Choice A Reason:

Active is incorrect. The active phase of labor typically begins when the cervix is around 4 to 6 centimeters dilated. Given that the client's cervix is already dilated to 9 cm, she has progressed beyond the active phase.

Choice B Reason:

Transition is correct. The transition phase is the final part of the first stage of labor and occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 centimeters. In this phase, contractions are typically strong, occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, and lasting 80 to 90 seconds. The sensation of increasing rectal pressure is common during the transition phase as the baby's head descends further into the birth canal. The advanced cervical dilation to 9 cm also indicates that the client is in the transition phase, preparing for the second stage of labor.

Choice C Reason:

Latent is incorrect. The latent phase is the early part of the first stage of labor, characterized by cervical dilation from 0 to 3 or 4 centimeters. The client's cervix is already dilated to 9 cm, indicating that she has progressed well beyond the latent phase.

Choice D Reason:

Descent is incorrect. The descent phase is generally associated with the second stage of labor, during which the baby moves through the birth canal. The information provided primarily relates to the first stage of labor, specifically the transition phase, as indicated by the cervical dilation of 9 cm.

Choice A Reason:

Discussing contraceptive options with the client and her partner is inappropriate. This intervention may be important, but it is more related to the anticipatory guidance phase rather than the taking-hold phase. During the taking-hold phase, the focus is on the client's adjustment to her new role and responsibilities.

Choice B Reason:

Repeating information to ensure client understanding is inappropriate. While clear communication is important, the taking-hold phase is more about the mother taking an active role in her own care and the care of her baby. Repeating information for understanding is generally more relevant during the immediate postpartum period.

Choice C Reason:

Listening to the client and her partner as they reflect upon the birth experience is appropriate. This phase involves the mother's increased interest in discussing her birth experience and receiving emotional support. Listening to the client and her partner as they reflect upon the birth experience promotes emotional well-being and helps establish a supportive and therapeutic nurse-client relationship.

Choice D Reason:

Demonstrating to the client how to perform a newborn bath is inappropriate. Teaching specific skills, such as performing a newborn bath, is more aligned with the teaching and coaching phase that occurs during the first few hours postpartum. The taking-hold phase is more about the mother's psychological adjustment and active participation.

Choice A Reason:

Placing a rolled towel beneath one of the client's hips may be helpful to tilt the client and alleviate pressure, but it is not the first action.

Choice B Reason:

Applying internal upward pressure to the presenting part using two gloved fingers is appropriate. This maneuver, known as "manual elevation of the presenting part," helps lift the presenting part off the prolapsed cord, preventing compression and maintaining blood flow to the fetus. This action should be performed while waiting for additional assistance and interventions.

Choice C Reason:

Administering oxygen is important for the well-being of the fetus, but the immediate focus is on relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.

Choice D Reason:

Increasing the infusion rate may be necessary later, but the immediate priority is to address the prolapsed cord and ensure fetal oxygenation.

4.A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn about car seat safety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse Include?

A. Place the shoulder harness in the slots above the newborn's shoulders.

B. Place the retainer clip at the level of the newborn's armpits.

C. Place the newborn at a 60° angle in the car seat.

D. Place the newborn in a blanket before securing them in the car seat.

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B

Choice A Reason:

Placing the shoulder harness in the slots above the newborn's shoulders is incorrect. The harness should be threaded through the slots at or below the baby's shoulders to provide proper protection.

Choice B Reason:

Placing the retainer clip at the level of the newborn's armpits is correct. This is a critical safety measure to ensure that the harness straps are positioned correctly on the newborn. Placing the retainer clip at the level of the armpits helps secure the harness straps over the baby's shoulders and prevents them from slipping off.

Choice C Reason:

Placing the newborn at a 60° angle in the car seat is not a standard recommendation. The car seat should be installed according to the manufacturer's instructions, and the baby should be placed in a semi-reclined position, typically at a 45° angle, to ensure proper support for the newborn's head and airway.

Choice D Reason:

Placing the newborn in a blanket before securing them in the car seat is not recommended. Extra padding, including bulky clothing or blankets, should not be placed under the harness straps as it can compromise the effectiveness of the restraint system. The baby should be dressed in thin layers, and if additional warmth is needed, a blanket can be placed over the baby after securing them in the car seat.

Choice A Reason:

Placing the client in a supine position for 30 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a standard recommendation. The positioning during epidural placement is typically a seated or side-lying position.

Choice B Reason:

Administering 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a standard practice for epidural anesthesi

A. Fluids may be administered, but the type and volume depend on the patient's individual needs and the healthcare provider's orders.

Choice C Reason:

Monitoring the client's blood pressure every minute following the first dose of anesthetic solution is appropriate. Epidural anesthesia can potentially cause hypotension (low blood pressure), which is a common side effect. Therefore, close monitoring of the client's blood pressure is crucial, especially following the administration of the initial dose of the anesthetic solution. The goal is to promptly detect and manage any decrease in blood pressure to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

Choice D Reason:

Ensuring the client has been NPO (nothing by mouth) for 4 hours prior to the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a specific requirement for epidural anesthesi

A. NPO status is more relevant to surgical procedures involving general anesthesia and is not typically a strict requirement for epidural placement.

Choice A Reason:

Drinking the glucose solution 2 hours prior to the test is not standard for a 1-hour GTT. Instead, the glucose solution is usually consumed within a short timeframe, such as 5 minutes, and the blood is drawn 1 hour afterward.

Choice B Reason:

Limiting carbohydrate intake for 3 days prior to the test is not a requirement for a 1-hour GTT. However, it may be advised for a longer fasting period or a different type of glucose tolerance test.

Choice C Reason:

A blood glucose level of 130 to 140 is not considered a positive screening result for a 1-hour GTT. The specific cutoff values for a positive result can vary, but it typically involves a higher threshold, such as exceeding 140 mg/dL.

Choice D Reason:

Fasting for 12 hours prior to the test is appropriate. For a 1-hour GTT, the client is typically required to fast for a specific period before the test, commonly 8 to 12 hours. This fasting period helps obtain accurate baseline blood glucose levels before the administration of the glucose solution.

Choice A Reason:

Bilirubin 9 mg/dL is correct. A bilirubin level of 9 mg/dL in a newborn, especially at 4 hours old, is elevated and needs prompt attention. High bilirubin levels in newborns can be indicative of jaundice, and severe jaundice may lead to complications such as kernicterus. Monitoring and managing bilirubin levels are crucial to prevent potential neurologic damage.

Choice B Reason:

Hemoglobin 15 g/dL is incorrect. This hemoglobin level is within the normal range for a newborn. It's important to note that newborns often have higher hemoglobin levels shortly after birth, and this value is consistent with normal physiological ranges.

Choice C Reason:

Platelets 175,000/mm³ is incorrect. A platelet count of 175,000/mm³ is within the normal range for a newborn. There is no immediate concern based on this platelet count.

Choice D Reason:

Hematocrit 45% is incorrect. A hematocrit level of 45% is within the normal range for a newborn. Like hemoglobin, hematocrit levels can be higher in newborns shortly after birth, and this value falls within the expected range.

Choice A Reason:

"You should replace the diaphragm every 5 years." This statement is inappropriate. Diaphragms typically need replacement more frequently than every 5 years. The lifespan of a diaphragm is usually shorter, and it may need to be replaced every 1 to 2 years, depending on the material and condition.

Choice B Reason:

"You should leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse." This statement is appropriate. Leaving the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse helps ensure its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Removing it too soon may increase the risk of sperm reaching the cervix.

Choice C Reason:

"You should use an oil-based product as a lubricant when inserting the diaphragm. "This statement is inappropriate. Oil-based lubricants can damage latex diaphragms. Water-based or silicone-based lubricants are recommended instead.

Choice D Reason:

"You should insert the diaphragm when your bladder is full." This statement is inappropriate. There is no specific need to insert the diaphragm when the bladder is full. However, emptying the bladder before insertion may make the process more comfortable for the client.

Choice A Reason:

Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 20 g/dL is elevated, but this can be a normal finding in a newborn and does not necessarily require immediate intervention.

Choice B Reason:

Total bilirubin of 5 mg/dL is within the normal range for a 24-hour-old newborn.

Choice C Reason:

Blood glucose 30 mg/dL. A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL is significantly lower than the normal range for a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurologic complications, so it is important to report this result promptly for further evaluation and intervention.

Choice D Reason:

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm³ is within the expected range for a newborn and is not a cause for immediate concern. Newborns often have higher WBC counts shortly after birth.

Choice A Reason:

"I should have a goal of maintaining my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching. Recommended target for fasting blood glucose levels during pregnancy in women with diabetes is typically lower, often between 60 and 90 mg/dL.

Choice B Reason:

"I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or greater." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching . Exercising when blood glucose is already elevated to 250 or greater may not be safe. Exercise is generally recommended to help manage blood glucose levels, but the specific approach and timing should be discussed with the healthcare provider.

Choice C Reason:

"I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting." This statement reflects an awareness of the importance of continuing insulin administration even if the client is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Consistent insulin management is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range during pregnancy.

Choice D Reason:

"I will ensure that my bedtime snack is high in refined sugar." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching. Bedtime snacks should focus on providing sustained energy and stabilizing blood glucose levels. A snack high in refined sugar is not recommended as it can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels.

Choice A Reason:

Reassess the client in 2 hours is inappropriate. While reassessment is important, addressing the cause of uterine displacement, in this case, a full bladder, should be the initial priority.

Choice B Reason:

Administering simethicone is inappropriate. Simethicone is typically used to relieve gas and bloating. It is not the primary intervention for uterine displacement related to bladder fullness.

Choice C Reason:

Assisting the client to empty her bladder is appropriate. A full bladder can displace the uterus and hinder its contraction, leading to potential issues such as uterine atony or increased postpartum bleeding. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus contract more effectively.

Choice D Reason:

Instructing the client to lie on her right side is inappropriate. Lying on the right side is often recommended to improve blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus during pregnancy but may not directly address uterine displacement caused by a full bladder. The priority is to assist the client in emptying her bladder.

Choice A Reason:

"I will get injections of the medication once daily until my labor stops." Terbutaline is typically administered as a subcutaneous injection or orally, but the frequency can vary. It is often given as needed or on a scheduled basis, depending on the healthcare provider's instructions. However, "once daily until labor stops" is not a typical approach.

Choice B Reason:

"My blood sugar may be low while I'm on this medication." While terbutaline can affect glucose metabolism, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).

Choice C Reason:

"I will have blood tests because my potassium might decrease." Terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can potentially lead to hypokalemia (a decrease in potassium levels). Monitoring potassium levels through blood tests is important during terbutaline therapy.

Choice D Reason:

"My blood pressure may increase while I'm on this medication." Terbutaline is known to cause cardiovascular side effects, but an increase in blood pressure is not a common effect. It is more associated with tachycardia (increased heart rate) and potential hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure is still important, but an increase is less likely compared to other cardiovascular effects.

Choice A Reason:

Applying sacral counterpressure is appropriate. In the right occiput posterior position, the fetal head is positioned towards the mother's back, leading to increased pressure on the sacral are

A. Applying sacral counterpressure can help alleviate back pain during contractions.

Choice B Reason:

Performing transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is inappropriate. While TENS can be used for pain relief in labor, applying sacral counterpressure is a more specific intervention for back pain related to fetal positioning.

Choice C Reason:

Initiating slow-paced breathing is inappropriate. While slow-paced breathing is a coping mechanism during contractions, it may not specifically address the back pain associated with the fetus in the right occiput posterior position.

Choice D Reason:

Assisting with biofeedback is inappropriate. Biofeedback is not a standard intervention for managing back pain during labor, especially in the context of fetal positioning. Sacral counterpressure is a more direct approach for this situation.

Choice A Reason:

Confirming the newborn's Apgar score is important for assessing the newborn's overall condition, but it may not be the first priority.

Choice B Reason:

Verifying the newborn's identification is appropriate. Ensuring accurate identification is a crucial step in newborn care to prevent errors and ensure that interventions are carried out on the correct infant.

Choice C Reason:

Administering vitamin K is a standard practice but can wait until after the newborn's identification is confirmed.

Choice D Reason:

Determining obstetrical risk factors is part of the overall assessment but is not the immediate priority in this situation.

Choice A Reason:

"You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse." This statement is accurate. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that is effective when taken within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected sexual intercourse. It is crucial to use it as soon as possible for optimal effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

Choice B Reason:

"You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel can be used as emergency contraception, even if the individual is already on an oral contraceptive. However, it's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance.

Choice C Reason:

"If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test." This statement is not entirely accurate. While a delayed period may occur after taking levonorgestrel, it does not necessarily indicate pregnancy. If there are concerns about pregnancy, a pregnancy test should be taken a few weeks after using emergency contraception.

Choice D Reason:

"One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel is primarily effective in the prevention of pregnancy when taken shortly after unprotected intercourse. It does not provide ongoing protection, and additional contraceptive methods should be considered for future encounters.

Choice A Reason:

"The nurse will carry your newborn to the nursery for procedures. "This statement is inappropriate. In current practice, there is an emphasis on family-centered care, and parents are often encouraged to be involved in the care of their newborns, including accompanying them for procedures whenever possible.

Choice B Reason:

"We will document the relationship of visitors in your medical record." This statement is inappropriate. While it is important to monitor and document visitors, the primary focus here is on healthcare staff and their identification.

Choice C Reason:

"Your baby will stay in the nursery while you are asleep." This statement is inappropriate. Promoting rooming-in and encouraging parental involvement in newborn care is a common practice to support bonding and breastfeeding, so this statement may not align with current best practices.

Choice D Reason:

"Staff members who take care of your baby will be wearing a photo identification badge." This statement reassures the client that the healthcare providers involved in the care of the newborn will have proper identification, enhancing security and ensuring that authorized personnel are handling the infant.

Choice A Reason:

Large for gestational age is incorrect. This characteristic is not typically associated with withdrawal from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Large for gestational age is more commonly associated with conditions such as gestational diabetes or other factors affecting fetal growth.

Choice B Reason:

Hyperglycemia is incorrect. Hyperglycemia is not a typical manifestation of SSRI withdrawal in newborns. Neonatal withdrawal symptoms from SSRIs often involve neurobehavioral signs such as jitteriness, irritability, and respiratory distress, rather than metabolic changes such as hyperglycemi

A.

Choice C Reason:

Bradypnea is correct. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is a potential manifestation of withdrawal from SSRIs in newborns. Respiratory distress and changes in breathing patterns are among the signs that can be observed in neonates exposed to SSRIs during pregnancy.

Choice D Reason:

Vomiting is incorrect. While gastrointestinal symptoms can occur, vomiting is not a classic manifestation of SSRI withdrawal in newborns. Common withdrawal symptoms include neurobehavioral signs like jitteriness, irritability, and feeding difficulties.

Choice A Reason:

Cholecystitis is incorrect. Cholecystitis is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives.

Choice B Reason:

Hypertension is correct. Women with uncontrolled hypertension or severe hypertension are generally advised against using oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events.

Choice C Reason:

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is incorrect. HPV is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives.

Choice D Reason:

Migraine headaches is correct. Women with migraines with aura, especially those over 35 years old, are often advised against using estrogen-containing contraceptives due to an increased risk of stroke.

Choice E Reason:

Anxiety disorder is incorrect. Anxiety disorder alone is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives. However, individual health considerations should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

Choice A Reason:

"I will receive this medication if my baby is Rh-negative." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. The purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin is to prevent sensitization of an Rh-negative mother to Rh-positive fetal blood. If the baby is Rh-negative, there is no need for Rho(D) immune globulin.

Choice B Reason:

"I will receive this medication when I am in labor." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. Rho(D) immune globulin is typically given around 28 weeks of pregnancy and possibly after events that could lead to mixing of maternal and fetal blood, not specifically during labor.

Choice C Reason:

"I will need a second dose of this medication when my baby is 6 weeks old." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. The administration of Rho(D) immune globulin is generally based on events during pregnancy and delivery, and a second dose is not typically given postpartum unless the baby is Rh-positive.

Choice D Reason:

"I will need this medication if I have an amniocentesis." This statement records understanding of the teaching. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women during pregnancy and certain other situations to prevent the development of Rh incompatibility with a Rh-positive baby. If the mother undergoes procedures such as amniocentesis or experiences events that could lead to mixing of maternal and fetal blood, Rho(D) immune globulin is administered.

Choice A Reason:

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is not appropriate. This invasive procedure involves sampling blood from the umbilical cord and is not typically used in the context of a positive contraction stress test.

Choice B Reason:

Amnioinfusion is not appropriate. Amnioinfusion is a procedure in which sterile fluid is infused into the amniotic cavity to alleviate conditions such as oligohydramnios. It is not a primary diagnostic test for assessing fetal well-being.

Choice C Reason:

Biophysical profile (BPP) is appropriate. The biophysical profile is a diagnostic test that assesses the well-being of the fetus by evaluating various parameters, including fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, and the amniotic fluid volume. This test provides additional information to assess fetal well-being and can help guide decisions about the timing and mode of delivery.

Choice D Reason:

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is inappropriate. CVS is a prenatal test used for diagnosing certain genetic conditions but is not indicated in the context of a positive contraction stress test.

Choice A Reason:

Hct 39.6 is incorrect. This hemoglobin level is within a typical range and may not require immediate intervention.

Choice B Reason:

Serum albumin 4.5 g/dL is incorrect. A serum albumin level of 4.5 g/dL is within the normal range and does not suggest an urgent issue.

Choice C Reason:

WBC 9,000/mm³ is incorrect. A white blood cell count of 9,000/mm³ is within the normal range and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in the absence of other symptoms or indications.

Choice D Reason:

Platelets 50,000/mm³ is correct. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and may indicate thrombocytopenia, a condition associated with preeclampsi

A. Thrombocytopenia in preeclampsia can lead to bleeding complications and requires close monitoring and management.

Choice A Reason:

Left upper quadrant is incorrect. The left upper quadrant is less likely to be the area where the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is heard when the fetal position is left occipital anterior.

Choice B Reason:

Right upper quadrant is incorrect. The right upper quadrant is not the typical location for assessing fetal heart tones when the fetal position is left occipital anterior. The heart tones are generally heard more towards the left side.

Choice C Reason:

Left lower quadrant is correct. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant is likely to provide the best detection of the fetal heart tones in the described fetal position.

Choice D Reason:

Right lower quadrant is incorrect. Similar to the right upper quadrant, the right lower quadrant is not the optimal location for assessing the fetal heart when the fetal position is left occipital anterior. The left side is typically where the point of maximum intensity is found.

Nägele's rule is a method used to estimate the expected date of delivery (EDD) for a pregnant woman. To use Nägele's rule, you start with the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days.

In this case:

LMP: November 27th

Add one year: November 27th of the following year

Subtract three months: August 27th

Add seven days: September 3rd

Therefore, according to Nägele's rule, the expected date of birth is September 3rd

Choice A Reason:

"You can miss your period for several other reasons. Describe your typical menstrual cycle." This response acknowledges that a missed period can result from various factors other than pregnancy, such as stress, changes in weight, hormonal fluctuations, or certain medical conditions. Understanding the client's typical menstrual cycle can help the nurse gather more information about potential reasons for the late period.

Choice B Reason:

"If you have been sexually active and haven't used protection, it is likely that you are pregnant. “This response assumes pregnancy without exploring other possibilities or the client's individual situation.

Choice C Reason:

"Let's check to see if you have any other signs of pregnancy. Have you noticed any abdominal enlargement yet?" While considering other signs of pregnancy is reasonable, focusing on abdominal enlargement may not be the most accurate early indicator, and it's essential to explore a broader range of symptoms.

Choice D Reason:

"Because you have missed your period, you should try taking a home pregnancy test before you start worrying. "While suggesting a home pregnancy test is reasonable, it may be more beneficial to gather additional information about the client's menstrual cycle and potential symptoms before jumping directly to a test.

Choice A Reason:

O2 saturation is correct. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial during labor, especially when interventions like amniotomy are planned. The artificial rupture of membranes can lead to changes in the fetal heart rate pattern, and assessing the mother's oxygen saturation helps ensure adequate oxygen delivery to both the mother and the baby.

Choice B Reason:

Temperature is incorrect. While monitoring temperature is important during labor, it is not the immediate priority when planning an amniotomy. O2 saturation is more directly related to the potential effects of the amniotomy on fetal well-being.

Choice C Reason:

Blood pressure is incorrect. Blood pressure is an essential parameter to monitor during labor, but it may not be the immediate priority when planning an amniotomy. Oxygen saturation takes precedence as it provides more direct information about the oxygenation status of both the mother and the fetus.

Choice D Reason:

Urinary output is incorrect. Urinary output is a vital sign to monitor, but it may not be the immediate priority when preparing for an amniotomy. O2 saturation is more directly relevant to the potential effects on the fetus during this intervention.

A. Frank breech position

A. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are the presenting part. When the nurse locates fetal heart tones above the client's umbilicus at midline during active labor, it is indicative of a breech presentation, and the frank breech position is one possibility.

B. In a cephalic presentation, which is the most common and ideal position for childbirth, the fetal head is the presenting part, and the fetal heart tones would typically be heard below the umbilicus.

C. In a posterior position, the back of the baby's head is against the mother's spine. Fetal heart tones in this position would be typically heard below the umbilicus.

D. In a transverse lie, the baby is positioned horizontally across the uterus. Fetal heart tones may be heard laterally in this position, not necessarily above the umbilicus at midline.