Ati physical assessment quiz
Total Questions : 20
Showing 20 questions, Sign in for moreWhen inspecting a client's abdominal contour, the nurse observes the abdomen to be sunken with the lower edges of the ribs visible. The nurse documents this as which of the following?
Explanation
A. Flat: A flat abdomen is level with no visible protrusions or concavities.
B. Protuberant: A protuberant abdomen appears swollen or distended, common in obesity or ascites.
C. Rounded: A rounded abdomen has a convex contour, commonly seen in children or adults with mild weight gain.
D. Scaphoid: A scaphoid abdomen appears sunken or concave, often showing visible lower ribs, suggesting malnutrition or dehydration.
The nurse receives the primary provider's order of phenytoin 0.2 g orally twice daily. The medication label states that each capsule is 100 mg. The nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to administer. (Round to the nearest whole number)
Explanation
A. 20: Incorrect, as it would imply a much higher dose.
B. 0.2: Incorrect, as this would be far too low.
C. 2: Phenytoin 0.2 g is equivalent to 200 mg (0.2 g x 1000 mg/g). Since each capsule is 100 mg, the nurse would need to administer 2 capsules (200 mg / 100 mg per capsule = 2).
D. 200: Incorrect, as 200 capsules would be an overdose.
A client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is present, and the nurse assesses the client for referred rebound experiences. The client experiences pain the right lower quadrant. How would the nurse document this finding?
Explanation
A. Positive Skin Hypersensitivity Test: This is incorrect as it typically involves pain or discomfort with light touch, unrelated to rebound tenderness.
B. Positive Rovsing Sign: A positive Rovsing sign occurs when pain is felt in the right lower quadrant upon palpation of the left lower quadrant, indicating possible appendicitis.
C. Psoas Sign: This is elicited by extending the hip, and a positive sign indicates irritation of the iliopsoas muscle, often seen in appendicitis.
D. Positive Obturator Sign: This involves internal rotation of the hip, also used in appendicitis assessments but involves different positioning.
The nurse is setting up the physical environment for an interview with a client and plans to obtain subjective data regarding the client's health.Which interventions are appropriate? Select three options that apply.
Explanation
A. Ensure comfortable seating at eye level for the client and nurse: Establishes a non-intimidating environment, helping the client feel more at ease.
B. Provide seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light: Incorrect; this may cause discomfort and make the client feel scrutinized.
C. Ensure that the distance between the client and nurse is at least 7 ft: Too great a distance for effective communication; ideal distance is 3-4 feet.
D. Place a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk: Creates a formal, potentially intimidating setting, discouraging openness.
E. Set the room temperature at a comfortable level: Ensures physical comfort, aiding in client relaxation and openness.
F. Remove distracting objects from the interviewing area: Minimizes potential distractions, keeping the client focused and the environment conducive to communication.
The nurse in the dialysis unit is initiating the morning scheduled dialysis clients. Which client would the nurse prioritize to assess first?
Explanation
A. The client on peritoneal dialysis who is reporting a hard and rigid abdomen. A hard, rigid abdomen suggests peritonitis, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
B. The client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit: This indicates a possible vascular access issue, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as peritonitis.
C. The client who is reporting a 3.6 kg weight gain and refusing dialysis: This weight gain could signal fluid overload, but refusal of dialysis would require a different approach that may not need immediate intervention unless symptoms worsen.
D. The client with a hemoglobin of 9.0 mg/dL and hematocrit of 26%: This low hemoglobin and hematocrit level may require treatment, but it is not an immediate life-threatening issue like peritonitis.
A client's bladder is found to be distended. At which location would the nurse begin palpating?
Explanation
A. At the symphysis pubis: When the bladder is distended, it typically extends upward from the symphysis pubis. Therefore, the nurse should start palpation here to assess for bladder distention.
B. In the left lower quadrant: This location would be used to assess for structures like the descending colon or potential masses, not the bladder.
C. At the umbilicus: The bladder does not typically reach the umbilical region unless it is severely distended, making this less effective as a starting point.
D. In the right lower quadrant: This area is primarily used to assess structures such as the appendix or ascending colon, not the bladder.
Assessment of a client reveals a distended abdomen with some bulging of the flanks. Which test would be most accurate in confirming nurse's suspicions?
Explanation
A. Abdominal x-ray: While it can show gas or bowel obstructions, it is less effective for confirming fluid presence.
B. Shifting dullness: This physical exam technique can indicate fluid but is less accurate than ultrasound.
C. Fluid wave: This physical exam can help suggest the presence of fluid, but it is also less reliable than imaging studies.
D. Ultrasound: An ultrasound is the most accurate and non-invasive way to confirm the presence of fluid, such as ascites, in the abdomen. It provides detailed imaging and confirmation without invasive procedures.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a medical history of chronic kidney disease for fluid volume excess. Which assessment data provides the most reliable measure of fluid retention?
Explanation
A. Intake and output: Although helpful, intake and output measurements can sometimes be inaccurate, as not all fluid retention may be recorded.
B. Daily weight: Daily weight measurements are the most reliable way to assess fluid retention because changes in body weight accurately reflect gains or losses in body fluid, especially in clients with chronic kidney disease.
C. Sodium level: Sodium levels can indicate fluid imbalances, but they do not directly measure fluid volume excess.
D. Skin tenting: Skin tenting is used to assess dehydration, not fluid retention, and is not a reliable measure in chronic kidney disease.
The client is brought into the emergency room (ER) by paramedics with blunt trauma to the left upper side of the abdomen due to a motor vehicle accident. The ER nurse knows what organ is most likely impacted.
Explanation
A. Appendix: Located in the right lower quadrant, the appendix is unlikely to be impacted in left upper quadrant trauma.
B. Left ureter: The left ureter is located lower in the abdomen along the flank area and is not directly impacted in the left upper quadrant.
C. Left lobe of liver: The liver’s left lobe extends into the left upper quadrant, making it a likely organ to be impacted in blunt trauma to this area, particularly given its large size and location near the abdominal wall.
D. Sigmoid colon: Positioned lower in the left lower quadrant, the sigmoid colon is less likely to be affected by left upper abdominal trauma.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Postural hypotension: Postural hypotension (a drop-in blood pressure when moving to a standing position) is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased circulating blood volume.
B. Dependent edema: This occurs with fluid volume excess, not deficit, due to fluid accumulation in tissues.
C. Bradycardia: Fluid volume deficit often leads to tachycardia as the body compensates for low blood volume, rather than a slow heart rate.
D. Distended neck veins: Distended neck veins suggest fluid overload, not a fluid deficit.
A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse how to complete an informed consent document for a client. The staff nurse should include that the nurse's signature on the form confirms which of the following requirements? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. The client has legal authority to do so: The nurse’s signature confirms that the client appears to have the legal capacity to consent.
B. The client does not have a mental health condition: This is not within the nurse’s purview to assess unless explicitly stated; mental capacity, not condition, is key.
C. The client was not coerced: The nurse’s signature also indicates the consent was given voluntarily, without coercion.
D. The client signed in the nurse's presence: The nurse’s signature confirms that the nurse witnessed the client’s signature.
E. The client speaks the same language as the nurse: Consent requires understanding, which can be provided through an interpreter, so this is not necessary.
A charge nurse has four new clients arriving on the unit for admission. Which of the following clients should the nurse place in airborne precautions?
Explanation
A. A client who has pneumonia: Pneumonia typically requires droplet precautions, not airborne.
B. A client who has shigella: Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so contact precautions would be appropriate.
C. A client who has strep throat: Streptococcal infections are spread by droplets, so droplet precautions are indicated, not airborne.
D. A client who has tuberculosis: Tuberculosis (TB) is spread via airborne droplets, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission.
A nurse is providing information to a client about durable power of attorney. The nurse should include that durable power of attorney is enforceable under which of the following conditions?
Explanation
A. The client is terminally ill: DPOA is not automatically activated by terminal illness but by the client’s inability to communicate.
B. The client is incapable of providing self-care: This alone does not activate the DPOA unless they are also unable to make healthcare decisions.
C. The client is unable to express their wishes: Durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions is activated when the client becomes unable to make or communicate their healthcare choices.
D. The client has refused treatment: Refusal of treatment is a decision that an alert and capable client can make independently.
A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The client states, "I feel so alone. I don't know how I will be able to deal with this." Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
A. "Most people in your situation are able to get through this.": This statement is dismissive and may minimize the client’s feelings, as it generalizes the experience.
B. "Why do you think you're feeling so alone?": Asking "why" may make the client feel defensive and pressured to justify their feelings, which is not therapeutic.
C. "Do you have anyone you can talk to about your diagnosis?" This response encourages the client to reflect on their support system, which may help reduce feelings of isolation. It also shows empathy and invites further conversation without making assumptions.
D. "I am so sorry about your diagnosis. You must be devastated.": While it shows sympathy, it assumes the client’s feelings and may inadvertently heighten the client’s sense of distress without providing support.
During change-of-shift report, a nurse discovers they overlooked a prescription for a type and cross-match of a client who is to have surgery the next day. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
A. Prepare an incident report for risk management: While this is necessary, it’s not the priority action as it doesn’t directly address the immediate need for type and cross-matching.
B. Inform the provider of the delay in obtaining the type and cross-match: The nurse should inform the provider first to allow for any changes to the client's preoperative plan. Immediate notification is essential for any follow-up actions, as blood products might be required, or surgery could be rescheduled if the match is not completed.
C. Obtain the client's type and cross-match: This action would be appropriate if it had not already been ordered. Since the order exists, the provider should be informed of the delay first to guide further steps.
D. Document the incident in the client's medical record: Documentation is important but should occur after informing the provider and obtaining the blood work, as it does not directly address the current client care needs.
A nurse says to their nurse manager that, "I'm the only one on my team who is working hard." Which of the following responses should the nurse manager make?
Explanation
A. "You must feel frustrated." This response is therapeutic and validates the nurse’s feelings, encouraging the nurse to open up about their frustration without feeling judged or defensive.
B. "Why do you feel upset about this?": Asking “why” may make the nurse defensive and feel as though they need to justify their feelings.
C. "You should be working harder.": This is unsupportive and could worsen the nurse’s frustration, possibly making them feel criticized or undervalued.
D. "I will reprimand your team members.": This response is reactive and could disrupt team dynamics without addressing the underlying issue. It does not support open communication.
A nurse at a long-term care facility is assessing a client who just received hearing aids. Which of the following actions should indicate to the nurse that the client understands how to use the hearing aids? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Cleanses the ear molds with isopropyl alcohol to remove cerumen: Alcohol is not recommended for cleaning hearing aids, as it can damage the device. A mild soap and water solution or a designated cleaning tool is preferable.
B. Turns off the hearing aids when not in use: Turning off hearing aids conserves battery life, which is a proper maintenance practice.
C. Inspects the ear molds to determine the ear canal portion: Properly positioning the hearing aids ensures correct use and comfort.
D. Turns the volume all the way down before inserting the hearing aids: This prevents a sudden loud noise that could startle the client and allows them to adjust to a comfortable volume after insertion.
E. Ensures that the ears are not blocked with cerumen: Blocked cerumen can interfere with hearing aid functionality, so this is an essential step.
Select the sequence of techniques used during an examination of the abdomen.
Explanation
A. Percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation: This sequence could disturb bowel sounds by percussing before auscultation, making it difficult to assess them accurately.
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation: Palpating before auscultating can alter bowel sounds, so it’s not the correct order.
C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation: This sequence is recommended for abdominal assessment to avoid altering bowel sounds. Inspection is done first to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by auscultation to listen to bowel sounds before palpating or percussing, which could disrupt the sounds.
D. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion: Inspection should always be first, making this option incorrect as it begins with auscultation.
The nurse is conducting a focused assessment of a client who is experiencing pain. Which question should the nurse ask the client?
Explanation
A. "When did your pain symptoms begin?" When conducting a focused assessment on pain, the nurse should gather specific details about the onset, location, duration, characteristics, and aggravating/relieving factors. Asking when the pain symptoms began helps clarify the onset, which is critical in assessing the pain's cause and severity.
B. "Do you think you know what caused the swelling?": This is less focused on pain and more on swelling, which may not be the client's main concern.
C. "What brings you to the clinic today?": While this is a good general question, it is not focused on pain and would not gather specific pain-related information.
D. "Can you go over what you said about nothing relieving the pain?": This question is not as open-ended or specific to a focused pain assessment as asking about onset.
The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for:
Explanation
A. 2 full minutes: Listening for 2 minutes is insufficient to determine the absence of bowel sounds reliably.
B. 1 full minute: One minute is also too brief, as bowel sounds can sometimes be infrequent, especially in certain conditions.
C. 5 full minutes. The absence of bowel sounds is confirmed after listening in each quadrant for a minimum of 5 full minutes. This is necessary to ensure that the lack of sounds is not due to temporary decreased activity and is instead a true absence, which may indicate a medical emergency like a bowel obstruction.
D. 1 1/2 minutes: This time is not long enough to confirm the absence of bowel sounds accurately.
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