Ati nur27500 phatopharm exam
Total Questions : 28
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreThe nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for an Ipratropium bromide inhaler. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the common side effects of this medication?
Explanation
A. "I will rinse my mouth after each dose to prevent thrush." Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic bronchodilator, and it does not typically increase the risk of oral thrush. Rinsing the mouth after use is more commonly recommended with corticosteroid inhalers.
B. "I will use this medication early in the morning so I am not urinating all night." Ipratropium bromide does not significantly affect urination or the frequency of urination, as it primarily targets the respiratory system.
C. "I will make sure to use this in combination with a corticosteroid inhaler." Although it may be used in combination with corticosteroids, this is not specific to Ipratropium's side effects. This answer does not directly address side effect management.
D. "I will suck on hard candies to cope with dry mouth." A common side effect of Ipratropium bromide is dry mouth due to its anticholinergic properties. Sucking on hard candies is an appropriate way to manage this side effect.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a risk factor?
Explanation
A. Diabetes mellitus: Diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for UTIs due to elevated glucose levels in the urine, which provides an environment conducive to bacterial growth.
B. Anemia: Anemia does not directly increase the risk of UTIs. UTIs are more related to factors affecting the urinary tract and immune function rather than blood cell count.
C. Osteoporosis: Osteoporosis does not increase susceptibility to UTIs, as it primarily affects bone density and strength.
D. COPD: COPD is a lung condition and does not have a direct connection to an increased risk for UTIs.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the client's renal function?
Explanation
A. Urine-specific gravity: While urine-specific gravity can provide information on kidney function, it does not specifically measure renal impairment or disease progression, especially in SLE.
B. Serum potassium: Serum potassium levels can be affected by renal function but are not a direct indicator of renal health and can be influenced by many other factors.
C. Serum creatinine: Serum creatinine is a more reliable indicator of renal function, as it reflects how well the kidneys are filtering waste. In clients with SLE, kidney involvement is a common complication.
D. Serum sodium: Serum sodium levels do not directly indicate renal function, though kidney impairment can impact electrolyte levels.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for albuterol and fluticasone, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
A. “If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the fluticasone immediately." Fluticasone is a corticosteroid, and it is not a rescue medication. It is used for long-term control and does not provide immediate relief for acute symptoms.
B. "I will be sure to use the albuterol nebulizer before the fluticasone." Albuterol is a bronchodilator and should be used first to open the airways, allowing better absorption of fluticasone when used afterward.
C. "I do not need to rinse my mouth after completing the albuterol and fluticasone." Rinsing the mouth after using fluticasone (a corticosteroid) is important to prevent oral thrush. Albuterol alone does not require rinsing, but fluticasone does.
D. "I will use both medications immediately after exercising." Albuterol is often used as a pre-exercise medication for asthma, but fluticasone should be used as directed for maintenance, not as an immediate post-exercise medication.
A nurse is providing education to a school-age child who has a new diagnosis of asthma. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
A. "Use the peak expiratory flow meter once per week." The peak expiratory flow meter is usually recommended for daily use in asthma management to monitor lung function and detect any changes early.
B. "Take cromolyn sodium at the first sign of breathing difficulty." Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer and is used as a preventative medication rather than for quick relief of symptoms, so it should be taken regularly as prescribed, not only when symptoms arise.
C. "Avoid triggers that cause an attack." Avoiding known asthma triggers is an important part of asthma management to prevent attacks and exacerbations.
D. "You should stop playing basketball, but you can swim instead." Exercise should not necessarily be avoided; instead, it should be managed appropriately with pre-treatment if needed. Avoiding all sports activities is not generally recommended.
A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following is a side effect of this medication?
Explanation
A. Bradycardia: Bradycardia is not a common side effect of diphenhydramine. This medication primarily causes sedation and anticholinergic effects.
B. Hypertension: Hypertension is not commonly associated with diphenhydramine, which tends to have more sedative and anticholinergic side effects.
C. Bleeding: Bleeding is not a known side effect of diphenhydramine. It does not affect clotting mechanisms or platelet function.
D. Sedation: Sedation is a common side effect of diphenhydramine, which is an antihistamine with sedative properties. Clients should be advised about possible drowsiness and to avoid activities that require alertness, like driving, while taking it.
A nurse is assessing a client who has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Friction rub: A friction rub is usually associated with pleuritis, not atelectasis. Atelectasis involves the collapse of alveoli and does not produce this sound.
B. Decreasing respiratory rate: Atelectasis generally leads to an increased respiratory rate as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation.
C. Increasing dyspnea: Increasing dyspnea is common in atelectasis as collapsed alveoli reduce oxygen exchange, leading to shortness of breath and increased respiratory effort.
D. Facial flushing: Facial flushing is not typically associated with atelectasis; instead, atelectasis leads to signs of respiratory distress, such as dyspnea and possibly cyanosis.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has emphysema and a new prescription for theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Explanation
A. Increase fluids to 1L/per day. Clients with emphysema are often encouraged to increase fluid intake beyond 1 liter to help thin secretions, but 1 liter per day is generally insufficient.
B. Administer the medication with food. Theophylline should not necessarily be taken with food; it is generally taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs.
C. Consume a high-protein diet. High-protein diets may increase the metabolism of theophylline, potentially decreasing its therapeutic effect. Dietary considerations for theophylline involve avoiding caffeine.
D. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication. Theophylline is a methylxanthine, similar to caffeine, and consuming caffeine can increase the risk of side effects like tachycardia, nervousness, and insomnia.
A charge nurse is conducting an in-service for new nursing graduates on the unit. Upon reviewing physiology of the kidneys, the nurse should include which of the following as functions of the kidneys? Select ALL that apply.(Select All that Apply.)
Explanation
A. Stimulate production of androgens: The kidneys do not stimulate androgen production. Androgens are produced primarily by the adrenal glands and gonads.
B. Stimulate production of white blood cells: The kidneys do not stimulate white blood cell production. This is mainly a function of the bone marrow.
C. Excrete various drugs and drug metabolites: The kidneys play a key role in filtering and excreting drugs and drug metabolites, helping to remove them from the body.
D. Produce urine: The primary function of the kidneys is to filter blood and produce urine, which is then excreted to remove waste products and maintain fluid balance.
E. Regulate acid/base balance: The kidneys are essential in maintaining acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions and reabsorbing bicarbonate, which helps regulate the pH level in the body.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing an older adult client whose son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?
Explanation
A. Narrowed pulse pressure: A narrowed pulse pressure can indicate various cardiovascular issues but is not a specific sign of pneumonia.
B. Bradycardia: Bradycardia may occur due to various reasons, including medications or underlying health conditions, but it is not a common sign of pneumonia.
C. Night sweats: While night sweats can occur with pneumonia, they are more associated with infections such as tuberculosis or certain malignancies. It's not a classic presentation.
D. Confusion: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults due to hypoxia, dehydration, or fever. Older adults often present atypically with changes in mental status during infections.
A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?
Explanation
A. Vomiting: While vomiting can occur during anaphylaxis, it is not the most immediately life-threatening symptom.
B. Stridor: Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, which is a critical and life-threatening sign of anaphylaxis. This finding requires immediate intervention, such as administering epinephrine and ensuring airway patency.
C. Hypertension: Hypertension is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, hypotension is more common due to vascular collapse.
D. Urticaria: Urticaria (hives) can occur in anaphylaxis, but it is not as urgent as stridor, which indicates a compromised airway.
A nurse is caring for a client whose serum potassium level is 5.3 mEq/L. Which of the following scheduled medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Explanation
A. Digoxin: Digoxin requires caution with elevated potassium levels, as hyperkalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. A potassium level of 5.3 mEq/L is borderline high, so it should be used cautiously.
B. Lisinopril: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can also increase potassium levels. It may not be the best choice for this client due to the elevated potassium.
C. Potassium iodide: Potassium iodide would further increase the client's potassium level and is contraindicated.
D. Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can help to lower serum potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion. Therefore, it is appropriate for this client with an elevated potassium level.
A nurse is assessing a client who has seasonal allergies and is taking an antihistamine. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this type of medication?
Explanation
A. Photophobia: Photophobia is not a common side effect of antihistamines. It can be associated with other conditions, but not typically with antihistamine use.
B. Diarrhea: Diarrhea is not a common side effect of antihistamines; they are more likely to cause constipation due to their anticholinergic effects.
C. Dry mouth: Dry mouth is a common anticholinergic effect of antihistamines. It occurs because these medications block acetylcholine, leading to decreased saliva production.
D. Increased blood pressure: Increased blood pressure is not a typical side effect of antihistamines. While some formulations may cause increased heart rate or palpitations, they do not generally lead to hypertension directly.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has quadriplegia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Perform passive range of motion exercises. Passive range of motion exercises help maintain circulation and reduce venous stasis, which is crucial for preventing pulmonary embolism in clients who are immobile.
B. Place pillows under the client's knees when in bed. Placing pillows under the knees can actually promote venous stasis and increase the risk of a pulmonary embolism. It is better to keep the legs flat to encourage circulation.
C. Assess legs for redness. Regular assessment of the legs for redness, swelling, or warmth helps in the early detection of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism if not addressed.
D. Apply elastic compression stockings. Elastic compression stockings promote venous return from the legs to the heart and help prevent DVT, thereby reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
E. Massage the calves every shift. Massaging the calves can dislodge a thrombus and potentially lead to a pulmonary embolism. Instead, interventions should focus on preventing thrombus formation.
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about respiratory distress syndrome. Which statement by the student nurse demonstrates understanding?
Explanation
A. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in babies with frequent colds. This statement is inaccurate; respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is not associated with frequent colds.
B. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in premature and low-birth-weight babies. This statement accurately describes RDS, as it is primarily seen in premature infants due to insufficient surfactant production.
C. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in babies with genetic allergies. RDS is not directly related to genetic allergies; it is a condition primarily linked to prematurity and lung maturity.
D. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in babies stressed during the pregnancy. While stress during pregnancy can affect outcomes, RDS is specifically associated with lung development in premature infants rather than stress alone.
The nurse is caring for a client who appears anxious and fearful. The client has recently been seen for a urinary tract infection and reports their urine has turned an orange-red color. What is the best response by the nurse?
Explanation
A. "This may mean that your liver is failing and you need immediate medical attention." This statement is misleading; orange-red urine is not typically a sign of liver failure, especially in the context of a urinary tract infection.
B. "This is an expected finding for someone with a diet high in red meat." While diet can affect urine color, red meat is not commonly associated with orange-red urine; this is not a relevant response given the client's context.
C. “This is a symptom that your urinary tract infection is worsening. I will notify the provider.” While it is important to monitor urinary tract infections, orange-red urine is more likely related to the use of phenazopyridine rather than a worsening infection.
D. “This is an expected finding if you are taking the over-the-counter medication, Phenazopyridine.” Phenazopyridine is known to cause orange-red discoloration of urine, and this statement provides reassurance to the client regarding their symptoms
Diuretics are currently recommended for the treatment in patients who have which conditions?(Select All that Apply.)
Explanation
A. In patients who have renal disease. Diuretics can be used in renal disease to help manage fluid overload, although caution is needed based on the specific renal condition.
B. In patients who have fluid retention during pregnancy. Diuretics are typically avoided during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary due to potential risks to the fetus.
C. In patients with heart failure. Diuretics are a cornerstone of treatment for heart failure, helping to reduce fluid overload and improve symptoms.
D. In patients who are obese. While diuretics can be used for conditions associated with obesity, they are not specifically recommended for obesity alone without other indications.
E. In patients who have hypertension. Diuretics are commonly prescribed as first-line treatment for hypertension, helping to reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure.
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has acute toxicity from acetaminophen overdose. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
Explanation
A. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is used for anticoagulant reversal, not for acetaminophen toxicity.
B. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose.
C. Acetylcysteine: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity, helping to replenish glutathione stores and prevent liver damage.
D. Atropine: Atropine is used for bradycardia or certain poisoning but is not relevant for acetaminophen toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing kidney failure. The nurse recognizes that kidney failure causes the loss of which of the following processes integral to maintaining homeostasis?
Explanation
A. Distribution of protein: While protein distribution may be affected in kidney disease, it is not a primary function of the kidneys.
B. Filtration of the blood: The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste products and excess substances from the blood. In kidney failure, this filtration process is impaired, leading to the accumulation of toxins in the body.
C. Metabolism of medications: Although the kidneys do play a role in drug excretion, drug metabolism primarily occurs in the liver. Kidney failure may affect the excretion phase.
D. Ability to hold urine: While kidney failure can affect urinary function, the ability to hold urine is primarily a bladder function, not directly a function of the kidneys.
. A patient has been started on medication for BPH. Prior to administering this medication the patient's nurse ensures which of the following has been done?
Explanation
A. The patient is hypertensive. Hypertension is not a prerequisite for starting BPH medication; in fact, some BPH medications can lower blood pressure.
B. The patient has had a prostate examination, including measurement of the PSA level. A prostate examination and PSA measurement are important for diagnosing BPH and ruling out prostate cancer before starting treatment.
C. The patient is still sexually active. Sexual activity status is not a determining factor for administering BPH medication.
D. The patient has not had a vasectomy. Vasectomy status does not influence the treatment of BPH.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for inhaled beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Explanation
A. Limit caffeine intake. While caffeine can affect some patients, it is not a specific concern with inhaled corticosteroids like beclomethasone.
B. Take the medication with meals. Inhaled corticosteroids like beclomethasone are typically not taken with meals as they are inhaled, not ingested.
C. Check the pulse after medication administration. Monitoring the pulse is not necessary for beclomethasone unless the client experiences specific symptoms related to tachycardia, which is not common with inhaled corticosteroids.
D. Rinse the mouth after administration. Rinsing the mouth after using inhaled corticosteroids helps prevent oral thrush and other oral side effects associated with the medication.
. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed diphenhydramine to relieve pruritus. The client asks the nurse how he can minimize the daytime sedation he is experiencing. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
Explanation
A. "Gradually decrease the dose once tolerance to the effect is reached." Tolerance can develop over time, but this approach is not the most effective or safest way to manage sedation.
B. "Take the medication with meals." Taking diphenhydramine with food may help with gastrointestinal side effects but does not reduce sedation.
C. "Distribute the doses evenly throughout the day." Distributing doses evenly may not effectively reduce sedation, as diphenhydramine has sedative effects regardless of timing.
D. "Take the daily dose at bedtime.” Taking diphenhydramine at bedtime can minimize daytime sedation, as the sedative effects will occur during sleep.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has asthma and is about to start taking theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse should tell the client that this medication might cause which of the following adverse effects?
Explanation
A. Tachycardia: Theophylline can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant properties.
B. Constipation: While gastrointestinal effects can occur, constipation is not a common or significant adverse effect of theophylline.
C. Oliguria: Theophylline is more likely to cause diuresis rather than oliguria.
D. Drowsiness: Theophylline typically causes stimulation rather than sedation, leading to increased alertness rather than drowsiness.
A nurse is assessing a client after receiving albuterol via nebulizer. The client reports feeling "nervous and shaky”. Which of the following responses by the nurse is correct?
Explanation
A. "This is a common side effect with albuterol and will stop soon." Nervousness and shakiness are common side effects of albuterol due to its action as a bronchodilator and stimulant.
B. "You are having an allergic reaction, and I should notify the provider." The symptoms described are not indicative of an allergic reaction but rather a common side effect of the medication.
C. "The albuterol is probably interacting with another medication." While drug interactions can occur, the reported symptoms are typical side effects of albuterol.
D. "The albuterol is not working, and you will need another medication." The symptoms do not indicate that the medication is ineffective; they are more indicative of its stimulant effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who has asthma and is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Explanation
A. Hypertension: While systemic corticosteroids can lead to hypertension, fluticasone, when inhaled, typically has minimal systemic effects.
B. Polyuria: Polyuria is more associated with systemic corticosteroids or diabetes management, not with inhaled fluticasone.
C. Oral candidiasis: Inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone can lead to oral thrush, so rinsing the mouth after use is advised to prevent this.
D. Hypoglycemia: Corticosteroids typically cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.
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