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ATI PN Custom Pharmacology

Total Questions : 40

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Question 1:

A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650 mg PO. Available is aspirin 325 mg tablets.

How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.) Tablets.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 tablets.


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Question 2:

Which life stage pertains to a 65-year-old patient?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The term “Aged” is not a specific life stage and can refer to anyone who is old, without specifying an age range.
Choice B rationale:
“Elderly” is often used to refer to individuals who are in their 80s or 90s, which is older than 653.
Choice C rationale:
“Adult” typically refers to individuals in the age range of 18 to 64 years, so a 65-year-old would not fall into this category.
Choice D rationale:
“Older adult” is a term often used to refer to individuals who are 65 years and older. So, the correct answer is Choice D, Older adult.


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Question 3:

Which difference in pharmacokinetics does the nurse expect in the obese patient as compared with the thin patient with administration of a highly lipid-soluble drug?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Drug distribution will not necessarily be more rapid in an obese patient. The distribution depends on the volume of distribution of the drug and the body composition.
Choice B rationale:
Drug metabolism may not be incomplete in an obese patient. It depends on various factors including liver function.
Choice C rationale:
Drug absorption is not typically impaired in obese patients.
Choice D rationale:
Drug elimination can be slowed in obese patients, especially for lipid-soluble drugs. This is because the increased fat stores in obese patients can serve as a reservoir for lipid-soluble drugs, slowing their elimination. So, the correct answer is Choice C, Drug elimination will be slowed.


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Question 4:

Which terminology correctly identifies the NMDS classification system?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The Nursing Minimum Data Set (NMDS) is a classification system that allows for the standardized collection of essential nursing data. This aligns with the terminology in the question.
Choice B rationale:
The term New Medicine Detail Service does not align with the NMDS acronym and does not appear to be a recognized classification system in healthcare.
Choice C rationale:
The term National Medicine Details Set does not align with the NMDS acronym and does not appear to be a recognized classification system in healthcare.
Choice D rationale:
The term Nursing & Medicine Data Service does not align with the NMDS acronym and does not appear to be a recognized classification system in healthcare.


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Question 5:

Which assessment finding is considered primary objective information?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The patient reporting a sore throat after taking his regular medications is subjective information because it is based on the patient’s personal experience and feelings.
Choice B rationale:
The patient’s daughter stating her father often forgets to take his medication is also subjective information as it is based on the daughter’s observations and perceptions.
Choice C rationale:
The patient stating he feels dizzy whenever he takes his medication is subjective information because it is based on the patient’s personal experience and feelings.
Choice D rationale:
The patient stating that his temperature has been 88.8F is objective information because it is a measurable fact.


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Question 6:

A patient is taking an antacid concurrently with ketoconazole.

The antacid inhibits the dissolution of ketoconazole.

Which term accurately describes this result?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
An allergic reaction refers to an immune response to a foreign substance. It does not describe the interaction between an antacid and ketoconazole.
Choice B rationale:
Displacement refers to one drug replacing another at the drug-binding site on proteins, altering the distribution of the displaced drug. It does not describe the interaction between an antacid and ketoconazole.
Choice C rationale:
Accumulation refers to the buildup of a drug in the body due to inadequate metabolism or excretion. It does not describe the interaction between an antacid and ketoconazole.
Choice D rationale:
A drug interaction occurs when the effect of one drug is altered by the administration of another drug. Antacids can slow the dissolution and absorption of ketoconazole, which is a type of drug interaction.


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Question 7:

Which guideline does the nurse follow when administering oral medication to a preschool child?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Using a follow-up rinse with a flavored drink is a common practice when administering oral medication to a preschool child. This helps mask the taste of the medication, making it more palatable for the child.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the capsule or tablet under the tongue (sublingual administration) is not typically recommended for preschool children due to the risk of choking.
Choice C rationale:
Supporting the child’s head and holding the child in the lap can be helpful but is not a specific guideline for administering oral medication.
Choice D rationale:
Using chewable tablets can be an option if the child’s teeth are not loose. However, it’s not a general guideline as not all medications come in chewable form.


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Question 8:

Which is the best description of a toxic reaction to a drug?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
A toxic reaction to a drug is best described as a deleterious adverse effect. It is capable of causing injury or death.
Choice B rationale:
An individual’s unexpected effect refers to idiosyncratic reactions, which are unpredictable and vary from person to person.
Choice C rationale:
Physiologic dependence refers to the body’s adaptation to a drug, requiring more of it to achieve a certain effect. It’s not a toxic reaction.
Choice D rationale:
Psychological craving is associated with addiction, not a toxic reaction to a drug.


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Question 9:

Which factors affect the gastrointestinal absorption of medicines? (Select all that apply.) Select 4 options.

(Select All that Apply.).

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The blood flow of the mucous lining of the stomach and intestines can affect how quickly a drug is absorbed.
Choice B rationale:
Drug distribution refers to how a drug spreads throughout the body, not its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice C rationale:
Enzyme activity can affect how a drug is metabolized and absorbed.
Choice D rationale:
Gastric pH can affect drug absorption as some drugs are better absorbed in an acidic environment, while others are better absorbed in an alkaline environment.
Choice E rationale:
Gastric emptying time can affect drug absorption. Drugs may stay in contact with the absorptive tissue longer if the gastric emptying time is slower, allowing for increased absorption.


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Question 10:

Which type of nursing action occurs when the nurse administers a medication to a patient?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Administering a medication to a patient is a Dependent nursing action because it requires a doctor’s order.
Choice B rationale:
Interdependent actions are those performed jointly with other healthcare team members, which is not the case here.
Choice C rationale:
Collaborative actions involve working closely with other healthcare professionals, but administering medication is typically a nurse’s responsibility.
Choice D rationale:
Independent nursing actions are those a nurse can take without a physician’s order, which doesn’t apply to medication administration.


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Question 11:

The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications.

Which action(s) does the nurse implement to identify the patient before administering medications? (Select all that apply).

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Checking the patient’s identification band is a standard procedure to ensure the right patient is receiving the medication.

Choice B rationale:

Asking another nurse to identify the patient is not a reliable method and could lead to errors.

Choice C rationale:

Checking the name on the foot of the bed is not a reliable method as it could be incorrect.

Choice D rationale:

Asking the roommate to verify the patient’s name is not a reliable or confidential method.


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Question 12:

Which action should be implemented next when a patient states they are allergic to the medication the nurse is ready to administer?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Giving the medication as ordered despite the patient’s stated allergy could lead to a severe allergic reaction.
Choice B rationale:
While checking the drug insert for information on reactions to the drug is important, the immediate action should be to withhold the medication.
Choice C rationale:
Withholding the medication and notifying the prescriber of the situation is the safest course of action when a patient states they are allergic to the medication.
Choice D rationale:
Giving the medication and monitoring the patient for adverse effects is not safe if the patient has stated they are allergic to the medication.


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Question 13:

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 500 mg PO. Available is amoxicillin 250 mg tablets.

How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.) tablets.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 tablets. Step 1 is to divide the prescribed dose by the available dose. So, 500 mg ÷ 250 mg = 2. Rationale: The nurse needs to administer the amount of medication that will equal the prescribed dose. Since each tablet contains 250 mg of amoxicillin, two tablets will provide the 500 mg dose.

So, the correct answer is 2 tablets.


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Question 14:

Which life stage pertains to a 40-year-old patient?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The term “Aged” generally refers to individuals who are in the late stages of life, often those over 652. This does not apply to a 40-year-old patient.
Choice B rationale:
“Elderly” is a term often used to refer to individuals who are 65 years of age or older. A 40-year-old patient does not fall into this category.
Choice C rationale:
A 40-year-old patient is considered an “Adult”. According to Erikson’s stages of development, the stage of “generativity vs. stagnation” begins at age 40 and lasts until age 653.
Choice D rationale:
“Older adult” typically refers to individuals who are in their late 60s and beyond. This does not apply to a 40-year-old patient.


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Question 15:

Which effect of protein binding on drugs in the bloodstream is accurate?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Protein binding does not inactivate the drug. Instead, it can affect the drug’s distribution and bioavailability.
Choice B rationale:
Protein binding does not directly increase the risk of an allergic reaction. Allergic reactions are typically immune responses to a drug, not a result of protein binding.
Choice C rationale:
An idiosyncratic reaction is an unusual or unexpected reaction to a drug, which is not related to protein binding.
Choice D rationale:
Protein binding can lead to the accumulation of the drug. Drugs often cannot cross membranes mainly due to the high molecular mass of the drug-protein complex, resulting in the accumulation of the active compounds.


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Question 16:

Which phenomenon occurs in the body as a person ages?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Protein needs do not necessarily accentuate with age. In fact, they may decrease due to reduced physical activity and metabolic rate.

Choice B rationale:

Total fat content does not decrease with age. It’s common for fat distribution to change and increase in certain areas.

Choice C rationale:

Total body water does not increase with age. It usually decreases due to the loss of muscle mass and increase in fat content.

Choice D rationale:

Lean body mass decreases as a person ages. This is a common phenomenon due to changes in cells and tissues.


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Question 17:

Which symptom is the most common with a hypersensitivity reaction to a medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common symptom of a hypersensitivity reaction to a medication.
Choice B rationale:
Vomiting can occur but it is not the most common symptom.
Choice C rationale:
Wheezing can be a symptom of a severe allergic reaction, but it is not the most common.
Choice D rationale:
Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction, but it is not the most common symptom.


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Question 18:

Which aspect of pharmacokinetics should the nurse be most concerned with when caring for a patient with abnormal functioning of hepatic enzymes?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Absorption is not primarily affected by the functioning of hepatic enzymes.

Choice B rationale:

Distribution is not the main concern when dealing with abnormal functioning of hepatic enzymes.

Choice C rationale:

Excretion is mainly a function of the kidneys, not the liver.

Choice D rationale:

Metabolism is the aspect of pharmacokinetics most affected by the functioning of hepatic enzymes. The liver plays a crucial role in the metabolism of drugs.


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Question 19:

Which factor associated with aging increases the risk of gastric irritation from nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) in older adults?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Decreased splanchnic blood flow can affect drug absorption and metabolism, but it does not directly increase the risk of gastric irritation from NSAIDs.

Choice B rationale:

Prolonged secretion of gastric acid can contribute to conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), but it is not the primary factor increasing the risk of gastric irritation from NSAIDs in older adults.

Choice C rationale:

Delayed gastric emptying is the correct answer. It allows drugs to stay in contact with the stomach lining for a longer time, which can increase the risk of gastric irritation from NSAIDs.

Choice D rationale:

Loss of cells from the gastric plexus can affect gastric function, but it is not directly linked to an increased risk of gastric irritation from NSAIDs.


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Question 20:

Which potential reaction causes the most concern when administering medication to a patient with decreased albumin and globulin levels?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
An increase in the amount of lipid-soluble drugs in the system can occur with decreased albumin and globulin levels, but it does not cause the most concern.
Choice B rationale:
Increased free protein-bound drugs available can lead to an increased potential for adverse drug reactions. This is because these drugs are usually more active and can lead to toxicity.
Choice C rationale:
Water-soluble drugs being absorbed more completely is not typically a concern with decreased albumin and globulin levels.
Choice D rationale:
While metabolism of protein-bound drugs may be decreased, leading to an increased potential for adverse reactions, this is not the primary concern with decreased albumin and globulin levels.


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Question 21:

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 300 mg PO. The amount available is amoxicillin oral solution 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth/whole number.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.) mL.

Explanation

Step 1 is to determine the amount of amoxicillin in each mL of the solution. This is done by dividing the total amount of amoxicillin in the solution (250 mg) by the total volume of the solution (5 mL). So, 250 mg ÷ 5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Step 2 is to determine how many mL of the solution is needed to administer 300 mg of amoxicillin.

This is done by dividing the desired dose (300 mg) by the amount of amoxicillin per mL (50 mg/mL). So, 300 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 6 mL.

So, the nurse should administer 6 mL of the amoxicillin oral solution. .


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Question 22:

Which step of the nursing process is used when the nurse identifies the therapeutic intent of a prescribed medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Evaluation is the final step in the nursing process where the nurse determines if the goals set in the planning stage have been met. This does not involve identifying the therapeutic intent of a medication.
Choice B rationale:
Assessment is the first step in the nursing process where the nurse gathers information about the patient’s physical, psychological, sociocultural, and spiritual status. While this may involve understanding the patient’s medication regimen, it does not specifically involve identifying the therapeutic intent of a medication.
Choice C rationale:
Planning involves setting goals and developing a plan to meet those goals. While this may involve considering the therapeutic intent of a medication, it is not the step where this identification occurs.
Choice D rationale:
Implementation is the step of the nursing process where the nurse executes the plan of care. This includes identifying the therapeutic intent of a prescribed medication.


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Question 23:

Which goal is a measurable statement for a patient taking insulin injections?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This statement is measurable because it provides a specific timeframe (2 weeks after initial training) for the patient to be able to self-administer insulin injections.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is about the nurse’s actions, not a goal for the patient.

Choice C rationale:

While understanding how insulin works in the body is important, this statement is not measurable.

Choice D rationale:

Understanding a diabetic diet is important for a patient taking insulin, but this statement does not provide a measurable goal.


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Question 24:

Which aspect of genetic makeup is most likely to alter a person's response to medication?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
While distribution can affect a person’s response to medication, it is not the aspect of genetic makeup most likely to alter this response.
Choice B rationale:
Absorption can affect how a drug is taken up by the body, but it is not the aspect of genetic makeup most likely to alter a person’s response to medication.
Choice C rationale:
Excretion, or how the body eliminates a drug, can affect drug response, but it is not the aspect of genetic makeup most likely to alter this response.
Choice D rationale:
Metabolism, or how the body processes a drug, is the aspect of genetic makeup most likely to alter a person’s response to medication. Genetic differences can lead to variations in drug-metabolizing enzymes, affecting how quickly or slowly drugs are metabolized.


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Question 25:

Which task is included in the assessment step of the nursing process?.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Measuring goal/outcome achievement is part of the evaluation step of the nursing process, not the assessment step.

Choice B rationale:

Collecting and communicating data is indeed part of the assessment step of the nursing process. This step involves gathering information about the patient’s health.

Choice C rationale:

Establishing patient goals/outcomes is part of the planning step, not the assessment step.

Choice D rationale:

Implementing the nursing care plan (NCP) is part of the implementation step, not the assessment step.


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