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ATI PN Pharmacology 2020 Exam 2 Updated 2024

Total Questions : 57

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Question 1:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving vancomycin for a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Explanation

A. While diarrhea is a concern, it is a common side effect of vancomycin and may not be the highest priority.
B. Elevated white blood cell count may indicate infection but is not directly related to vancomycin therapy.
C. Elevated creatinine suggests kidney impairment, a potential side effect of vancomycin. This is a critical finding that needs immediate attention.
D. An elevated heart rate can be a side effect of vancomycin but is not as immediately concerning as renal impairment.


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Question 2:

A nurse is preparing to mix NPH insulin and regular insulin for administration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. The nurse should inject air into the NPH insulin vial first, then into the regular insulin vial, then withdraw the regular insulin first, followed by the NPH insulin.
B. The nurse should inject air into each vial before withdrawing the insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the correct dosage.
C. Insulin should be drawn up with an insulin syringe, not a tuberculin syringe.
D. Shaking insulin vials is not recommended as it can cause denaturation of the insulin molecules.


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Question 3:

A nurse is caring for a client who started taking amitriptyline 6 days ago. The client reports that the medication is not helping. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

A. It is premature to change medications after only 6 days, as antidepressants may take several weeks to show therapeutic effects.
B. Dose adjustments should be done cautiously, and waiting for the full therapeutic effect is important before making changes.
C. Administration instructions do not significantly impact the speed of therapeutic effects.
D. This is the correct answer because amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that takes 2 to 4 weeks to reach its full effect.


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Question 4:

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is receiving morphine via a continuous epidural infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Explanation

A. Constipation is a common side effect of opioids but not an immediate concern.
B. Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of morphine and requires immediate attention.
C. Facial flushing is a common side effect of opioids but is not immediately concerning.
D. While low blood pressure may be a concern, respiratory rate is a more critical indicator of potential life-threatening complications.


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Question 5:

A nurse is preparing to identify a client prior to medication administration. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to determine the client's identity?

Explanation

A. Age verification is not a reliable method for identifying a patient.
B. Room numbers may change, and this is not a reliable identifier.
C. Asking for the patient's name is a standard and reliable method for confirming identity.
D. Home phone numbers may not be current or accurate, and it's not a common method for patient identification.


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Question 6:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin.

Which of the following findings indicates that the client is having an allergic reaction to the medication?

Explanation

A. Bradycardia is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to amoxicillin.
B. Wheezing is a common sign of an allergic reaction, indicating potential respiratory distress.
C. Polyuria (increased urine output) is not a typical allergic reaction to amoxicillin.
D. Bruising is not a common allergic reaction to antibiotics and is more likely related to other factors.


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Question 7:

A nurse is monitoring a client who received naloxone to counteract the effects of an opioid overdose. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Explanation

A. Naloxone administration may lead to an increase in blood pressure, not a decrease.
B. While pain relief might occur, the primary goal of naloxone is to reverse respiratory depression, not to relieve pain.
C. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, so an increased respiratory rate indicates its effectiveness.
D. Naloxone does not typically affect body temperature in a significant way.


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Question 8:

A nurse who is preparing to administer medications to a client is unfamiliar with a medication that the client takes at home. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult?

Explanation

A. While the family may provide some information, a nursing drug guide is a more reliable and comprehensive resource.
B. Another nurse may have some knowledge, but consulting a drug guide is a standard and reliable practice.
C. While they can provide information, their perspective may be biased, and it's not a standard resource for immediate clinical information.
D. A nursing drug guide is a comprehensive and unbiased resource that provides essential information about medications.


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Question 9:

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with the family of a client who has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and a prescription for levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following statements made by the client's family indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

A. Eating a lot of protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa, so this statement is incorrect.
B. Levodopa/carbidopa can cause dyskinesias or involuntary movements, so monitoring for this is essential.
C. Levodopa does not cure Parkinson's disease or prevent its progression; it helps manage symptoms.
D. While levodopa can improve symptoms, the onset of action is not typically rapid, and it may take some time for optimal effect.


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Question 10:

A nurse is preparing to administer amikacin 5 mg/kg IM to a client who weighs 110 lb.

Available is amikacin injection 250 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Explanation

To answer this question, you need to perform the following steps:

Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing by 2.2. 110 lb / 2.2 = 50 kg.

Calculate the dose of amikacin in milligrams by multiplying the client's weight by the prescribed dose per kilogram. 50 kg x 5 mg/kg = 250 mg.

Calculate the volume of amikacin in milliliters by dividing the dose in milligrams by the concentration of the injection. 250 mg / 250 mg/mL = 1 mL.

Round the answer to the nearest whole number. The nurse should administer 1 mL of amikacin IM to the client.


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Question 11:

A nurse is administering the first dose of ramipril to a client who has hypertension. The client reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded. Which of the following should the nurse administer?

Explanation

A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is not indicated for treating dizziness and lightheadedness associated with ramipril.
B. Dizziness and lightheadedness may be indicative of hypotension, and an IV fluid bolus can help increase blood pressure.
C. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose and is not indicated for the symptoms described.
D. Carbohydrates are not typically used to address dizziness and lightheadedness associated with antihypertensive medications.


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Question 12:

A nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and reports taking several herbal supplements daily. The nurse should identify that SLE is a contraindication for taking which of the following herbal supplements?

Explanation

A. Echinacea may stimulate the immune system, and in individuals with autoimmune disorders like SLE, this immune stimulation can exacerbate the condition.
B. Flaxseed is generally considered safe for individuals with SLE.
C. Ginger is generally considered safe for individuals with SLE.
D. Glucosamine is generally considered safe for individuals with SLE.


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Question 13:

A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who reports urinary retention. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can cause this adverse reaction?

Explanation

A. Scopolamine is an anticholinergic medication that can cause urinary retention by blocking the parasympathetic stimulation of the bladder.
B. Acetaminophen is not associated with urinary retention.
C. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker and is not commonly associated with urinary retention.
D. Donepezil has no effect on bladder function.


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Question 14:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the iPLEDGE program with a female client who has a new prescription for isotretinoin. The nurse should tell the client that which of the following is a requirement of the program?

Explanation

A. Isotretinoin is not associated with cervical cancer risk, and this requirement is not part of the iPLEDGE program.
B. Mammogram is not a requirement of the iPLEDGE program.
C. While vitamin A supplementation may be recommended, it is not a specific requirement of the iPLEDGE program.
D. This is a key requirement of the iPLEDGE program due to the teratogenic effects of isotretinoin.


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Question 15:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking aspirin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

A. Headache - Headache is a common side effect of aspirin and is not typically a cause for concern.
B. BP 120/70 mm Hg - This blood pressure reading is within the normal range and is not a cause for concern related to aspirin.
C. Hct 43% - Elevated hematocrit is not an adverse effect of aspirin.
D. Rhinitis is a sign of hypersensitivity to aspirin and can indicate a risk of developing more severe reactions, such as bronchospasm or anaphylaxis. The nurse should report this finding to the provider and stop the medication.


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Question 16:

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving acetaminophen for mild pain. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Explanation

A. Acetaminophen can cause liver damage, and jaundice is a sign of hepatic injury.
Monitoring for jaundice is essential.
B. Acetaminophen is an antipyretic, and fever is not an adverse effect but rather an intended therapeutic effect.
C. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of acetaminophen.
D. Tinnitus is not typically associated with acetaminophen use.


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Question 17:

A nurse is preparing to administer a levothyroxine 50 mcg tablet PO to a client who is receiving an enteral feeding through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Levothyroxine absorption may be impaired if mixed with enteral feeding formulas.
It should be given separately.
B. Dissolving the tablet in water ensures proper administration through an NG tube.
C. Flushing the tube helps ensure that the entire medication dose reaches the client.
The tube should be flushed with water before and after administering the medication.
D. The client should be positioned in a semi-Fowler's position while the drug is being administered.


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Question 18:

A nurse is administering spironolactone at 0800 to a client who has heart failure. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Explanation

A. Spironolactone is not associated with hypophosphatemia.
B. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to reduced potassium excretion.
C. Spironolactone is not associated with hypocalcemia.
D. Spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia; rather, it promotes sodium excretion.


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Question 19:

A nurse is preparing to administer somatropin 0.24 mg/kg/week subcutaneously to be divided into six daily doses to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Explanation

To answer this question, we need to convert the child's weight from pounds to kilograms. We can do this by dividing 66 by 2.2, which gives us 30 kg. Next, we need to multiply the child's weight by the prescribed dose of somatropin per week, which is 0.24 mg/kg/week. This gives us 7.2 mg/week. Then, we need to divide the weekly dose by six to get the daily dose, which is 1.2 mg/day. Finally, we need to round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 1.2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1.2 mg of somatropin per dose subcutaneously to the child.


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Question 20:

A nurse working in an urgent care clinic is collecting data from a client who takes montelukast. Which of the following is an expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

Explanation

A. Montelukast is not associated with an increase in white blood cell count.
B. Montelukast primarily acts as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, targeting inflammation in the airways, and does not affect peripheral vasodilation.
C. Montelukast is not used for gastric acid neutralization; it is indicated for the treatment of respiratory conditions like asthma.
D. Montelukast is known for its anti-inflammatory effects on the airways, reducing bronchial inflammation and improving symptoms in conditions like asthma.


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Question 21:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the family of a client who has a new prescription for donepezil. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse inform the family to expect?

Explanation

A. Donepezil is used to treat Alzheimer's disease and is expected to improve cognitive function.
B. Donepezil is not indicated for pulmonary function improvement.
C. Donepezil is not primarily used for seizure control.
D. Donepezil does not typically affect urinary output.


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Question 22:

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has heart failure and a prescription for a repeat dose of furosemide 40 mg orally. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Explanation

A. While important, reviewing electrolyte levels takes priority, especially considering furosemide's potential impact on electrolyte balance.
B. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia, so it is crucial to review electrolyte levels before administering another dose.
C. Before administering the medication, reviewing electrolyte levels is essential to avoid potential complications.
D. Monitoring urinary output is important, but reviewing electrolyte levels is more crucial in this situation.


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Question 23:

A nurse is talking with a client who has been taking levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following over-the-counter medications within 4 hr of taking levothyroxine?

Explanation

A. Calcium can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be taken separately.
B. These do not interfere significantly with levothyroxine absorption.
C. Fish oil supplements do not interfere significantly with levothyroxine absorption.
D. Antihistamines do not interfere significantly with levothyroxine absorption.


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Question 24:

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following arthroscopy and reports a pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 after receiving ketorolac 1 hr ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. While ketorolac has a dosing schedule, addressing uncontrolled pain takes priority, and alternative pain management may be necessary.
B. The client's reported pain level should be addressed first, and making judgments about drug-seeking behaviors is not appropriate without further assessment.
C. Rectal administration may not provide rapid relief, and addressing the immediate pain concern is important.
D. This action addresses the client's reported pain level effectively.


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Question 25:

A nurse administered ketorolac 30 mg IM to a client who is postoperative. Which of the following information should the nurse document? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. This information is not typically documented after administration.
B. Documenting the site of injection is important for monitoring any local reactions or complications.
C. While the nurse should be aware of this information during administration, it is not typically documented after administration.
D. Documenting the time of administration is essential for tracking the medication schedule and monitoring for any adverse effects.
E. Documenting the dose administered is crucial for accurate record-keeping and ensuring patient safety.


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