ATI > LPN

Exam Review

ATI PN Custom Cohert 6 Mid term Remidiation Cloned Assessment 1 Updated 2024

Total Questions : 45

Showing 25 questions, Sign in for more
Question 1: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a female client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for dantrolene.
Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant used for relief of cramping, spasms, and tightness of muscles caused by multiple sclerosis. So, it should be taken regularly, not just when spasms are bad.

Choice B rationale:

While it’s important to communicate with the healthcare provider about the effectiveness of the medication, three months is a long time to wait without relief. The timeline should be discussed with the healthcare provider.

Choice C rationale:

The safety of dantrolene during pregnancy is not explicitly stated in the sources. It’s crucial to consult with a healthcare provider about this.

Choice D rationale:

There’s no specific mention of needing to check calcium levels while on dantrolene. Regular follow-ups for overall health monitoring are necessary, but this statement is not directly related to dantrolene use.

So, the correct answer is A.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 2:

A nurse is preparing to administer lurasidone 120 mg PO for a client who has schizophrenia.

Available is lurasidone 40 mg tablets.

How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.).

 

Explanation

Step 1 is: Divide the total dosage needed (120 mg) by the strength of each tablet (40 mg). So, 120 mg ÷ 40 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.
So, the correct answer is3 tablets.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 3: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Parkinson's disease.
The client tells the nurse that he gets nausea when he takes his prescribed levodopa/carbidopa.
Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend the client take with the medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 4: .A nurse is caring for a client who states, "I am not going to take my medication anymore.”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Asking “Why don’t you want to take the medication?” can help the nurse understand the client’s concerns or fears about the medication. However, it may come across as confrontational.

Choice B rationale:

Saying “I always do what the doctor tells me to do” does not address the client’s concerns and imposes the nurse’s personal beliefs on the client.

Choice C rationale:

Asking “Tell me more about this decision” is an open-ended question that encourages the client to express their feelings and concerns, allowing the nurse to provide appropriate education and support.

Choice D rationale:

Telling the client “You won’t get better unless you take the medication” is a threatening statement that does not respect the client’s autonomy or feelings.

So, the correct answer is C, “Tell me more about this decision.”.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 5:

A nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin 75 mg PO. Available is phenytoin suspension 25 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.

Explanation

Step 1 is to determine how many milligrams are in each milliliter of the suspension. This is done by dividing the total milligrams by the total milliliters: 25 mg ÷ 5 mL = 5 mg/mL. Step 2 is to determine how many milliliters are needed to administer 75 mg. This is done by dividing the desired milligrams by the milligrams per milliliter: 75 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 15 mL.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 6:

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing set is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.

Explanation

Step 1 is to determine the total volume to be infused in minutes. This is done by multiplying the total volume by the drop factor: (1000 mL ÷ 480 min) × 15 gtt/mL = 31.25 gtt/min.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 7: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for phenytoin.
The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client should indeed notify their provider before taking any other medications, as phenytoin can interact with many other drugs. This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.

Choice B rationale:

Regular dental appointments are important as phenytoin can cause gum hyperplasia. This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.

Choice C rationale:

This statement indicates a misunderstanding. Phenytoin is used to control seizures, not cure them. The client should not stop taking the medication when their seizures stop.

Choice D rationale:

Phenytoin can be taken with or without food, but it should be taken consistently in the same manner. This statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.

So, the correct answer is C, after analyzing all choices.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 8: .A nurse is administering risperidone to a client who has schizophrenia.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Risperidone can indeed increase triglyceride levels. The nurse should monitor this.

Choice B rationale:

Risperidone is more likely to cause weight gain, not weight loss. This is not a common adverse effect.

Choice C rationale:

Risperidone does not typically elevate blood pressure. This is not a common adverse effect.

Choice D rationale:

Risperidone does not typically decrease blood glucose levels. This is not a common adverse effect.

So, the correct answer is A, after analyzing all choices.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 9: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for lithium carbonate to treat bipolar disorder.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client should maintain a normal fluid intake while taking lithium, not limit it to 800 ounces per day.

Choice B rationale:

Lithium can be taken with or without food. This instruction is not necessary.

Choice C rationale:

It can indeed take up to 3 weeks to see the full effects of lithium. This is a correct instruction.

Choice D rationale:

The client should maintain a normal sodium diet while taking lithium, not a low-sodium diet.

So, the correct answer is C, after analyzing all choices.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 10: .A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching for a client who will continue to take lithium carbonate at home to manage bipolar disorder.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when reinforcing the teaching?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Withholding the dose if having a fine hand tremor is not recommended. Hand tremors are a common side effect of lithium, but they can be managed by adjusting the dose.

Choice B rationale:

Avoiding foods with a high tyramine content is not necessary for lithium users. This dietary restriction is typically associated with certain antidepressants, not lithium.

Choice C rationale:

Limiting daily fluid intake is incorrect. Lithium can cause increased thirst and urination, so it’s important to maintain adequate hydration.

Choice D rationale:

Following a low-sodium diet is not advised. Both salt and fluid can affect the levels of lithium in your blood, so it’s important to consume a steady amount every day.

So, the correct answer is, none of the above.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 11: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis and is to start taking neostigmine.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Treating nasal rhinitis with an over-the-counter antihistamine is not directly related to neostigmine use or myasthenia gravis.

Choice B rationale:

If a medication dose is missed, wait until the next scheduled dose to take the medication is not the best advice. Neostigmine should be taken at regular intervals for maximum effectiveness.

Choice C rationale:

Expecting diaphoresis as a side effect of the neostigmine is not accurate. Diaphoresis is not a common side effect of neostigmine.

Choice D rationale:

Taking the medication 45 minutes before eating is correct. This timing helps maximize the medication’s effectiveness during meals, when muscle strength for swallowing is crucial.

So, the correct answer is,

D.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 12:

 

.A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with the care of a client who has myasthenia gravis and is in crisis.
The nurse should identify that which of the following factors can cause a myasthenic crisis?.

 

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Developing a respiratory infection can indeed trigger a myasthenic crisis. Any form of stress on the body, including infections, can exacerbate symptoms.

Choice B rationale:

Taking too much prescribed medication is not typically a cause of myasthenic crisis. However, medication changes should always be managed carefully.

Choice Crationale:

Insufficient sleep can contribute to overall stress and fatigue, potentially exacerbating symptoms, but it is not a primary cause of myasthenic crisis.

Choice Drationale:

Insufficient exercise is not a known trigger for myasthenic crisis. While regular exercise can help manage symptoms, lack of exercise is not a direct cause.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 13: .A nurse is modifying the diet of a client who has Parkinson's disease and a prescription for selegiline, a monamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which of the following foods should the nurse eliminate from the client's diet?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Fresh fish is not a food that needs to be eliminated from the diet of a client taking an MAOI like selegiline. It does not contain tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis in clients taking MAOIs.

Choice B rationale:

Cheddar cheese is a food high in tyramine and should be eliminated from the diet of a client taking an MAOI. Consuming foods high in tyramine can lead to a hypertensive crisis in these clients.

Choice C rationale:

Cherries are not a food that needs to be eliminated from the diet of a client taking an MAOI. They do not contain tyramine.

Choice D rationale:

Chicken is not a food that needs to be eliminated from the diet of a client taking an MAOI. It does not contain tyramine.

So, the correct answer is B. Cheddar cheese.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 14: .A nurse is caring for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and is confused.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Keeping the television on at all times can increase confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer’s disease due to the constant noise and changing images.

Choice B rationale:

Abstract pictures can be confusing and disorienting for clients with Alzheimer’s disease. It’s better to use simple, familiar images.

Choice C rationale:

Keeping familiar personal items in the client’s room can help orient the client to their surroundings and decrease confusion.

Choice D rationale:

Bright lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer’s disease by making the environment clear and easy to navigate.

So, the correct answer is C. Keep familiar personal items in client’s room.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 15: .A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is checking the bowel sounds of a client who has epilepsy.
The client begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure.
Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should follow.
(Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the selected order of performance.
Use all the steps.).

Explanation

Step 1 is B. Remain with the client and call for help. This ensures the client’s safety and gets additional assistance. Step 2 is D. Place the client in the lateral position. This prevents aspiration if the client vomits. Step 3 is C. Check the client for injuries. After the seizure has ended, the nurse should assess for any injuries that may have occurred during the seizure. Step 4 is A. Reorient and reassure the client. After a seizure, the client may be confused and scared. Reorienting and reassuring the client can help them recover. So, the correct sequence is B, D, C,

A.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 16: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who takes lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder.
For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of lithium carbonate?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Constipation is not a common side effect of lithium carbonate.

Choice B rationale:

Thyroid enlargement is a known side effect of lithium carbonate. Lithium can cause hypothyroidism, which may result in an enlarged thyroid.

Choice C rationale:

Hyporeflexia is not typically associated with lithium carbonate use.

Choice D rationale:

Elevated blood pressure is not a common side effect of lithium carbonate.

So, the correct answer is B.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 17:

A nurse is preparing to administer amitriptyline 150 mg PO. The amount available is amitriptyline 75 mg/ tablet.
How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.
Use a leading zero if it applies.
Do not use a trailing zero

Explanation

Step 1 is: Identify the prescribed dose, which is 150 mg. Step 2 is: Identify the available dose, which is 75 mg per tablet. Step 3 is: Divide the prescribed dose by the available dose. So, 150 mg ÷ 75 mg/tablet. Step 4 is: The result is 2 tablets.

So, the correct answer is 2 tablets.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 18: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for baclofen.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and antispastic agent. It can cause drowsiness and affect the ability to drive or operate machinery. Therefore, it’s advisable to avoid driving until the medication’s effects are evident.

Choice B rationale:

Headache is not a reason to stop taking baclofen. If a headache occurs, the client should consult with their healthcare provider for appropriate management.

Choice C rationale:

Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of baclofen. More common side effects include drowsiness, dizziness, weakness, and fatigue.

Choice D rationale:

Baclofen can be taken with or without food. Taking it on an empty stomach is not necessary and may increase the risk of stomach upset.

So, the correct answer is A.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 19:

A nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 2 mg PO. Available is lorazepam 1 mg tablets.
How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.
Use a leading zero if it applies.
Do not use a trailing zero

No explanation


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 20:

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO for a client who is experiencing parkinsonism due to an antipsychotic medication.

Available is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL oral solution.

How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero

Explanation

Step 1 is to determine the amount of amantadine needed. The prescription is for 150 mg and the available solution is 50 mg/5 mL. Step 2 is to set up a proportion to find the volume needed: (150 mg ÷ 50 mg) × 5 mL. This gives us 15 mL.

So, the correct answer is 15 mL.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 21: .A nurse is collecting data from a client who has just begun therapy with alprazolam to treat anxiety.
The nurse should observe the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Bradycardia is not a common side effect of alprazolam.

Choice B rationale:

Hypertension is not typically associated with alprazolam use.

Choice C rationale:

Sedation is a common side effect of alprazolam, as it is a benzodiazepine and has a calming effect on the brain.

Choice D rationale:

Hearing loss is not a known side effect of alprazolam.

So, the correct answer is C, Sedation.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 22: .A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records of a group of clients who have been newly admitted to a long-term care facility.
Which of the following clients should the nurse monitor for extrapyramidal symptoms?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Antipsychotic medications can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which include involuntary muscle contractions and tremors.

Choice B rationale:

Insulin, used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, does not typically cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

Choice C rationale:

Pancreatic enzymes, used to treat chronic pancreatitis, are not associated with extrapyramidal symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

Beta-adrenergic blockers, used to treat hypertension, do not typically cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

So, the correct answer is A, A client who has schizophrenia and is taking an antipsychotic medication.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 23: .A nurse is preparing to administer ofloxacin otic drops to an adult client who has otitis externa.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Chilling the medication prior to administration is not necessary and could cause dizziness.

Choice B rationale:

Holding the dropper against the ear canal while instilling the medication is not recommended.

Choice C rationale:

Applying gentle pressure with a finger to the tragus of the ear can help the drops to pass into the middle ear.

Choice D rationale:

Straightening the external auditory canal by pulling it down and back can help the eardrops to flow down into the ear canal.

So, the correct answer is D, Straighten the external auditory canal by pulling it down and back.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 24: .A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Relaxing in a hot tub spa each day is not recommended for MS patients as heat can exacerbate symptoms.

Choice B rationale:

Implementing a schedule to include periods of rest is beneficial as fatigue is a common symptom of MS12.

Choice C rationale:

Waiting to perform difficult tasks until later in the day is not necessarily beneficial as fatigue can occur at any time.

Choice D rationale:

Limiting intake of dairy products is not specifically related to managing MS12.

So, the correct answer is B.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 25: .A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease.
The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Slow pulse is not a common side effect of benztropine.

Choice B rationale:

Difficulty voiding is a known side effect of benztropine due to its anticholinergic effects.

Choice C rationale:

Excessive salivation is not a common side effect of benztropine, dry mouth is more common.

Choice D rationale:

Diarrhea is not a common side effect of benztropine, constipation is more common.

So, the correct answer is B.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 45 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Sign Up Now
learning