Ati pn maternal newborn 2023
Total Questions : 50
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening.
Which of the following medications should the nurse discuss as the prophylaxis treatment during labor for this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Penicillin is the recommended prophylactic treatment for a client at 38 weeks of gestation with a positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic screening. It is highly effective in preventing the transmission of group B strep from mother to baby during labor and delivery. Administering Penicillin reduces the risk of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis caused by group B strep.
Choice B rationale
Cefazolin is an alternative antibiotic for clients allergic to penicillin. It is less preferred compared to penicillin due to its broader spectrum of activity and potential for resistance. Cefazolin can be used if the client has a non-severe penicillin allergy.
Choice C rationale
Erythromycin is not recommended for group B strep prophylaxis during labor due to its lower efficacy compared to penicillin and cefazolin. It is less effective in preventing neonatal group B strep infections and is used less frequently.
Choice D rationale
Vancomycin is used for clients with a severe penicillin allergy or for those with resistant strains of group B strep. It is a last-resort antibiotic due to its potent effect and potential side effects. It is only used when absolutely necessary.
A nurse has just received change-of-shift report about four clients who are postpartum.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client whose labor lasted for 6 hours is not necessarily a priority unless other complications are present. Duration of labor alone does not indicate an urgent need for immediate attention postpartum.
Choice B rationale
A client who received magnesium sulfate during labor should be seen first due to the potential for serious side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotonia in the newborn, and maternal complications. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia and requires close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
A client with a history of oligohydramnios needs monitoring, but this condition alone does not take precedence over the immediate postpartum risks associated with magnesium sulfate.
Choice D rationale
A client whose newborn is having difficulty latching-on needs support and assistance with breastfeeding. While important, this issue is not as urgent as monitoring the effects of magnesium sulfate in the client described in Choice B.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 9 weeks of gestation and reports nausea in the morning that continues until midafternoon. Which of the following actions should the nurse encourage the client to take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Taking an over-the-counter antacid is not recommended for managing nausea during pregnancy without consulting a healthcare provider. Some antacids contain ingredients that may not be safe during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Increasing intake of fresh fruits might help with hydration and nutrition but is not specifically effective in managing morning nausea. Some fruits might even exacerbate nausea due to their acidity.
Choice C rationale
Eating dry, bland foods in the morning can help manage nausea for pregnant clients. Foods like crackers, toast, and cereals are easy on the stomach and can help reduce morning sickness.
Choice D rationale
Restricting fluids to 1,000 mL/day is not advisable. Proper hydration is crucial during pregnancy, and such restriction can lead to dehydration and other complications. Fluids should be encouraged rather than restricted.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation and requires an increased intake of iron. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of iron?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Carrots, while nutritious and rich in vitamins, are not a significant source of iron. They provide fiber and beta-carotene but do not meet the increased iron needs during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Chicken breast is an excellent source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Consuming chicken breast helps in meeting the increased iron requirements during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
Apples are healthy and provide essential nutrients and fiber but are not a significant source of iron. They contribute to overall well-being but do not address the specific need for increased iron intake.
Choice D rationale
Feta cheese is a good source of calcium and protein but not iron. While it contributes to nutritional intake during pregnancy, it does not help in meeting the increased iron needs.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about perineal care to a client who is 2 hours postpartum and has an episiotomy and hemorrhoids. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Remaining in the sitz bath for only 10 minutes might not provide enough relief for a postpartum client with an episiotomy and hemorrhoids. Extended periods in a sitz bath can help reduce pain and promote healing.
Choice B rationale
Using numbing spray before cleansing is helpful for pain management, but it is not as beneficial as other methods for reducing inflammation and promoting healing.
Choice C rationale
Placing a heat pack to the area several times a day can help with pain but might not be as effective as other options in reducing swelling and promoting healing of hemorrhoids and episiotomy sites.
Choice D rationale
Applying witch hazel pads after urination helps reduce swelling, provides soothing relief, and promotes healing for both hemorrhoids and episiotomy sites. Witch hazel has natural astringent properties that are beneficial for postpartum perineal care.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy about increasing their intake of foods that are high in folate. Which of the following should the nurse recommend as the food with the highest folate content?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
1/2 cup (4 oz) orange juice provides about 55 micrograms of folate. While it is a good source of vitamin C and other nutrients, it does not contain as much folate compared to leafy greens.
Choice B rationale
1 cup cooked spinach contains approximately 263 micrograms of folate, making it one of the richest sources of this essential vitamin. Folate is crucial for DNA synthesis and cell division, especially during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
1 large egg contains about 24 micrograms of folate. Although eggs offer several nutrients like protein and vitamins, their folate content is relatively low compared to green vegetables.
Choice D rationale
1 cup pasta has around 102 micrograms of folate, assuming it is enriched pasta. While it contributes to daily folate intake, it does not compare to the high levels found in spinach.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and has inverted nipples. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wearing an underwire bra is not recommended for clients with inverted nipples as it can cause discomfort and restrict milk flow. Proper support without constriction is essential.
Choice B rationale
Placing breast shells in the client's bra helps to draw out inverted nipples by applying gentle pressure, making breastfeeding easier. They also protect the nipples from friction and irritation.
Choice C rationale
Providing plastic-lined breast pads may prevent leakage, but they do not address the issue of inverted nipples. Proper nipple preparation is essential for effective breastfeeding.
Choice D rationale
Applying breast cream regularly might keep the skin hydrated, but it does not help to correct the inversion of the nipples. Mechanical aids like breast shells are more effective.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor.
The nurse notes maternal exposure to rubella during pregnancy. After delivery, the nurse should monitor the newborn for which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mongolian spots are common, benign skin markings that some newborns have, but they are not related to rubella exposure during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns, characterized by a yellowing of the skin and eyes, usually due to an immature liver. It's not specifically linked to maternal rubella exposure.
Choice C rationale
Transient strabismus, or temporary misalignment of the eyes, can occur in newborns but is unrelated to rubella. It usually resolves on its own as the newborn's muscles develop.
Choice D rationale
Deafness is a significant risk associated with congenital rubella syndrome. Rubella can damage the developing auditory system in utero, leading to permanent hearing loss in the newborn.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about safety precautions to take when driving a car with a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Disabling the driver-side airbags is not advisable as airbags provide crucial protection in the event of a collision. Proper seating position is a safer alternative.
Choice B rationale
Moving the seat as far away as possible from the steering wheel reduces the risk of injury from airbag deployment and allows ample space for the growing abdomen, providing better safety for both mother and baby.
Choice C rationale
Wearing the lap belt high across the abdomen is incorrect and dangerous as it can cause injury to the fetus. The belt should be low across the hips.
Choice D rationale
Placing the shoulder harness across the gravid uterus is incorrect. The harness should go between the breasts and to the side of the belly, not across it, to avoid compression injuries in the event of a crash.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation. The nurse should understand that which of the following findings can indicate a prenatal complication in this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea, a normal vaginal discharge, increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It's not indicative of prenatal complications at 41 weeks of gestation.
Choice B rationale
Shortness of breath is common in late pregnancy due to the enlarged uterus pressing against the diaphragm. It is not necessarily a sign of a prenatal complication at this stage.
Choice C rationale
Non-pitting ankle edema is often seen in late pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased pressure on the veins. It is typically benign and not a sign of serious complications.
Choice D rationale
Blurred vision can indicate a serious prenatal complication such as preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and can pose significant risks to both mother and baby if not managed properly. .
A nurse is reinforcing preoperative teaching with a client who is scheduled for a cesarean birth. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This statement is incorrect because after a cesarean birth, clients are usually started on clear liquids and then gradually progress to regular food as tolerated. Swallowing safety is related to anesthesia recovery, not cesarean birth recovery.
Choice B rationale
This statement is incorrect because the client does not need to stay flat on their back for 24 hours. Early ambulation is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and promote recovery.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect because the urinary catheter is typically removed within 24 hours after surgery to reduce the risk of urinary tract infections and encourage normal bladder function.
Choice D rationale
This statement is correct because after a cesarean birth, the nurse will frequently assess the uterus for firmness and massage it as needed to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of a Papanicolaou test. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This statement is incorrect because a Papanicolaou test, or Pap smear, is not used for the removal of uterine fibroids. Fibroid removal typically involves surgical procedures like myomectomy.
Choice B rationale
This statement is incorrect because a Pap smear is not used to determine ovulation status. Ovulation can be monitored through methods like basal body temperature tracking or hormone assays.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect because a Pap smear does not detect endometriosis. Endometriosis is usually diagnosed through laparoscopy or imaging studies like ultrasound or MRI.
Choice D rationale
This statement is correct because a Papanicolaou test is specifically designed to detect the presence of cervical cancer and precancerous changes in the cervical cells.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in the latent phase of labor and just had an amniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates that the fetus is at risk?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This finding indicates fetal distress. Recurrent variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) can be a sign of umbilical cord compression, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
Uterine contractions every 6 minutes are within the normal range for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal risk.
Choice C rationale
Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and neurologically intact.
Choice D rationale
Uterine contractions lasting 30 to 45 seconds are typical for the latent phase of labor and do not indicate fetal distress.
Which of the following symptoms should the nurse recognize as a manifestation of neonatal abstinence syndrome?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A weak cry is not a typical manifestation of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). NAS usually presents with a high-pitched, persistent cry due to central nervous system irritability.
Choice B rationale
Decreased muscle tone is not common in NAS. Infants with NAS often exhibit hypertonia, characterized by increased muscle tone and rigidity.
Choice C rationale
This statement is correct because an exaggerated Moro reflex is a common sign of NAS, indicating central nervous system hyperactivity in response to withdrawal from maternal drugs.
Choice D rationale
An infant with NAS does not console easily. They are often difficult to soothe due to irritability and discomfort from withdrawal symptoms. .
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about outpatient resources for a client who is recovering from a molar pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chemotherapy is not a standard treatment for a molar pregnancy unless malignancy is suspected or confirmed. It is usually monitored with regular HCG levels and follow-up.
Choice B rationale
Attending a support group is crucial for emotional support and ensuring that the client has access to resources and information about recovery and future pregnancy planning.
Choice C rationale
Home palliative services are not typically required after a molar pregnancy unless there are specific complications that necessitate such care. The focus is generally on monitoring HCG levels and follow-up.
Choice D rationale
An amniocentesis is not needed after a molar pregnancy. Follow-up includes HCG level monitoring to ensure all molar tissue is gone and to watch for malignancy, not amniocentesis.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who tested positive for group B streptococcus β-hemolytic (GBS) during a prior pregnancy and is at 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Testing for GBS at around 36 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify carriers and prevent neonatal GBS infections through intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis if necessary.
Choice B rationale
Cesarean birth is not indicated solely based on a positive GBS status. The primary intervention is intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
Routine antibiotic administration during the last weeks of pregnancy is not standard practice; antibiotics are given during labor if GBS is present to prevent transmission to the baby.
Choice D rationale
GBS infection does not cause hearing loss in newborns. The primary concern is neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis, not hearing loss.
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is postpartum and has mastitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wearing a loose-fitting bra does not help in managing mastitis. Proper breast support and continuing breastfeeding are important to keep the milk flowing and reduce inflammation.
Choice B rationale
Continuing to breastfeed helps to clear the infection and maintain milk supply. It ensures that the ducts are cleared, reducing inflammation and aiding recovery from mastitis.
Choice C rationale
Limiting fluid intake is not recommended. Adequate hydration is crucial to help with milk production and overall recovery, especially during an infection.
Choice D rationale
An abdominal sonogram is not relevant to the management of mastitis. Treatment focuses on antibiotics, pain relief, and continued breastfeeding. .
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who tested positive for group B streptococcus β-hemolytic (GBS) during a prior pregnancy and is at 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"You will be tested again for GBS at about 36 weeks of gestation.”. This is correct because retesting for GBS at 35-37 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify colonization status before delivery, which helps in planning intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Choice B rationale
"If you test positive for GBS, the provider will need to perform a cesarean birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS colonization is not an indication for cesarean delivery. The primary intervention is antibiotic administration during labor to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
"You will take an antibiotic during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy to avoid transferring GBS to your baby.”. This is incorrect because antibiotics are given intrapartum (during labor) to prevent GBS transmission, not during the last weeks of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"This infection can cause your baby to experience hearing loss at birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS infection primarily causes sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in neonates, not hearing loss.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal delivery 1 day ago. The nurse determines that the client's fundus is firm, located 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, and deviated to the left. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"Monitor perineal pads for clots.”. This is incorrect because while monitoring for clots is important, it does not address the underlying issue causing the fundal deviation.
Choice B rationale
"Assist the client to empty her bladder.”. This is correct because a full bladder can cause the uterus to deviate and impede uterine involution. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus to contract properly and return to its normal position.
Choice C rationale
"Notify the provider.”. This is incorrect because the immediate action should be to address the potential cause of the deviation (a full bladder), which can be managed by the nurse.
Choice D rationale
"Administer a prescribed analgesic.”. This is incorrect because administering pain relief does not address the cause of the fundal deviation and does not alleviate the potential issue.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"Decreased BP.”. This is correct because hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration, which in turn can cause hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
Choice B rationale
"WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).”. This is incorrect because while WBC count can be elevated due to stress or infection, it is not a primary manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale
"Pruritus.”. This is incorrect because pruritus is not commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. It is more likely related to other conditions like cholestasis of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).”. This is incorrect because an elevated hemoglobin level is not a direct manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum, although dehydration can potentially concentrate blood components and slightly elevate hemoglobin.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is breastfeeding and reports nipple soreness. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing the frequency of feedings from the affected nipple may aggravate nipple soreness, as it doesn't allow the area to recover and heal properly between feedings.
Choice B rationale
Exposing the affected nipple to the air between feedings can help it to dry and heal, reducing soreness. Air exposure can help prevent bacterial growth and keep the nipple area healthy.
Choice C rationale
Applying vitamin E oil to the affected nipple before each feeding is not recommended as it can make the nipple slippery, affecting the baby's latch, and it might not be safe if ingested by the baby.
Choice D rationale
Washing the affected nipple with soap and water before each feeding can strip the natural oils from the skin, leading to further dryness and irritation, which can increase soreness.
A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a client who delivered vaginally 3 hr ago. Which of the following manifestations is a possible indication of postpartum hemorrhage?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An apical pulse of 66/min is within the normal range and not indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically cause an elevated heart rate due to blood loss.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38.3°C (101°F) could indicate infection or inflammation but is not a direct sign of postpartum hemorrhage, which primarily involves significant blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 156/80 mm Hg is elevated but not directly indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically result in a drop in blood pressure due to loss of blood volume.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 32/min is significantly elevated and can be a compensatory response to hypovolemia from postpartum hemorrhage. This response occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen delivery due to blood loss.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about risk factors for preeclampsia with a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during preg
A nurse in the newborn nursery is caring for an infant who has trisomy 21. When collecting data, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A single crease in the palm, known as a simian crease, is a common characteristic seen in infants with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) due to the unique hand structure associated with this condition.
Choice B rationale
A notch in the lip, such as a cleft lip, is not commonly associated with trisomy 21 and is more typically related to other genetic conditions or environmental factors during development.
Choice C rationale
An inversion of the foot, such as clubfoot, is not a specific characteristic of trisomy 21. This condition is more often seen in other congenital anomalies not related to Down syndrome.
Choice D rationale
Extra digits on the hand, or polydactyly, is not commonly associated with trisomy 21 but can be seen in other genetic disorders. Trisomy 21 has more specific physical features like the simian crease.
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is in early labor and reports low-back pain during contractions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assisting the client's partner to apply counterpressure to the sacrum can help alleviate the low-back pain associated with early labor by providing direct pressure to the area experiencing discomfort.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining the client on bed rest until active labor begins is not typically recommended, as mobility can help with the progression of labor and pain management.
Choice C rationale
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary for managing low-back pain in early labor and can increase the risk of infection and discomfort.
Choice D rationale
Teaching the client to hold their breath during contractions is not advisable, as it can lead to increased pain and decreased oxygenation for both the mother and baby. Breathing techniques are usually recommended to manage pain and ensure adequate oxygen delivery. .
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