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Ati PN Maternal Newborn 2023

Total Questions : 53

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Question 1:

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who was admitted to the postpartum unit. The client is diaphoretic, skin is clammy, pulse is rapid and strong, respirations are shallow. The client reports headache, nausea, and feeling weak.

 

Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering oxygen may help with symptoms like headache and weakness, but it does not address the underlying issue of poor circulation and potential shock. Elevating the legs is more effective in improving blood flow to vital organs.

Choice B rationale

Offering an ice pack is not appropriate for the symptoms described. The client is showing signs of shock, and an ice pack would not address the underlying issue.

Choice C rationale

Providing a warm blanket may offer comfort, but it does not address the symptoms of shock. Elevating the legs is a more direct intervention to improve circulation and stabilize the client.

Choice D rationale

Elevating the client’s legs helps improve venous return to the heart, increasing cardiac output and stabilizing blood pressure. This is a critical intervention for a client showing signs of shock.


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Question 2:

A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum.

 

Which of the following laboratory tests is the priority to complete?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Serum bilirubin is not the priority test for hyperemesis gravidarum. It is more relevant for assessing liver function and jaundice.

Choice B rationale

Liver enzymes may be elevated in hyperemesis gravidarum, but they are not the priority test. The primary concern is dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

Choice C rationale

A CBC can provide information on the client’s overall health, but it is not the priority test for hyperemesis gravidarum. The focus should be on assessing hydration status.

Choice D rationale

Urinalysis for ketones is the priority test because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition. The presence of ketones indicates that the body is breaking down fat for energy, which is a sign of inadequate caloric intake.


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Question 3:

A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago and reports perineal pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Applying a corticosteroid cream is not appropriate for acute perineal pain. It is more suitable for chronic inflammation or skin conditions.

Choice B rationale

Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for overall health, but it does not directly address acute perineal pain.

Choice C rationale

Catheterizing the bladder is not indicated for perineal pain unless there is a specific issue with urinary retention.

Choice D rationale

Offering an ice pack helps reduce swelling and numb the area, providing immediate relief for acute perineal pain. It is a standard intervention for postpartum perineal discomfort.


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Question 4:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about various contraceptive methods. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Oral contraceptives decrease the risk for endometrial cancer by regulating the menstrual cycle and reducing the frequency of ovulation, which lowers the exposure of the endometrium to estrogen.

Choice B rationale

Combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pills typically shorten and lighten menstrual periods, rather than causing longer periods.

Choice C rationale

Medroxyprogesterone acetate injections are administered every three months, not once per month.

Choice D rationale

Diaphragms need to be replaced every 1-2 years, not every 4 years, to ensure proper fit and effectiveness.


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Question 5:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about preventing mastitis with a client who is breastfeeding.Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Using a breast pump can help maintain milk supply if the client plans to return to work, but it does not directly prevent mastitis.

Choice B rationale

Covering the breasts immediately after feedings is not necessary and does not prevent mastitis. Proper hygiene and feeding techniques are more important.

Choice C rationale

Wearing an underwire bra can restrict milk flow and increase the risk of mastitis. A well-fitting, non-restrictive bra is recommended.

Choice D rationale

Washing nipples with soap and water daily can cause dryness and irritation, increasing the risk of mastitis. It is better to clean the nipples with water only and ensure proper latch and feeding techniques. .


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Question 6:

A nurse is planning to administer Rh(D) immune globulin to a client who is postpartum.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Verifying that the newborn is Rh-negative is not necessary for administering Rh(D) immune globulin. The medication is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh sensitization, regardless of the newborn’s Rh status.

Choice B rationale

A positive Coombs test indicates that the mother has already been sensitized to Rh-positive blood cells, making Rh(D) immune globulin ineffective in preventing sensitization.

Choice C rationale

Administering Rh(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after birth is crucial to prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. This timing ensures that the mother’s immune system does not produce antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells.

Choice D rationale

Rh(D) immune globulin is typically administered intramuscularly, not into the abdomen. The preferred sites are the deltoid muscle or the anterolateral aspect of the thigh.


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Question 7:

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and has a vaginal culture that is positive for chlamydia.Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause fetal harm, including teeth discoloration and inhibition of bone growth.

Choice B rationale

Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections, not chlamydia.

Choice C rationale

Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis, not chlamydia.

Choice D rationale

Amoxicillin is a safe and effective antibiotic for treating chlamydia in pregnant women. It is preferred due to its safety profile and effectiveness.


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Question 8:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation and whose last appointment was 1 month ago.Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A BP of 132/84 mm Hg is within the normal range for a pregnant woman and does not require immediate reporting.

Choice B rationale

A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in one month is within the expected range for a pregnant woman at 26 weeks gestation.

Choice C rationale

Pedal edema is a common symptom in pregnancy and is usually not a cause for concern unless accompanied by other symptoms.

Choice D rationale

Double vision is a concerning symptom that could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia. It should be reported to the provider immediately.


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Question 9:

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching about home safety with a client who is postpartum.In which of the following positions should the nurse instruct the client to place their newborn in the crib?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing a newborn in the right lateral position is not recommended as it increases the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)4.

Choice B rationale

Placing a newborn in the left lateral position is also not recommended for the same reasons as the right lateral position.

Choice C rationale

Placing a newborn in the prone position (on their stomach) significantly increases the risk of SIDS and is not recommended.

Choice D rationale

Placing a newborn in the supine position (on their back) is the safest position for sleep and is recommended to reduce the risk of SIDS4.


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Question 10:

A nurse in a provider’s office is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and is scheduled for a nonstress test.

 

Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

There is no need to fast before a nonstress test. The test measures the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements and does not require any dietary restrictions.

Choice B rationale

During a nonstress test, the client will press a button whenever they feel the baby move. This helps correlate fetal movements with heart rate changes.

Choice C rationale

The client is not required to lie flat on their back for the duration of the test. They can be in a semi-reclined position to ensure comfort and avoid supine hypotensive syndrome.

Choice D rationale

Medication to stimulate contractions is not used during a nonstress test. This is done during a contraction stress test, which is a different procedure.


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Question 11:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about outpatient resources for a client who is recovering from a molar pregnancy.Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Home palliative services are typically provided for patients with terminal illnesses or those requiring end-of-life care. A molar pregnancy, while serious, does not usually necessitate palliative care. Instead, the focus is on monitoring and follow-up to ensure complete removal of molar tissue and to detect any potential complications, such as gestational trophoblastic neoplasia.

Choice B rationale

Amniocentesis is a procedure used to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections, typically performed during the second trimester of pregnancy. It is not relevant for a patient recovering from a molar pregnancy, as there is no viable fetus involved.

Choice C rationale

Chemotherapy may be required if there is evidence of persistent gestational trophoblastic disease or choriocarcinoma, but it is not an immediate requirement for all patients recovering from a molar pregnancy. The need for chemotherapy would be determined based on follow-up hCG levels and other diagnostic tests.

Choice D rationale

Attending a support group is an important aspect of emotional and psychological recovery after a molar pregnancy. Support groups provide a space for patients to share their experiences, receive emotional support, and gain information about their condition and recovery process.


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Question 12:

A nurse is checking the reflexes of a newborn.Which of the following actions should the nurse use to elicit the Babinski reflex?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing the newborn supine and applying pressure to the soles of the feet is not the correct method to elicit the Babinski reflex. This action does not stimulate the appropriate nerve pathways involved in the reflex.

Choice B rationale

Stroking upward on the lateral aspect of the sole of the newborn’s foot is the correct method to elicit the Babinski reflex. This action stimulates the plantar reflex, causing the big toe to extend upward and the other toes to fan out.

Choice C rationale

Pulling the newborn up by the wrist from a supine position is used to elicit the traction response, not the Babinski reflex. The traction response involves the newborn flexing their arms and attempting to lift their head.

Choice D rationale

Touching the corner of the newborn’s mouth elicits the rooting reflex, not the Babinski reflex. The rooting reflex causes the newborn to turn their head toward the stimulus and open their mouth.


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Question 13:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about car seat safety with a parent of a newborn.Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing the retainer clip at the level of the baby’s armpits is the correct position for the clip. This ensures that the harness straps are positioned correctly over the baby’s shoulders, providing optimal protection in the event of a crash.

Choice B rationale

Placing the baby in the car seat at a 90-degree angle is incorrect. Newborns should be placed in a rear-facing car seat at an angle of approximately 45 degrees to ensure their airway remains open and to provide proper support for their head and neck.

Choice C rationale

Turning the car seat to face forward when the baby weighs 15 pounds is not recommended. Babies should remain in a rear-facing car seat until they reach the maximum weight or height limit specified by the car seat manufacturer, typically around 2 years of age.

Choice D rationale

Placing a thick, soft pad behind the baby’s back is not recommended. Additional padding can interfere with the proper fit of the harness and reduce the effectiveness of the car seat in protecting the baby during a crash.


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Question 14:

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has a low calcium level.Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend the client increase in her diet?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Avocados are a good source of healthy fats, vitamins, and minerals, but they are not particularly high in calcium. They are beneficial for overall health but not specifically for increasing calcium intake.

Choice B rationale

Peanut butter is a good source of protein and healthy fats, but it is not a significant source of calcium. It can be part of a balanced diet but will not substantially increase calcium levels.

Choice C rationale

Yogurt is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health, especially during pregnancy. It also provides probiotics, which can aid in digestion and overall health.

Choice D rationale

Long grain rice is a good source of carbohydrates and some vitamins, but it is not high in calcium. It can be part of a balanced diet but will not significantly contribute to calcium intake.


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Question 15:

A nurse is assisting with the care of a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome.Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Auscultating the newborn’s bowel sounds is important for assessing gastrointestinal function, but it is not the first priority in managing a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Initial care should focus on stabilizing the newborn and addressing withdrawal symptoms.

Choice B rationale

Swaddling the newborn in blankets can help provide comfort and reduce excessive stimulation, which is beneficial for newborns with NAS. However, it is not the first priority. The primary focus should be on assessing and stabilizing the newborn’s vital signs.

Choice C rationale

Weighing the newborn’s wet diaper is important for monitoring fluid balance and hydration status, but it is not the first priority in managing NAS. Initial care should focus on stabilizing the newborn and addressing withdrawal symptoms.

Choice D rationale

Determining the newborn’s respiratory rate is the first priority in managing a newborn with NAS. Assessing and stabilizing the newborn’s vital signs, including respiratory rate, is crucial to ensure the newborn’s immediate health and safety.


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Question 16:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about preterm labor with a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation.Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Pain in the upper right abdomen is not a typical sign of preterm labor. Preterm labor symptoms include regular contractions, lower back pain, and pelvic pressure.

Choice B rationale

Contractions occurring more frequently than every 10 minutes can indicate preterm labor. Regular contractions are a key sign of preterm labor.

Choice C rationale

While iron supplements are important during pregnancy, they do not prevent preterm labor. Preterm labor is influenced by various factors, including infections and uterine abnormalities.

Choice D rationale

Walking typically does not stop contractions associated with preterm labor. In fact, activity can sometimes exacerbate contractions.


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Question 17:

A nurse is preparing to collect a specimen for newborn screening.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Warming the newborn’s heel for 5 to 10 minutes before the puncture increases blood flow, making it easier to collect a blood sample.

Choice B rationale

The outer aspect of the heel is the recommended site for puncture to avoid injury to the bone and nerves.

Choice C rationale

Leaving the heel open to the air after the puncture is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection.

Choice D rationale

Applying an antiseptic after collecting the specimen is not necessary and can interfere with the blood sample.


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Question 18:

A nurse is caring for a full-term newborn who is 1 day old.Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A hemoglobin level of 9.5 g/dL is low for a full-term newborn and should be reported to the provider. Normal hemoglobin levels for newborns range from 14 to 24 g/dL4.

Choice B rationale

A white blood cell count of 10,000/mm³ is within the normal range for a newborn, which is typically between 9,000 and 30,000/mm³4.

Choice C rationale

A glucose level of 60 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn, which is typically between 40 and 60 mg/dL4.

Choice D rationale

A platelet count of 225,000/mm³ is within the normal range for a newborn, which is typically between 150,000 and 450,000/mm³4.


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Question 19:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving epidural anesthesia.Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of this method of pain management?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. In fact, epidurals can cause hypotension due to the blockade of sympathetic nerves.

Choice B rationale

Tachypnea is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia. Common side effects include low blood pressure and headache.

Choice C rationale

Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. More common side effects include low blood pressure and urinary retention.

Choice D rationale

Fever is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. It can occur due to the body’s response to the epidural procedure.


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Question 20:

A nurse is collecting data on a newborn who is 1 day old.Which of the following findings is a manifestation of dehydration?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Acrocyanosis is a common finding in newborns and is not a sign of dehydration. It usually resolves on its own.

Choice B rationale

A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds can indicate dehydration in a newborn. It suggests poor perfusion and fluid status.

Choice C rationale

Voiding four times in the past 24 hours is within the normal range for a newborn and does not indicate dehydration.

Choice D rationale

A flat soft anterior fontanel is normal in newborns and does not indicate dehydration. A sunken fontanel would be a sign of dehydration.


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Question 21:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation.Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as a potential psychosocial concern?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Purchasing furniture for the baby’s room is a common and healthy behavior during pregnancy. It indicates that the client is preparing for the baby’s arrival and is excited about the new addition to the family. This behavior is generally seen as positive and supportive of the pregnancy.

Choice B rationale

Being unsure about wanting an epidural during labor is a normal concern for many pregnant individuals. It reflects the client’s consideration of pain management options and their desire to make an informed decision. This is not typically seen as a psychosocial concern.

Choice C rationale

The partner planning to attend birthing classes with the client is a positive sign of support and involvement in the pregnancy. It indicates that the partner is engaged and willing to participate in the childbirth process, which can be beneficial for the client’s emotional well-being.

Choice D rationale

Expressing uncertainty about whether an older child will accept the new baby can indicate underlying anxiety or stress about family dynamics and the impact of the new baby on existing relationships. This concern may require further exploration and support to ensure the client’s emotional health.


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Question 22:

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in the third trimester of gestation.Which of the following statements by the client’s partner indicates effective adaptation to their new role?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Not wanting to call the baby by name until the baby is born can be a cultural or personal preference and does not necessarily indicate effective adaptation to the new role. It may reflect a cautious approach to the pregnancy but does not provide evidence of active preparation or involvement.

Choice B rationale

Starting to paint the baby’s room is a proactive behavior that indicates the partner is preparing for the baby’s arrival. It shows that the partner is taking steps to create a welcoming environment for the baby, which is a positive sign of adaptation to the new role.

Choice C rationale

Looking forward to sharing hobbies with the child in the future is a positive indication of the partner’s excitement and anticipation for the baby’s growth and development. However, it does not directly reflect immediate preparation or involvement in the pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

Waiting until the baby is born to share the news with coworkers may reflect a cautious approach to the pregnancy but does not indicate active involvement or preparation for the baby’s arrival. It may be a personal preference but does not demonstrate effective adaptation to the new role.


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Question 23:

A nurse is collecting data from an adolescent during a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks of gestation.Which of the following statements by the adolescent indicates they have accepted the pregnancy?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The statement about the partner wanting to help but not planning for the baby indicates a lack of acceptance and preparation for the pregnancy. It suggests that the adolescent and their partner may not have fully embraced the reality of the pregnancy.

Choice B rationale

Missing soda but acknowledging that it is better for the baby indicates that the adolescent is making sacrifices and changes for the benefit of the baby. This behavior reflects acceptance of the pregnancy and a willingness to prioritize the baby’s health.

Choice C rationale

Being upset about having to quit school when the baby comes indicates that the adolescent is struggling with the impact of the pregnancy on their life plans. This statement suggests a lack of acceptance and difficulty in adjusting to the pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

Expecting the parents to raise the baby due to being young indicates a lack of acceptance and responsibility for the pregnancy. It suggests that the adolescent may not be fully prepared to take on the role of a parent.


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Question 24:

A nurse on the postpartum unit is assisting with the care of a group of clients.Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) 18 hours postpartum is slightly elevated but not necessarily indicative of a serious issue. It may require monitoring but is not the most urgent concern.

Choice B rationale

Abdominal pain during breastfeeding 8 hours postpartum is a common experience due to uterine contractions. While it may cause discomfort, it is not typically an urgent concern.

Choice C rationale

Not having a bowel movement 24 hours postpartum is not uncommon and does not usually require immediate attention. It can be addressed with dietary changes and other interventions.

Choice D rationale

Saturating one perineal pad over 2 hours 6 hours postpartum in a G5P4 client indicates a potential risk of postpartum hemorrhage. This is a more urgent concern that requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications.


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Question 25:

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a newborn who has a new prescription for phototherapy with a lamp.Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Applying lotion to the newborn’s extremities every 8 hours is not recommended during phototherapy. Lotions and ointments can cause burns when exposed to phototherapy lights and may interfere with the treatment’s effectiveness.

Choice B rationale

Repositioning the newborn every 4 hours is not frequent enough. The newborn should be repositioned every 2 hours to ensure even exposure to the phototherapy light and to prevent pressure sores.

Choice C rationale

Removing the eye mask during feedings is correct. The eye mask should be removed during feedings to allow for bonding and to check for any signs of irritation or infection. This also ensures that the newborn’s eyes are protected from the phototherapy light when not under the lamp.

Choice D rationale

Supplementing feedings with glucose water is not recommended. Breast milk or formula should be used to ensure the newborn receives adequate nutrition and hydration. Glucose water does not provide the necessary nutrients and can interfere with breastfeeding.


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