to an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate thyroid function. Elevated TSH is a common finding in primary hypothyroidism.
C. Serum T3 is usually decreased in primary hypothyroidism since the production of T3 and T4 is reduced.
D. Free T4 is typically low in primary hypothyroidism as the thyroid gland is underactive and not producing adequate levels of thyroid hormones.
The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a client with mastoiditis. On examination of the tympanic membrane, which finding should the nurse expect to observe?
Explanation
A. Mastoiditis often results in inflammation and infection that extend to the middle ear, causing the tympanic membrane to appear red, dull, thickened, and immobile upon examination.
B. A transparent and clear tympanic membrane is typical in a healthy ear, not in cases of mastoiditis.
C. A pearly colored tympanic membrane is also indicative of a normal, healthy ear without infection.
D. A pink-colored tympanic membrane may suggest mild irritation but is not a characteristic finding of mastoiditis.
A nurse is caring for a client who has elevated parathyroid hormone levels (PTH). The nurse is aware that the client is at high risk for which condition?
Explanation
A. Elevated PTH levels lead to increased calcium reabsorption from bones and enhanced calcium absorption in the kidneys, which can result in hypercalcemia and increase the risk of renal calculi (kidney stones).
B. Irritability and anxiety are not directly associated with high PTH levels. They are more often linked to thyroid hormone imbalances.
C. Frequent diarrhea is not a common symptom of elevated PTH levels; instead, hypercalcemia can lead to constipation.
D. Tetany and muscle pain are more commonly associated with low calcium levels, such as in hypoparathyroidism, not elevated PTH.
A nurse is assisting a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism with meal planning. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend that the client add to the diet?
Explanation
A. Baked fish is rich in iodine, which supports thyroid function and can be beneficial for clients with hypothyroidism. Iodine is necessary for thyroid hormone production.
B. Tuna salad may contain iodine, but it is not as reliable a source as baked fish and may also contain added fats.
C. Bran flakes are high in fiber, which can interfere with the absorption of thyroid medications.
D. Cantaloupe, while nutritious, does not provide significant levels of iodine or nutrients that directly support thyroid function.
A nurse is caring for a client in an induced coma for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What should the nurse assess next to determine this client's cerebral function?
Explanation
A. The Glasgow Coma Scale is useful for assessing consciousness levels but may not be as sensitive for changes in brainstem function in a patient already in an induced coma.
B. Assessing pupillary size and reaction provides critical information on brainstem function and can indicate changes in ICP. Changes in pupil size and reaction can signify worsening cerebral function or brain herniation.
C. Blood pressure and heart rate are vital signs that can suggest increased ICP, but they are not as direct an indicator of cerebral function as pupil assessment.
D. The gag reflex is important but does not provide as direct information about cerebral function related to ICP as pupillary assessment does.
A client is admitted for treatment of the Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). The nurse should initiate which of the following interventions?
Explanation
A. In SIADH, excess ADH causes water retention and hyponatremia; fluid restriction helps to prevent further dilution of sodium and manage fluid balance.
B. NPO status is unnecessary unless otherwise indicated; managing fluid intake is more effective.
C. Increasing oral intake would worsen fluid overload and hyponatremia.
D. Rapid IV fluid infusion can exacerbate the client’s condition by increasing fluid volume further.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Cushing's Syndrome. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's highest priority?
Explanation
A. Clients with Cushing’s Syndrome often experience muscle weakness, osteoporosis, and a risk of fractures due to excess cortisol. Implementing fall precautions is the highest priority to prevent injury.
B. Addressing coping mechanisms is important but not as immediate a safety concern as fall prevention.
C. Avoiding infections is crucial due to immunosuppression from elevated cortisol; however, preventing falls remains a more immediate concern.
D. Encouraging incentive spirometer use may support lung function, but it is not the highest priority compared to preventing falls.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. The nurse assesses for the presence of Chvostek's sign to indicate which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Explanation
A. Chvostek's sign, a facial muscle spasm upon tapping, is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, often caused by accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery.
B. Hypercalcemia does not typically cause a positive Chvostek’s sign.
C. Hypokalemia affects muscle and cardiac function but does not result in a positive Chvostek’s sign.
D. Hyponatremia does not produce Chvostek's sign, which is specific to hypocalcemia.
A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?
Explanation
A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.
B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.
C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.
. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a closed-head injury. Which of the following positioning techniques should the nurse implement?
Explanation
A. The supine position can increase ICP and is not recommended for clients with elevated ICP.
B. Instructing the client to pull themselves up may increase ICP due to straining.
C. Log rolling helps maintain spinal alignment and minimizes abrupt head movement, which is essential in managing ICP.
D. Sitting with legs dangling may cause a sudden shift in intracranial pressure and is not advised for these clients.
A nurse is assessing a client with a history of Addison's disease admitted for surgery. The nurse is aware that which of the following is an expected assessment finding?
Explanation
A. Weight gain is not typical in Addison's disease; instead, weight loss is common.
B. Hyperpigmentation, particularly in sun-exposed areas and skin folds, is a classic symptom of Addison's disease due to elevated ACTH levels.
C. Low blood pressure, not elevated, is common due to decreased cortisol levels.
D. Purple striations are more commonly seen in Cushing's syndrome rather than Addison's disease.
A nurse is discussing discharge instructions to a client with a lumbar herniated disk and is prescribed a conservative treatment. The nurse provides instructions based on this treatment plan and suggests which of the following.
Explanation
A. Reducing body weight can relieve pressure on the lumbar spine, which can help decrease pain and improve function.
B. Avoiding painful positions helps prevent exacerbation of symptoms and protects the affected area.
C. Physical therapy is an important part of conservative treatment to strengthen supporting muscles, improve flexibility, and promote recovery. Chiropractic therapy may be recommended but should be guided by a physician's recommendation.
D. NSAIDs are commonly prescribed to manage inflammation and relieve pain associated with lumbar herniated disks.
E. Corticosteroids may be prescribed in some cases but are generally not part of initial conservative management unless inflammation is severe and not managed by NSAIDs.
A nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is a potential severe complication of hyperthyroidism?
Explanation
A. Profound hypocalcemia is not associated with hyperthyroidism; it is more common in hypoparathyroidism.
B. Thyroid Storm is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism, characterized by high fever, tachycardia, hypertension, and altered mental status. It requires immediate medical intervention to prevent serious outcomes.
C. Diabetes Insipidus is unrelated to hyperthyroidism and typically occurs due to antidiuretic hormone dysfunction.
D. Severe hypotension is not a typical complication of hyperthyroidism; rather, hypertension is more likely due to increased metabolic rate and cardiac output.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client with Meniere's disease. The nurse recognizes that which of the following instructions should be given to the client regarding vertigo?
Explanation
A. While reporting dizziness is important, it does not directly aid in managing vertigo episodes.
B. Instructing the client to get up slowly while turning their entire body helps to reduce vertigo symptoms by minimizing head movement, which can trigger or worsen dizziness in Meniere’s disease.
C. Driving is not recommended during symptomatic periods of vertigo, as it could be unsafe.
D. The logroll technique is typically used for clients with spinal issues rather than vertigo management in Meniere’s disease.
A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pheochromocytoma. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is the priority action?
Explanation
A. Monitoring glucose levels may be necessary, as pheochromocytoma can cause hyperglycemia, but it is not the immediate priority.
B. A CT scan may be part of the diagnostic process to locate the adrenal tumor, but the priority is to control blood pressure first due to the risk of severe hypertensive crisis.
C. Serum calcium levels are not directly related to pheochromocytoma and are not a priority action.
D. Monitoring blood pressure is critical, as pheochromocytoma causes episodes of severe hypertension, which can lead to life-threatening complications.
A nurse is caring for a client with a urine specific gravity of less than 1.005, polyuria, and nocturia. The nurse recognizes that which of the following physiologic findings is the likely cause?
Explanation
A. Increased insulin production would not cause polyuria and low specific gravity urine; rather, hyperglycemia from lack of insulin can cause high specific gravity due to glucose in urine.
B. Increased ACTH affects cortisol production but is not directly related to urine concentration or polyuria.
C. Low T3 and T4 levels are associated with hypothyroidism, which typically does not cause polyuria or decreased specific gravity.
D. Insufficient ADH, as seen in diabetes insipidus, leads to the inability to concentrate urine, resulting in a low specific gravity, polyuria, and nocturia due to excessive water loss.
A nurse is caring for a client who has quadriplegia due to a spinal cord injury and reports having a severe headache. The nurse obtains a blood pressure reading of 210/108 mm Hg and suspects the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. What should the nurse prioritize as the initial action?
Explanation
A. Lowering the client's legs is not effective in managing autonomic dysreflexia and may not alleviate the cause of the high blood pressure.
B. Checking for a full bladder is the priority because bladder distension is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, and relieving it can reduce the severe hypertensive response.
C. Antihypertensives may be used if non-pharmacological measures fail, but addressing the cause is the first action.
D. Pain medication is not indicated as the immediate intervention for autonomic dysreflexia, as the priority is identifying and removing the trigger.
The nurse is providing teaching on the miotic medication the client has been prescribed for glaucoma. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the client?
Explanation
A. Miotic medications work by constricting the pupil, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the drainage of aqueous humor, thus lowering intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma.
B. Miotics do not dilate the pupil; they constrict it. Dilation would actually increase intraocular pressure, which is not therapeutic in glaucoma.
C. While these medications do affect eye muscles, they do not specifically prevent blurred vision; their primary effect is on eye pressure.
D. Miotics do not block nerve responses; they work by direct action on the eye muscles to promote fluid drainage and reduce pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client with signs of acromegaly. The nurse is aware that which class of drugs are used to inhibit the release of anterior pituitary hormones?
Explanation
A. Hormone replacement is generally used to supplement deficiencies rather than inhibit excess hormone release.
B. Dopamine agonists, such as bromocriptine, are used to inhibit the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary, which is beneficial in treating acromegaly, a condition caused by excess growth hormone.
C. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement and is not effective in controlling pituitary hormone release.
D. Corticosteroids do not inhibit growth hormone release and are typically used to manage inflammation rather than for pituitary hormone control.
A nurse is performing a tonometry test on a client with a suspected diagnosis of glaucoma. The nurse looks at the documented test results and notes an intraocular pressure (IOP) value of 23 mm Hg. What should the nurse's initial action be?
Explanation
A. While noting the time of day is important for documentation, it does not address the immediate concern of elevated intraocular pressure (IOP).
B. Applying normal saline drops is not indicated in the immediate management of elevated IOP in glaucoma; it does not directly affect IOP levels.
C. Instructing the client to sleep with the head of the bed flat is not advisable, as elevated head positions may help decrease IOP.
D. An IOP of 23 mm Hg is above the normal range (10-21 mm Hg) and indicates potential glaucoma. Therefore, contacting the primary health care provider for further evaluation and treatment is the most appropriate initial action.
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following priority treatments? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
Explanation
A. Calcium binders are used to help decrease the amount of calcium absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, thus lowering calcium levels in the blood.
B. Vitamin D supplements would actually increase calcium levels by enhancing intestinal absorption, so this option is not appropriate in hypercalcemia.
C. Administering fluids helps to dilute serum calcium levels and promote renal excretion of calcium, making it a priority treatment.
D. Furosemide (Lasix) can help promote diuresis, thereby increasing the excretion of calcium through the urine, which is beneficial in managing hypercalcemia.
E. Oral phosphates may be used in some cases to manage hypercalcemia, but they are not a first-line treatment and their administration should be carefully considered in conjunction with other treatments.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism. The nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Explanation
A. Exophthalmos is typically associated with hyperthyroidism (specifically Graves' disease) rather than hypothyroidism.
B. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) is also more common in hyperthyroid states, not hypothyroidism.
C. Palpitations are indicative of an increased metabolic rate, which is common in hyperthyroidism; therefore, they would not be expected in a client with hypothyroidism.
D. Lethargy is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism due to decreased metabolism, leading to fatigue and reduced energy levels, making it the expected finding.
A nurse is providing care for a client with a halo device. The client has developed skin breakdown and irritation around the pin sites. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement to prevent further skin complications?
Explanation
A. While ensuring proper alignment is important, it does not address the existing skin breakdown and irritation.
B. Applying zinc oxide cream may not be appropriate as it can trap moisture, potentially worsening the skin condition around pin sites.
C. Padding the areas of skin breakdown with foam dressing is an appropriate intervention as it can provide cushioning, reduce friction, and protect the skin from further injury.
D. Loosening the halo device could compromise the stabilization it provides and may not effectively address skin integrity issues.
A nurse is providing education regarding the adrenal cortex production of mineralocorticoids. The nurse should include that mineralocorticoids influence which of the following?
Explanation
A. While hormones from the adrenal cortex do influence various metabolic processes, mineralocorticoids primarily focus on fluid and electrolyte balance rather than having major effects on all organs' metabolism.
B. Mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone, play a crucial role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance by promoting sodium retention and potassium excretion in the kidneys.
C. Regulation of carbohydrate and protein metabolism is mainly the function of glucocorticoids, not mineralocorticoids.
D. The release of ACTH is regulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus, not directly influenced by mineralocorticoids.
A nurse in the emergency department is monitoring a client who has a cervical spinal cord injury from a fall. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Hypertension can occur due to autonomic dysreflexia, especially in clients with cervical spinal cord injuries, as they may have exaggerated sympathetic responses.
B. A weakened gag reflex can result from cranial nerve involvement due to the cervical spinal cord injury, impacting the client's ability to protect their airway.
C. Absence of bowel sounds may indicate bowel immobility or dysfunction; however, it is not a direct complication of a cervical spinal cord injury.
D. Bradycardia is a common finding in cervical spinal cord injuries due to impaired sympathetic nervous system function, leading to decreased heart rate.
E. Tachycardia is less common in cervical injuries and is typically associated with lower injuries in the spinal cord.
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