Choice A reason: This statement encourages the client's involvement by offering assistance in creating a personalized list of preferred foods, which can then be discussed with the dietitian. It promotes a collaborative approach to the dietary plan, allowing the client to have a say in their food choices, which is essential for long-term adherence and management of type 2 diabetes.

Choice B reason: While this statement shows empathy, it does not actively encourage the client's involvement in their care. Understanding the challenges is important, but it is more beneficial to empower the client to take an active role in managing their dietary choices.

Choice C reason: This statement is factual, as managing diabetes does require accommodations. However, it does not directly encourage the client's involvement. Instead, it could be more encouraging by suggesting ways the client can participate in making those accommodations.

Choice D reason: Informing the client that the dietitian will provide the best food choices is reassuring but does not facilitate the client's involvement. It positions the dietitian as the sole decision-maker rather than including the client as an active participant in their dietary planning.

Choice A reason: Pressing down on the orbital area of the eye, known as the oculocephalic reflex or 'doll's eye' maneuver, is a method used to assess brainstem function in an unresponsive patient. However, this should be done with caution and is generally avoided if there is a suspicion of a neck injury or increased intracranial pressure.

Choice B reason: Pinching the trapezius muscle is a common method to elicit a response to painful stimuli. It is considered a less invasive and safer initial approach to assess the patient's response to pain without causing harm.

Choice C reason: Using a 25-gauge needle to elicit a response is not a standard practice and can be harmful. It poses a risk of skin puncture and infection, and it is not an appropriate method for assessing a patient's level of consciousness.

Choice D reason: Eliciting a reflex with a reflex hammer is used to assess the deep tendon reflexes, which can provide information about the integrity of the nervous system. However, it is not typically used as a method to elicit a response to painful stimuli in an unresponsive patient.

Choice A reason: Telling a family to limit discussing past events with the client may not be culturally sensitive. Each culture has its own views on reminiscing and sharing memories, especially during end-of-life care. Some cultures value the sharing of stories and memories as a way to honor the individual's life.

Choice B reason: Saying "We will respect what is important to you" is a statement that acknowledges and incorporates the client's and family's cultural beliefs. It shows a willingness to understand and prioritize their values, customs, and preferences in the care plan. This approach is aligned with culturally competent care, which is crucial in hospice settings.

Choice C reason: Offering to arrange all burial services may overstep boundaries, as burial practices are deeply rooted in cultural and religious beliefs. It is important for healthcare providers to discuss and understand the family's wishes and provide support in accordance with their specific cultural practices.

Choice D reason: Advising that grieving should not be done in front of the client may not align with the family's cultural beliefs about expressing emotions and grief. Different cultures have varied expressions of grief, and it is essential to respect these practices. Some cultures view the open expression of grief as an important part of the mourning process.

Choice A reason: Irrigating the affected eye from the inner corner toward the outer corner is the recommended method for ocular irrigation. This technique helps to flush out the chemical agent without risking further contamination to the other eye or nasal passages.

Choice B reason: Positioning the client sitting up with their head turned toward the right side is appropriate when irrigating the left eye. This position allows gravity to assist in the flow of the irrigation solution away from the unaffected eye, reducing the risk of cross-contamination.

Choice C reason: Placing a strip of pH paper under the upper lid of the affected eye is a critical step in ocular irrigation after a chemical splash. It is used to measure the pH of the ocular surface to ensure that the pH has normalized to a range between 7.0 and 7.2 after irrigation, indicating that the chemical has been adequately flushed out.

Choice D reason: Using sterile water for ocular irrigation is not recommended because it can cause osmotic imbalances and damage to the corneal cells. Instead, normal saline or balanced salt solutions are preferred as they are isotonic and more compatible with the physiological environment of the eye.

Choice A reason: Droplet precautions are used for diseases that are transmitted through large respiratory droplets produced by coughing, sneezing, or talking. AIDS, caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), is not transmitted through respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions are not necessary for a client with AIDS.

Choice B reason: Standard precautions are the primary strategy for the prevention of infection transmission and apply to all patients receiving care in hospitals, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status. These precautions include hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) like gloves and gowns, and safe injection practices. Since HIV/AIDS can be transmitted through blood and certain body fluids, standard precautions are essential when caring for clients with AIDS.

Choice C reason: Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are transmitted by small droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air and can be widely dispersed by air currents within a room or over a long distance. HIV/AIDS is not transmitted through the airborne route, so airborne precautions are not indicated for clients with AIDS.

Choice D reason: Contact precautions are used for infections that are spread by direct contact with the patient or indirect contact with surfaces or patient care items. While HIV can be present in body fluids, it is not easily transmitted through casual contact. Therefore, contact precautions are not specifically required for clients with AIDS unless they have other conditions that warrant such precautions.

Choice A reason: Gurgling bowel sounds every 10 seconds are considered normal, as normoactive bowel sounds range from 5 to 30 sounds per minute. This finding indicates regular gastrointestinal activity and is not typically a cause for concern.

Choice B reason: A centrally located umbilical protrusion can be a normal finding, especially if it has been present since birth and is not associated with any other symptoms. However, if new or associated with pain or other symptoms, it could indicate a hernia or other pathology.

Choice C reason: Abdominal distention during breathing can be a normal finding, as the abdomen may distend slightly during deep breathing due to the movement of the diaphragm. However, if the distention is pronounced or associated with other symptoms, it may warrant further investigation.

Choice D reason: Rebound tenderness with palpation is a sign of peritoneal irritation and can be an indication of conditions such as appendicitis, which is a surgical emergency. This finding should be considered a priority as it may require immediate intervention.

Choice A reason: A client with diabetes mellitus presenting with acute ketoacidosis does not necessarily require a private room unless there are other infection control concerns. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when the body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones. It is a medical emergency that requires treatment in a hospital, but it is not contagious.

Choice B reason: An older adult client admitted with aspiration pneumonia would not typically require a private room solely based on this condition. Aspiration pneumonia is caused by inhaling food, stomach acid, or saliva into the lungs. It can lead to a bacterial infection, which may or may not be contagious depending on the causative organism.

Choice C reason: A client with a compound fracture of the right femur would not require a private room based on the diagnosis alone. A compound fracture, also known as an open fracture, is a fracture in which there is an open wound or break in the skin near the site of the broken bone. While it requires immediate medical attention to prevent infection, it is not a condition that necessitates isolation.

Choice D reason: A client who reports having fever, night sweats, and cough for 2 days may require a private room due to the possibility of an infectious disease that could be transmitted to others, such as tuberculosis (TB). These symptoms are concerning for TB, which is an airborne infectious disease and would require airborne precautions, including a private room with negative pressure ventilation.

Choice A reason: While it is generally advised to avoid taking blood pressure readings from an arm with a PICC line to prevent complications, if the right arm cannot be used, as may be the case with the other clients listed, the nurse may have to use the left arm with extreme caution, ensuring not to disrupt the PICC line.

Choice B reason: Bell's palsy affects facial nerves and does not typically impact the measurement of blood pressure. Therefore, there is no contraindication to using the left arm for a blood pressure reading in a client with left-sided Bell's palsy.

Choice C reason: A client with right-sided weakness due to Parkinson's disease can have their blood pressure taken on the left side if the right side is too weak to provide an accurate reading or if using the right side would cause discomfort to the client.

Choice D reason: For a client with a right upper extremity arteriovenous fistula, typically created for dialysis access, blood pressure measurements should not be taken on that arm to avoid damaging the fistula. Therefore, the left arm should be used for blood pressure readings in this case.

Choice A reason: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, characterized by a pattern of irregular breathing with periods of apnea, can be a sign of brain stem compression due to increased intracranial pressure. However, it is not typically the first sign of deteriorating neurological status.

Choice B reason: Pupillary dilation, especially if it is unilateral, can indicate pressure on the cranial nerves due to increased intracranial pressure. It is a concerning sign but may not be the first to appear as neurological function deteriorates.

Choice C reason: An altered level of consciousness is often the first sign of deteriorating neurological status in a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Changes in consciousness can range from slight disorientation or confusion to complete unresponsiveness.

Choice D reason: Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion of the arms with extension of the legs, indicates significant brain injury and is a later sign of increased intracranial pressure, not typically the first sign.

Choice A reason: While bladder control issues can significantly affect a client's quality of life, they are typically managed by a urologist or a specialist in continence, rather than an occupational therapist. Occupational therapy focuses on improving the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs), which generally does not include bladder control.

Choice B reason: Difficulty swallowing, known as dysphagia, can be a symptom of myasthenia gravis due to muscle weakness. Although it is a serious concern, it is usually managed with the help of a speech therapist who specializes in swallowing difficulties, rather than an occupational therapist.

Choice C reason: Having a hard time with brushing hair is directly related to the performance of ADLs, which is the primary focus of occupational therapy. An occupational therapist can assist the client by teaching energy conservation techniques, providing adaptive equipment, and modifying the task to make it easier for the client to maintain personal grooming independently.

Choice D reason: Preferring a wheelchair over a walker is a matter of mobility and personal preference. While occupational therapy can help with mobility issues, this statement alone does not indicate a need for occupational therapy unless the client has difficulty performing ADLs due to the choice of mobility aid.

Choice A reason: Applying antibiotic ointment to the lesions is not recommended for the treatment of genital herpes, which is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Antiviral medications are the appropriate treatment for managing herpes outbreaks.

Choice B reason: Natural skin condoms are not effective in preventing the transmission of genital herpes because the virus can pass through the natural membrane. The use of latex or polyurethane condoms is recommended as they are more effective in reducing the risk of transmission.

Choice C reason: Expecting lesions to resolve in 6 weeks may not be accurate as the duration of a herpes outbreak can vary. Most herpes lesions tend to resolve within 2 to 4 weeks. However, the virus remains in the body and can cause recurrent outbreaks.

Choice D reason: The duration of medication for genital herpes depends on whether the treatment is for an initial outbreak, chronic suppression, or episodic therapy. For an initial outbreak, antiviral medication is typically taken for 7 to 10 days. For chronic suppression, medication might be taken daily for an extended period to prevent or reduce the frequency of outbreaks.

Choice A reason: Administering aspirin is one of the first interventions for a client experiencing acute angina because aspirin has antiplatelet properties that help prevent blood clots, which can reduce the risk of a heart attack.

Choice B reason: Measuring blood pressure is important but not the first action to take. It provides valuable information about the cardiovascular status of the client and can influence further treatment decisions.

Choice C reason: Administering nitroglycerin is a priority action for acute angina as it helps to dilate the coronary arteries and relieve chest pain. However, it is typically administered after aspirin unless contraindicated.

Choice D reason: Initiating IV access is an important step in the management of acute angina, as it allows for the administration of medications and fluids if needed. However, it is not the first action to take during an acute angina episode.

Choice A reason: This statement does not indicate a need for further instruction. It is recommended to wait at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate before taking other medications to ensure proper absorption of the drug.

Choice B reason: This statement indicates a need for further instruction. Alendronate should be taken with plain water, not milk. Milk and other dairy products can interfere with the absorption of alendronate due to their calcium content.

Choice C reason: This statement does not indicate a need for further instruction. Patients are advised to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation or ulceration.

Choice D reason: This statement does not indicate a need for further instruction. Periodic bone density tests are a standard part of monitoring the effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment.

Choice A reason: Including more cantaloupe in the diet is a good practice for a client on furosemide therapy. Cantaloupe is high in potassium, and furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as it is a potent diuretic that increases urine production and the excretion of various electrolytes, including potassium. Therefore, consuming foods rich in potassium can help counteract this potential adverse effect.

Choice B reason: Checking the pulse before taking the medication is a general safety measure but does not directly relate to a specific adverse effect of furosemide. While it's important to monitor heart rate, especially in clients with heart failure, this statement does not reflect an understanding of the adverse effects related to furosemide.

Choice C reason: Trying to limit foods that contain salt is an appropriate action for a client with heart failure but is not directly related to an adverse effect of furosemide. Reducing salt intake can help manage heart failure by preventing fluid retention; however, it does not address the specific adverse effects of furosemide therapy.

Choice D reason: Checking blood pressure to ensure it doesn't get too high is important for clients with heart failure but does not indicate an understanding of the adverse effects of furosemide. Furosemide is used to reduce excess fluid in the body, which can lower blood pressure, not increase it. This statement does not reflect an understanding of furosemide's potential to cause electrolyte imbalances.

Choice A reason: The fluctuation of fluid in the water-seal chamber does not necessarily mean that the lung is fully re-expanded. The water-seal chamber's fluid level fluctuates with the client's breathing because it reflects the changes in intrathoracic pressure.

Choice B reason: The statement "Your breathing pattern causes this" is correct. The fluctuation, also known as tidaling, in the water-seal chamber is normal and occurs in response to the client's breathing. When the client inhales, negative pressure in the chest cavity causes the fluid level to rise, and when the client exhales, the pressure becomes positive, causing the fluid level to fall.

Choice C reason: Suction pressure that is too high can cause continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber but does not directly cause the fluid in the water-seal chamber to rise and fall. The suction control chamber's bubbling should be steady and gentle when the suction is set correctly.

Choice D reason: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber may indicate an air leak, which is a problem that needs to be addressed. However, normal fluctuation with breathing is not indicative of an air leak.

Choice A reason: A respiratory rate of 24/min is slightly higher than the normal range (12-20 breaths per minute) and does not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in treating pulmonary edema.

Choice B reason: Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are often present in pulmonary edema and would not indicate that the furosemide is effective. The resolution of these sounds would be a better indicator of improvement.

Choice C reason: Weight loss of 1.8 kg (4 lb) in the past 24 hours likely indicates a reduction in fluid retention, which is a desired effect of furosemide in the treatment of pulmonary edema. This diuretic effect reduces the fluid overload, thereby improving the symptoms of pulmonary edema.

Choice D reason: An elevation in blood pressure is not an expected outcome of effective furosemide therapy for pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a diuretic and would more likely lead to a reduction in blood pressure due to fluid loss.

Choice A reason: Laryngeal edema is a classic sign of anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. It can lead to difficulty breathing and requires immediate medical attention. Anaphylaxis can occur with any medication, including captopril, especially on initial exposure.

Choice B reason: Fever is not typically a sign of anaphylaxis. While it can be a symptom of various infections or inflammatory processes, it is not indicative of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction.

Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a sign of anaphylaxis. In fact, during an anaphylactic reaction, blood pressure often drops significantly, a condition known as anaphylactic shock.

Choice D reason: Arrhythmia, or an irregular heartbeat, can be associated with various cardiac conditions but is not a specific indicator of anaphylaxis. While severe allergic reactions can affect heart rate, they are more likely to cause hypotension than arrhythmia.

Choice A reason: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, measures the immune response to the tuberculin purified protein derivative injected into the skin. An induration of less than 1 mm is not considered a positive result. However, the size of the induration in the Mantoux test does not indicate whether the person is infectious or not.

Choice B reason: Negative sputum cultures for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) are a strong indication that the client is no longer infectious. Pulmonary tuberculosis is diagnosed and monitored by the presence of AFB in the sputum. When the sputum cultures are negative, it suggests that the client is not excreting the bacteria and is less likely to spread the infection to others.

Choice C reason: While no longer coughing up blood-tinged sputum is a sign of clinical improvement, it does not necessarily mean that the client is no longer infectious. The absence of blood in the sputum may indicate reduced inflammation or healing of lung tissue, but the client could still be capable of transmitting tuberculosis if AFB is present in the sputum.

Choice D reason: The Quantiferon-TB Gold test is a blood test that measures the immune response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens. A positive result indicates that the person's immune system has been exposed to the bacteria, but it does not determine if the person is infectious. The term "positive (negative)" is contradictory and does not provide clear information about the client's infectious status.

Choice A reason: While requiring assistance with getting dressed is an important consideration in care planning, it is not the most immediate priority. The nurse should ensure that the client's basic needs are met, but this does not represent an acute medical concern.

Choice B reason: The client reporting numbness of the fingers of the left hand is the most urgent priority. Numbness can indicate neurovascular compromise or increased pressure within the cast, which could lead to further injury or complications such as compartment syndrome. Immediate assessment and intervention are required to prevent permanent damage.

Choice C reason: Itching of the left arm under the cast is a common complaint and can be uncomfortable for the client. However, it is not a priority over potential neurovascular compromise. The nurse can provide education on how to safely alleviate itching without compromising the integrity of the cast.

Choice D reason: Having a pillow under the left arm is part of proper positioning to reduce swelling and provide comfort. While it is a part of good nursing care, it is not a priority over signs of neurovascular compromise.

Choice A reason: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min is appropriate for clients with emphysema who have hypoxemia. Oxygen therapy should be titrated based on the client's oxygen saturation levels to avoid suppressing the respiratory drive.

Choice B reason: The use of incentive spirometry is beneficial for clients with emphysema as it encourages deep breathing and helps prevent atelectasis. It is an appropriate intervention to include in the plan of care.

Choice C reason: Breathing exercises for clients with emphysema typically focus on prolonging the exhalation phase, not the inhalation phase, to improve airway clearance and reduce the work of breathing.

Choice D reason: Limiting fluid intake is not generally recommended for clients with emphysema unless there are specific contraindications. Adequate hydration can help thin secretions and improve mucus clearance.

Choice A reason: Administering prednisone before the test may be part of a premedication protocol for clients with a history of allergic reactions to contrast media. However, this is typically done for iodinated contrast used in CT scans, not for gadolinium-based contrast agents used in MRA.

Choice B reason: Consulting with the provider to change to a CT scan would not be appropriate if the client is allergic to iodinated contrast dye, as CT scans commonly use iodinated contrast. MRA typically uses gadolinium-based contrast agents, which may be safer for clients with iodine allergies.

Choice C reason: Assessing the alkaline phosphatase level is not directly related to preparing a client with a contrast dye allergy for an MRA. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme measured in blood tests and is not specific to contrast media allergies.

Choice D reason: Obtaining the client's allergy history to seafood is not necessary for MRA preparation. While there is a common misconception that seafood allergies are related to iodinated contrast allergies, the evidence does not support this association.

Choice A reason: Encouraging family members to press the PCA button for the client is not recommended. The PCA device is designed to be used by the patient to manage their own pain. Allowing someone other than the patient to administer the medication can lead to over-sedation or respiratory depression. The patient must have control over the PCA device to ensure that they are receiving the medication based on their pain level and not someone else's perception of their pain.

Choice B reason: Monitoring the client's respiratory status every 4 hours is important but may not be sufficient for a patient receiving morphine via a PCA device. According to clinical guidelines, respiratory rate, sedation, and pain scores must be recorded more frequently after the initiation of PCA therapy—typically every 15 minutes for the first hour, then every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours, and hourly until 24 hours post-operation. This is to ensure early detection of any adverse effects such as respiratory depression, which is a risk with opioid administration.

Choice C reason: Teaching the client how to self-medicate using the PCA device is the correct action. Patient education is crucial for the effective use of PCA. The patient should be instructed on how to use the device, including when to press the button and the importance of only the patient controlling the button. This empowers the patient to manage their pain effectively and safely, ensuring that they receive the medication when needed and reducing the risk of over-sedation or under-medication.

Choice D reason: Administering an oral opioid for breakthrough pain may be necessary if the PCA does not adequately control the patient's pain. However, this should be done cautiously and typically under the guidance of a pain management team or physician. Breakthrough pain medication is usually reserved for instances where the PCA is not providing sufficient pain relief, and the patient's pain is assessed to be higher than what can be managed by the PCA alone.

Choice A reason: Epinephrine is primarily used in emergency situations for its vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory effects, particularly in cases of anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest. It is not typically used to manage symptoms associated with brainstem contusions or to regulate urinary output.

Choice B reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce fluid retention in conditions such as heart failure or renal disease. Given that the client has already produced a large volume of urine (4,000 mL in 24 hours, which is above the normal range of 800 to 2,000 milliliters per day), administering furosemide would not be appropriate as it would likely exacerbate the excessive urinary output.

Choice C reason: Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used to treat acute hypertensive crises. It has no role in the management of thirst or regulation of urinary output and is not indicated for the treatment of brainstem contusions.

Choice D reason: Desmopressin is a synthetic analogue of the naturally occurring antidiuretic hormone vasopressin. It is used to treat conditions characterized by excessive urination, such as diabetes insipidus, and to manage polyuria and polydipsia (excessive thirst) following head trauma or surgery in the pituitary region. In the context of a brainstem contusion with a reported high urinary output, desmopressin would be the appropriate medication to prescribe to reduce urine volume and address the client's thirst.

Choice A reason: Petechiae on the chest are small, red or purple spots caused by bleeding into the skin and may be associated with various conditions, including infections. However, they are not a common finding in meningitis. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms related to inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

Choice B reason: Bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, is not a typical symptom of meningitis. While meningitis can affect various bodily functions, the classic symptoms are fever, headache, and neck stiffness, not changes in heart rate.

Choice C reason: Intermittent headache could be associated with meningitis, but the headaches that accompany meningitis are usually constant and severe due to the inflammation of the meninges. They are not typically described as intermittent.

Choice D reason: Photophobia, or light sensitivity, is a common finding in meningitis. The inflammation of the meninges can lead to an increased sensitivity to light, causing discomfort or pain when the patient is exposed to bright lights. This symptom, along with headache, neck stiffness, and fever, helps to distinguish meningitis from other conditions.

Choice A reason: Dry areas around the pins can be a normal finding if the pin sites are healing properly. It indicates that there is no excessive moisture that could promote bacterial growth and infection. However, the nurse should continue to monitor for any signs of redness, swelling, or pain that could indicate a developing infection.

Choice B reason: Crusts around the pins are typically a sign of dried exudate, which can be part of the normal healing process. The crusts should be monitored and cleaned according to the healthcare facility's protocol to prevent infection. If the crusts are accompanied by other signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, or purulent drainage, they should be reported to the healthcare provider.

Choice C reason: Purulent drainage around the pins is a sign of infection and should be reported immediately to the unit care coordinator. Infections at pin sites can lead to complications such as osteomyelitis, delayed healing, or even systemic infection. Prompt intervention with appropriate cleaning and possibly antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications.

Choice D reason: The absence of pain at the site can be a normal finding and is not typically a cause for concern unless there is an expectation of pain based on the patient's condition or recent procedures. However, a complete lack of sensation could indicate nerve damage or other issues, so the nurse should assess for other signs of neurovascular compromise and report any concerns to the healthcare provider.