Ati nur 211 final assessment (lifespan development)
Total Questions : 35
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy to treat lung cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reviewing laboratory test results for low hemoglobin is important for monitoring anemia, which can be a side effect of radiation therapy. However, it is not the most immediate action to address the specific side effects of radiation therapy to the lung, such as xerostomia (dry mouth) and skin reactions.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the skin for erythema is important as radiation therapy can cause skin reactions, including redness and irritation. However, this action does not directly address the management of xerostomia, which is a common side effect of radiation therapy to the head and neck areas.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring the client for signs of fatigue is essential as fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. However, this action does not specifically address the management of xerostomia, which requires targeted oral care.
Choice D rationale
Providing oral care to manage xerostomia is the correct action. Xerostomia, or dry mouth, is a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the head and neck are involved. Oral care helps to alleviate discomfort, prevent infections, and maintain oral health.
Increased heart rate.
Discomfort at the puncture site.
A nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis.
The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreased temperature is not typically an immediate complication following a thoracentesis. It may indicate an infection, but this would develop over time rather than immediately after the procedure.
Choice B rationale
Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site is expected after a thoracentesis and does not indicate a complication that requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale
Shortness of breath is a serious complication that can indicate a pneumothorax or re- accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. This requires immediate attention and intervention by the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale
Chest pain can be a sign of a complication such as a pneumothorax or infection. However, shortness of breath is a more immediate and severe symptom that requires urgent attention.
A nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who lost 800 mL of blood during surgery. The client’s blood pressure has been steadily decreasing over the past 2 hours.
Which of the following categories of shock should the nurse recognize is occurring?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypovolemic shock occurs due to a significant decrease in circulating blood volume, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion. Blood loss, such as the 800 mL lost during surgery, is a common cause of hypovolemic shock. The steadily decreasing blood pressure is consistent with this type of shock.
Choice B rationale
Septic shock results from a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation and maldistribution of blood flow. There is no indication of infection in this scenario.
Choice C rationale
Neurogenic shock results from a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to vasodilation and relative hypovolemia. It is often associated with spinal cord or severe head injury, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Obstructive shock occurs when there is an obstruction to blood flow within the cardiovascular system, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade. There is no evidence of such an obstruction in this scenario.
A nurse is planning nutritional teaching for a client who is experiencing fatigue due to iron deficiency anemia.
Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
8 oz black tea is not recommended for clients with iron deficiency anemia as it contains tannins, which can inhibit iron absorption.
Choice B rationale
1 cup canned black beans is a good source of non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels and alleviate fatigue associated with iron deficiency anemia.
Choice C rationale
8 oz whole milk is not a good source of iron and can interfere with the absorption of iron from other foods.
Choice D rationale
15 oz raisins contain some iron but are not as rich in iron as black beans. Additionally, the high sugar content in raisins may not be ideal for all clients.
A nurse is reviewing the CBC findings for a female client who is receiving combination chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A WBC count of 2300/mm³ is significantly lower than the normal range (4500-11000/mm³) and indicates leukopenia, which increases the risk of infection. This finding should be reported to the provider.
Choice B rationale
A platelet count of 155,000/mm³ is within the lower end of the normal range (150,000- 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting.
Choice C rationale
An RBC count of 5 million/mm³ is within the normal range for females (4.2-5.4 million/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting.
Choice D rationale
A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is within the normal range for females (12-16 g/dL) and does not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to the parent of a 10-year-old child following a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Giving the child acetaminophen for discomfort is appropriate as it helps manage pain without interfering with the healing process.
Choice B rationale
Keeping the child home for 1 week is not necessary unless there are specific complications or instructions from the healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale
Assisting the child to take a tub bath for the first 3 days is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection at the catheter insertion site.
Choice D rationale
Offering the child clear liquids for the first 24 hours is not necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions from the healthcare provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Progressive increase in platelet production is not a characteristic of DIC. DIC typically involves a decrease in platelet count due to consumption.
Choice B rationale
Excessive thrombosis and bleeding are hallmark features of DIC, as the condition involves both clot formation and bleeding due to the consumption of clotting factors.
Choice C rationale
Immediate sodium and fluid retention are not characteristic findings of DIC.
Choice D rationale
Increased clotting factors are not seen in DIC; instead, there is a consumption of clotting factors leading to their decrease.
A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. The client’s partner has been taught to perform suctioning.
Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client’s discharge?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking appropriate questions about suctioning indicates interest and understanding but does not demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure.
Choice B rationale
Performing the procedure independently shows that the partner has the necessary skills and confidence to care for the client at home.
Choice C rationale
Attending a class about tracheostomy care is beneficial but does not demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure independently.
Choice D rationale
Verbalizing all steps in the procedure indicates knowledge but does not demonstrate the practical ability to perform the procedure.
A nurse is providing teaching about iron deficiency anemia to the parents of a toddler.
Which of the following should the nurse recommend as a method of preventing iron deficiency anemia?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Including fluoridated water in the toddler’s diet does not prevent iron deficiency anemia.
Choice B rationale
Administering fat-soluble vitamins daily is not a method of preventing iron deficiency anemia.
Choice C rationale
Limiting intake of high-protein foods is not related to preventing iron deficiency anemia.
Choice D rationale
Avoiding a diet that consists primarily of milk is recommended because excessive milk intake can interfere with iron absorption and lead to iron deficiency anemia.
A nurse is preparing an adolescent client who has pneumonia for percussion, vibration, and postural drainage. Prior to the procedure, which of the following nursing actions should the nurse complete first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing to slowly exhale with pursed lips is a breathing technique but not the first action to take before the procedure.
Choice B rationale
Assessing pulse and respirations is important but not the first action to take before the procedure.
Choice C rationale
Assessing characteristics of her sputum is important but not the first action to take before the procedure.
Choice D rationale
Auscultating lung fields is the first action to take to assess the client’s current respiratory status and determine the effectiveness of the upcoming procedure. .
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has hemophilia A and is scheduled for wisdom teeth extractions.
Prior to the procedure, the nurse should anticipate that the client will receive which of the following products?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Packed RBCs are used to treat anemia or significant blood loss but are not specifically indicated for hemophilia A.
Choice B rationale
Fresh frozen plasma contains clotting factors but is not the preferred treatment for hemophilia A.
Choice C rationale
Prophylactic antibiotics are used to prevent infection but do not address the clotting deficiency in hemophilia A.
Choice D rationale
Recombinant factor VIII is the treatment of choice for individuals with hemophilia A. It replaces the deficient factor VIII in the blood, promoting clot formation and preventing excessive bleeding during surgical procedures.
A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to reverse heparin’s effects?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acetylcysteine is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and does not reverse the effects of heparin.
Choice B rationale
Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its anticoagulant effects.
Choice C rationale
Deferasirox is used to treat chronic iron overload and does not reverse the effects of heparin.
Choice D rationale
Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative and has a chest tube to a disposable water-seal drainage system with suction. The nurse should intervene for which of the following observations?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly.
Choice B rationale
Bloody drainage in the collection chamber is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require intervention.
Choice C rationale
Fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber are normal and indicate that the system is functioning properly.
Choice D rationale
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak and requires intervention to prevent complications.
A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A room that is within view of the nurses’ station is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis. This placement does not provide the necessary isolation to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients and staff. Tuberculosis is an airborne disease, and the client needs to be in a room that minimizes the risk of airborne transmission.
Choice B rationale
A room with another nonsurgical client is also inappropriate for a client with active tuberculosis. Placing the client with another patient increases the risk of transmission of the infection. Tuberculosis requires strict airborne precautions, and the client should be in a private room with appropriate ventilation.
Choice C rationale
A room in the ICU is not necessary unless the client requires intensive care for other reasons. The primary concern for a client with active tuberculosis is to prevent the spread of the infection, which can be effectively managed in a regular medical-surgical unit with proper isolation measures.
Choice D rationale
A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment is the correct choice. This type of room, often referred to as a negative pressure room, ensures that air from the room does not flow to other parts of the facility, thereby preventing the spread of infectious airborne particles. This setup is essential for managing clients with active tuberculosis.
f 55. A nurse is analyzing a client’s electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and identifies the following information:
Heart rate: 92/min.
Rhythm: Irregular.
P wave: Unable to identify.
PR interval: Unable to measure. QRS duration: 0.10 seconds.
Based upon this information, the nurse should interpret the client’s rhythm as indicating which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles, typically with a regular rhythm and identifiable P waves. The described ECG strip shows an irregular rhythm and an inability to identify P waves, which is not consistent with SVT5.
Choice B rationale
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm, absence of identifiable P waves, and variable PR intervals. The ECG findings of an irregular rhythm, inability to identify P waves, and a QRS duration of 0.10 seconds are consistent with AF6.
Choice C rationale
Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute and identifiable P waves preceding each QRS complex. The described ECG strip shows an irregular rhythm and an inability to identify P waves, which is not consistent with sinus bradycardia.
Choice D rationale
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval with a regular rhythm. The described ECG strip shows an irregular rhythm and an inability to measure the PR interval, which is not consistent with first-degree heart block.
A nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted and has symptomatic bradycardia.
Temperature: 36.6°C (97.8°F). Apical pulse: 42/min.
Respiratory rate: 26/min.
Blood pressure: 104/68 mm Hg.
Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air.
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The nurse is caring for the client immediately following the insertion of the permanent pacemaker. The nurse should monitor the client for:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While chest pain can occur after pacemaker insertion, it is not the primary concern immediately following the procedure. The nurse should monitor for more critical complications such as arrhythmias, which can indicate pacemaker malfunction or lead displacement.
Choice B rationale
Infection is a potential complication after pacemaker insertion, but it typically develops over a longer period. Immediate monitoring should focus on acute complications such as arrhythmias.
Choice C rationale
Bleeding is a concern after any surgical procedure, including pacemaker insertion. However, the primary immediate concern is monitoring for arrhythmias, which can indicate issues with the pacemaker’s function.
Choice D rationale
Arrhythmias are the primary concern immediately following pacemaker insertion. The nurse should monitor the client for any irregular heart rhythms, which can indicate pacemaker malfunction or lead displacement. Prompt identification and management of arrhythmias are crucial to ensure the pacemaker is functioning correctly.
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen. In DIC, there is widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of small blood clots throughout the bloodstream. This process consumes clotting factors and platelets, increasing the risk of severe bleeding.
Choice B rationale
DIC is not a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency. It is typically a secondary condition resulting from other underlying issues such as sepsis, trauma, or malignancy. Vitamin K deficiency can lead to bleeding disorders, but it is not the cause of DIC13.
Choice C rationale
DIC is characterized by a decreased platelet count, not an elevated one. The consumption of platelets and clotting factors in the formation of microthrombi leads to thrombocytopenia and an increased risk of bleeding.
Choice D rationale
DIC is not controllable with lifelong heparin usage. While heparin may be used in certain cases to manage DIC, it is not a lifelong treatment. The management of DIC focuses on treating the underlying cause and supporting the patient through the acute phase of the disorder.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is incorrect because it can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and maintaining a consistent blood level is crucial to avoid complications. Doubling the dose can cause the blood to become too thin, leading to severe bleeding events.
Choice B rationale
Using an electric razor while on warfarin is correct because it helps prevent cuts and bleeding. Warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, and using an electric razor reduces the chance of nicks and cuts that can occur with a traditional razor.
Choice C rationale
Increasing fiber intake to reduce constipation is incorrect because warfarin does not typically cause constipation. Fiber intake is generally recommended for overall digestive health, but it is not specifically related to warfarin use.
Choice D rationale
Mild nosebleeds are not common during initial treatment with warfarin. Nosebleeds can indicate that the blood is too thin, which is a sign of over-anticoagulation and requires medical attention.
A nurse is caring for a client who has brain cancer and is undergoing radiation therapy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report immediately?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chest pain and dyspnea are concerning symptoms but are not the most immediate manifestations to report in a client undergoing radiation therapy for brain cancer. These symptoms could be related to other conditions and require further evaluation.
Choice B rationale
Seizures are the most immediate manifestation to report because they indicate increased intracranial pressure or other neurological complications related to brain cancer and radiation therapy. Seizures require prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale
Hematuria is a concerning symptom but is not the most immediate manifestation to report in this context. It could be related to other conditions and requires further evaluation.
Choice D rationale
Swelling of the extremities is a concerning symptom but is not the most immediate manifestation to report in this context. It could be related to other conditions and requires further evaluation.
A nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is experiencing difficulty breathing and shortness of breath.
Medical History: Nurses Notes: 75-year-old male who reports increased dyspnea for 4 days.
Denies cough or fever.
Past Medical History: Two pack a day smoker for 50 years.
Diagnosed with lung cancer 8 years ago and treated.
Over the last year has developed frequent pleural effusions treated with thoracentesis.
Hypertension.
Surgical History: Right lower lobectomy 4 years ago.
Left hernia repair 25 years ago.
Decreased lung sounds.
The nurse is caring for the client following a thoracentesis. (Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A heart rate of 110/min and regular is not an immediate concern in this context. Tachycardia can occur due to various reasons, including anxiety or pain, and does not require immediate follow-up.
Choice B rationale
Oxygen saturation of 95-96% is within the normal range and does not require immediate follow-up.
Choice C rationale
Subcutaneous emphysema requires immediate follow-up because it indicates air leakage into the subcutaneous tissue, which can be a sign of pneumothorax or other complications.
Choice D rationale
A trachea that is midline does not require immediate follow-up as it indicates there is no mediastinal shift.
Choice E rationale
A dry puncture site does not require immediate follow-up as it indicates there is no ongoing issue at the insertion site. .
Prepare to administer an antibiotic to the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is correct. Increasing fluid intake helps to maintain hydration, which is essential for the body to function properly, especially when the client is experiencing fever and muscle aches. Hydration helps to thin mucus, making it easier to expel, and supports the immune system in fighting off infection.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client in a private room is correct. A private room helps to prevent the spread of infection to other patients and healthcare workers. This is particularly important when the client has symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and fatigue, which could indicate a contagious illness.
Choice C rationale
Placing the client on contact precautions is incorrect. Contact precautions are typically used for infections that are spread by direct contact with the patient or their environment, such as MRSA or C. difficile. The symptoms described (headache, muscle aches, fever, sore throat, and fatigue) do not necessarily indicate an infection that requires contact precautions.
Choice D rationale
Wearing a mask when caring for the client is correct. Wearing a mask helps to prevent the transmission of respiratory infections, which can be spread through droplets when the client coughs or sneezes. This is especially important when the client has symptoms such as a sore throat and fever, which could indicate a respiratory infection.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has coronary artery disease. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching to explain the correlation between changes in the coronary arteries and manifestations that occur?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Coronary arteries decrease in diameter leading to insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients reaching the heart muscle. This is correct because atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries, causes the arteries to narrow. This narrowing reduces blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and the manifestations of coronary artery disease, such as angina and myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Manifestations occur due to dilation of coronary arteries with increased blood flow causing increased pressure. This is incorrect because the primary issue in coronary artery disease is the narrowing of the arteries, not their dilation. Increased blood flow and pressure are not typical causes of the manifestations of coronary artery disease.
Choice C rationale
Coronary arteries become more elastic causing the arteries to stretch as individuals age causing the heart not to receive enough oxygen. This is incorrect because the problem in coronary artery disease is not increased elasticity but rather the loss of elasticity and the buildup of plaque that narrows the arteries. As people age, the arteries tend to become less elastic, not more.
Choice D rationale
The heart and the coronary arteries weaken, leading to poor perfusion and resulting in angina. This is incorrect because the primary issue in coronary artery disease is the narrowing of the coronary arteries due to plaque buildup, not the weakening of the heart and arteries. While poor perfusion does result in angina, it is due to the narrowed arteries rather than weakened structures.
A nurse is caring for a school-age child who has leukemia.
0900: Custom Nursing Assessment.
1000: Vital Signs: Child is awake and alert but not talkative.
Child was brought in for an ongoing upper respiratory infection for the last 2 months that will not go away. Parents report the child’s leukemia has been in remission for more than a year.
Bruising noted on the child’s shoulder, thighs, and back.
Parents are not sure where it came from.
Diagnostic Results: Child’s breath sounds clear with subcostal retractions.
Oxygen saturation is 92% on room air.
Child’s skin is pale and petechiae noted on trunk and thighs.
Child states, “I feel like I can’t breathe.”. Bed raised to high-Fowler’s, oxygen applied and provider notified.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select the 6 findings that should be reported to the provider.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The skin assessment reveals bruising and petechiae, which are signs of thrombocytopenia, a condition where the blood has a lower than normal number of platelets. This is significant in a child with leukemia as it may indicate a relapse or bone marrow suppression. The presence of petechiae and unexplained bruising should be reported to the provider as they can be indicative of bleeding disorders or a decrease in platelet count.
Choice B rationale
Oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is below the normal range (95-100%) for a child. This indicates hypoxemia, which can be a sign of respiratory distress or other underlying conditions. Given the child’s history of an upper respiratory infection and leukemia, this finding is critical and should be reported to the provider to ensure appropriate interventions are taken to improve oxygenation.
Choice C rationale
The WBC count is crucial in a child with leukemia. An abnormal WBC count can indicate an infection, relapse, or bone marrow suppression. Monitoring the WBC count helps in assessing the child’s immune status and the effectiveness of the leukemia treatment. Any significant changes in the WBC count should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice D rationale
Subcostal retractions are a sign of increased work of breathing and respiratory distress. This finding, along with the child’s statement of feeling like they can’t breathe, indicates that the child is struggling to maintain adequate ventilation. Reporting this to the provider is essential for timely intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise.
Choice E rationale
An ongoing upper respiratory infection for the last 2 months that has not resolved is concerning, especially in a child with a history of leukemia. This could indicate an underlying immunodeficiency or a more serious infection that requires further investigation and treatment. Reporting this to the provider is necessary to address the persistent infection and prevent complications.
Choice F Rationale:
Clear breath sounds are typically a reassuring finding; however, in the context of this child’s symptoms and history, the presence of subcostal retractions and a subjective feeling of difficulty breathing are concerning. While the breath sounds are clear, the child's respiratory status is compromised, as evidenced by retractions, a low oxygen saturation level, and the child’s report of dyspnea. Clear breath sounds in the setting of other signs of respiratory distress might suggest that the issue is not in the airways but could be related to other factors like decreased oxygenation or inadequate ventilation. Reporting the breath sounds to the provider, especially in the context of the other respiratory findings, ensures that the full clinical picture is communicated and that the provider considers all aspects of the child's respiratory status when planning further interventions.
Choice G rationale
The respiratory rate is an important vital sign that can indicate respiratory distress or other underlying conditions. An abnormal respiratory rate, whether too high or too low, can be a sign of respiratory or metabolic issues. Monitoring and reporting the respiratory rate to the provider helps in assessing the child’s respiratory status and determining the need for further intervention.
A nurse is providing education to a client who has a newly diagnosed abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is most commonly found infrarenally, below the level of the renal arteries, rather than in the suprarenal aorta. The suprarenal aorta is the section of the aorta above the renal arteries, and while aneurysms can occur there, it is not the most common location for AAAs. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Choice B rationale
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is defined as a localized dilation of the abdominal aorta that exceeds 50% of the normal vessel diameter, typically greater than 30 mm in diameter. This dilation occurs due to weakening of the arterial wall, which can result from various factors such as atherosclerosis, hypertension, and genetic predisposition. This statement is correct and should be included in the teaching.
Choice C rationale
An abdominal aortic aneurysm typically occurs due to weakening of the arterial wall, rather than thickening. The weakened wall allows the arterial wall to bulge or balloon out, forming an aneurysm. This statement is incorrect as it misrepresents the pathophysiology of AAAs.
Choice D rationale
Abdominal aortic aneurysms are more likely to rupture when blood pressure is too high, rather than too low. Hypertension increases the pressure within the weakened arterial wall, potentially leading to rupture. Therefore, controlling blood pressure is crucial in managing abdominal aortic aneurysms to reduce the risk of rupture. This statement is incorrect.
A nurse is educating clients about breast cancer at a community health event. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the training?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Breast cancer can occur in any part of the breast, but ductal breast cancer is most common. This statement is correct because the majority of breast cancers originate in the ducts that carry milk to the nipple. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) are the most common types of breast cancer, accounting for about 80% of all cases.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding increases the risk of breast cancer in women over 40 years of age. This statement is incorrect. In fact, breastfeeding is known to reduce the risk of breast cancer. The longer a woman breastfeeds, the greater the protective effect. This is thought to be due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation, which may delay the return of menstrual periods and reduce a woman’s lifetime exposure to hormones like estrogen that can promote breast cancer cell growth.
Choice C rationale
Clients who have BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene changes have a decreased risk of breast cancer. This statement is incorrect. Mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes significantly increase the risk of developing breast cancer. Women with these mutations have a 45-65% chance of developing breast cancer by age 70, compared to about 12% for women in the general population. These genes normally help repair DNA damage, but when they are mutated, they can lead to the development of cancer.
Choice D rationale
Clients should begin screening mammography annually by the age of 50 years old. This statement is partially correct but not entirely accurate. The American Cancer Society recommends that women with an average risk of breast cancer should start annual mammograms at age 45 and can switch to biennial screening at age 55. However, women should have the option to start screening as early as age 40 if they choose.
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