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ATI RN Nutrition 2019 Final Updated 2024

Total Questions : 62

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Question 1:

A nurse is teaching a class about dietary guidelines to promote cardiovascular health. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Decreasing intake of omega-3 fatty acids would not be recommended for promoting cardiovascular health. Omega-3 fatty acids are essential fats that have been shown to have various heart-protective effects, such as reducing inflammation, lowering triglyceride levels, and improving overall cardiovascular health.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing the intake of whole grains is a sound recommendation for promoting cardiovascular health. Whole grains are rich in dietary fiber, vitamins, and minerals. They can help lower cholesterol levels, improve blood sugar control, and contribute to a healthy cardiovascular system.



Choice C rationale:
Decreasing the intake of potassium is not advisable for cardiovascular health. Potassium is a mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper heart and muscle function. Adequate potassium intake can help regulate blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke.
Choice D rationale:
Increasing the intake of refined carbohydrates is not a suitable recommendation for cardiovascular health. Refined carbohydrates, such as sugary snacks and white bread, can lead to spikes in blood sugar levels, weight gain, and an increased risk of heart disease.


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Question 2:

A nurse is teaching a client who reports wanting to lose weight about behavioral modifications. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The statement "Meal replacement shakes can cause weight gain" is incorrect. Meal replacement shakes are designed to provide controlled portions of nutrients and can be helpful for weight management when used appropriately.
Choice B rationale:
While having a substantial breakfast can be beneficial for weight management, there's no hard and fast rule that it should be the biggest meal of the day. The timing and distribution of meals can vary based on individual preferences and lifestyles.
Choice C rationale:
Setting a weight loss goal of 2.5 pounds per week might be too aggressive for most individuals. A safe and sustainable rate of weight loss is generally around 1-2 pounds per week. Rapid weight loss can lead to muscle loss and other health issues.
Choice D rationale:
"Make sure to drink water with your meals" is a valid statement. Drinking water with meals can help promote satiety and control portion sizes. Additionally, staying hydrated is essential for overall health and can support weight loss efforts by reducing the likelihood of mistaking thirst for hunger.


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Question 3:

A nurse is providing nutritional education to a client who is obese. The nurse should include in the information which of the following gastrointestinal disorders is commonly associated with obesity.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Crohn's disease is not commonly associated with obesity. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to weight loss due to malabsorption and other gastrointestinal symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Peptic ulcer disease is not directly linked to obesity. Peptic ulcers are primarily caused by Helicobacter pylori infection or the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C rationale:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is commonly associated with obesity. Excess weight, especially around the abdominal area, can contribute to increased pressure on the stomach and lower esophageal sphincter, leading to the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus and causing symptoms of GERD such as heartburn and regurgitation.
Choice D rationale:
Celiac disease is not typically associated with obesity. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by the ingestion of gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Individuals with celiac disease often experience weight loss and malabsorption due to intestinal damage.


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Question 4:

A nurse is planning eating strategies with a client who has nausea from equilibrium imbalance. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Serving hot foods at mealtime might worsen the client's nausea, as strong odors and high temperatures can exacerbate feelings of nausea.
Choice B rationale:
Limiting fluid intake between meals can help prevent overfilling the stomach, which can contribute to nausea in clients with equilibrium imbalances. Consuming fluids between meals, rather than with meals, can also aid in better digestion and reduce the likelihood of nausea.
Choice C rationale:
Encouraging the client to eat even if nauseated could potentially worsen their symptoms and lead to an aversion to eating due to the association of food with nausea.
Choice D rationale:
Providing low-fat carbohydrates with meals may be beneficial for some clients, but it doesn't directly address the issue of nausea related to equilibrium imbalance. The focus should be on strategies that prevent nausea rather than specific meal components.


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Question 5:

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Avoiding glutamine is not a typical recommendation for managing Crohn's disease. Glutamine is an amino acid that plays a role in gut health, and its avoidance wouldn't necessarily aid in disease recovery.
Choice B rationale:
Limiting the amount of fiber in the diet is important for clients with Crohn's disease. High-fiber foods can exacerbate symptoms by causing bowel irritation and increasing motility. A low-fiber diet can help reduce inflammation and discomfort in the digestive tract.

Choice Crationale:
Taking mild laxatives is generally not recommended for individuals with Crohn's disease. Laxatives can irritate the digestive tract and potentially worsen symptoms. Bowel movements should be managed with dietary and lifestyle modifications under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
Choice Drationale:
It's not common for individuals with Crohn's disease to gain weight due to the disease itself. In fact, weight loss is a more typical symptom due to reduced nutrient absorption and increased metabolism.


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Question 6:

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should recognize which of the following medications places the client at risk for wound dehiscence.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat high blood pressure and angina. It doesn't significantly impact wound healing or increase the risk of wound dehiscence.
Choice B rationale:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system and has anti-inflammatory effects. While it can be crucial for managing postoperative inflammation, its immunosuppressive nature can hinder the normal wound-healing process, increasing the risk of wound dehiscence.
Choice C rationale:
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces stomach acid production. While it can influence the gastric environment, it doesn't directly impact wound healing or the risk of wound dehiscence.
Choice D rationale:
Zolmitriptan is a medication used to treat migraines. It doesn't interfere with wound healing or increase the risk of wound dehiscence.


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Question 7:

A nurse is teaching about implementing a heart-healthy diet to a client who has coronary artery disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Canned potato soup is not a suitable choice for a heart-healthy diet. Canned soups often contain high levels of sodium, which can contribute to hypertension and worsen coronary artery disease.

Choice Brationale:
Baked ham is another poor choice for a heart-healthy diet. Processed meats like ham tend to be high in sodium, saturated fats, and preservatives, which can negatively impact cardiovascular health.
Choice Crationale:
Processed cheese is also not recommended for a heart-healthy diet. Processed cheese can be high in saturated fats and sodium, both of which are detrimental to cardiovascular health.

Choice D rationale:
The correct choice is broiled salmon. Salmon is rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which have been shown to have protective effects on the heart. Omega-3 fatty acids can help lower triglyceride levels, reduce inflammation, and improve overall cardiovascular health. Broiling the salmon is a heart-healthy cooking method that preserves its nutritional value without adding excessive unhealthy fats.


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Question 8:

A nurse is providing breakfast for a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following meal items should the nurse select?

Explanation

Choice Arationale:
Rye toast with herbal tea is also not appropriate for someone with celiac disease. Rye bread contains gluten, and even though herbal tea is gluten-free, the combination with rye toast would still be harmful to the client.

Choice Brationale:
Graham crackers with peanut butter are not suitable for a client with celiac disease. Graham crackers are typically made from wheat flour, which contains gluten, a protein that individuals with celiac disease must avoid to prevent intestinal damage.

Choice C rationale:
The correct choice is rice cereal with sliced bananas. Rice cereal is naturally gluten-free and therefore safe for individuals with celiac disease. Sliced bananas can add flavor and nutrients to the meal without causing any harm to the client's condition.
Choice D rationale:
Poached eggs with wheat bagel is an unsuitable option. Wheat bagels contain gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Even though poached eggs are gluten-free, the risk of cross-contamination from the wheat bagel would be too high for this client.


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Question 9:

A nurse is caring for a client who has throat cancer and is receiving radiation therapy. The client reports nausea, stomatitis, and weight loss. Which of the following dietary interventions should the nurse recommend?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Serving foods hot might seem like a way to enhance the aroma and taste, which could be appealing to the client. However, hot foods might worsen nausea and discomfort for someone undergoing radiation therapy due to their heightened sensitivity to smells. This choice doesn't directly address the client's symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing the intake of liquids at mealtime could be helpful to prevent dehydration, but it doesn't directly address the reported symptoms of nausea, stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth), and weight loss. Moreover, certain liquids might irritate the client's throat, making this choice less suitable.
Choice C rationale:
Consuming foods high in fat content is not the ideal choice for this client. Fat-rich foods can be heavy and difficult to digest, potentially exacerbating nausea and not being well-tolerated by someone experiencing stomatitis.
Choice D rationale:
The best choice is to recommend foods high in protein. Protein is essential for tissue repair, immune function, and maintaining lean body mass. Given the client's reported weight loss and stomatitis, protein-rich foods can aid in promoting tissue healing and preventing further muscle loss. Additionally, focusing on protein sources that are easy to swallow and tolerate can address the client's discomfort while supporting their nutritional needs.


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Question 10:

A nurse is teaching a group of parents about appropriate food choices for toddlers. Which of the following choices by the parents demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Caramel popcorn is not an appropriate choice for toddlers due to its high sugar content and potential choking hazard from hard or sticky pieces.
Choice B rationale:
Cooked spaghetti with sauce is an appropriate choice for toddlers. It provides carbohydrates for energy, and the sauce can contain vegetables and proteins, making it a balanced option.
Choice C rationale:
Steak cut into small pieces might not be suitable for toddlers, as it could be difficult for them to chew and may not provide the appropriate texture for their developing teeth.
Choice D rationale:
Hot dogs cut into fourths may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to their cylindrical shape and potential difficulty in chewing. They are also processed meats, which are not the healthiest option for young children.


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Question 11:

A nurse is assisting in the selection of food for a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse select that contains the greatest amount of potassium?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Cheddar cheese does not contain a significant amount of potassium. It is a dairy product that is richer in calcium and fat than in potassium.
Choice B rationale:
Raw tomato contains some potassium, but it's not as high as the other options. It's a good source of vitamins and antioxidants, but for hypokalemia, more potassium-rich options are better.
Choice C rationale:
Brown rice contains moderate levels of potassium, but it is not as high as the potassium content in a baked potato.
Choice D rationale:
One small baked potato is a great source of potassium. Potatoes are known for their high potassium content, making them suitable for individuals with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function.


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Question 12:

A nurse is teaching a group of clients about dietary needs to prevent osteoporosis. Which of the following dietary choices should the nurse recommend as having the highest calcium content?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
One large tomato does not have a high calcium content. Tomatoes are generally not considered a significant source of calcium.
Choice B rationale:
Green grapes are not a significant source of calcium. They are primarily composed of water and carbohydrates.
Choice C rationale:
A medium banana also does not provide a substantial amount of calcium. Bananas are known for their potassium content more than calcium.
Choice D rationale:
1 cup of broccoli is a good source of calcium. While dairy products are often considered the primary source of dietary calcium, broccoli is a non-dairy option that contains a decent amount of calcium along with other nutrients beneficial for bone health.


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Question 13:

A nurse is caring for a client who has stomatitis following radiation therapy. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Serving foods while still at a hot temperature (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for a client with stomatitis following radiation therapy. Stomatitis can cause inflammation and soreness in the mouth, and hot foods can further irritate the sensitive tissues, leading to increased discomfort and potential injury.
Choice B rationale:
Serving foods without sauces or gravies (Choice B) is the correct choice. Stomatitis often causes pain and discomfort in the mouth, and spicy or acidic foods, as well as those with sauces or gravies, can exacerbate this discomfort. Providing plain and bland foods can help reduce irritation and promote healing in sensitive oral tissues.

Choice Crationale:
Instructing the client to drink liquids without a straw (Choice C) is not a direct intervention for stomatitis. It's more commonly recommended for clients who have undergone oral surgery to prevent dislodging of blood clots. While it's generally a good practice for oral health, it might not significantly impact the discomfort caused by stomatitis.
Choice Drationale:
Offering mouth rinses with normal saline and water (Choice D) is generally a good practice for maintaining oral hygiene, but it might not be the most appropriate intervention for a client with stomatitis following radiation therapy. While rinsing can help keep the mouth clean, it might cause discomfort in the presence of stomatitis due to the potential for mechanical irritation.


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Question 14:

A nurse is teaching about nutrition to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Limiting protein intake (Choice A) is the correct recommendation for a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have reduced filtration capacity, and excess protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys struggle to eliminate. Restricting protein intake helps reduce the strain on the kidneys and minimizes the buildup of waste.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing potassium intake (Choice B) is not a suitable recommendation for a client with chronic kidney disease. In fact, individuals with kidney disease often need to closely monitor and restrict their potassium intake because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.
Choice Drationale:
Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice D) is not a proper recommendation for a client with chronic kidney disease. Similar to potassium, individuals with kidney disease typically need to limit phosphorus intake because the kidneys play a role in regulating phosphorus levels in the body. Elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and cardiovascular complications.
Choice Crationale:
Limiting calcium intake (Choice C) might be relevant in specific cases, such as if a client has hypercalcemia, but it is not a common recommendation for all clients with chronic kidney disease. Calcium and phosphorus metabolism are closely linked, and imbalances in these minerals can have negative effects on bone health. Therefore, it's important to manage calcium and phosphorus intake together.


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Question 15:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of four clients. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse that a client has iron-deficiency anemia?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
A client whose hematocrit is 42% (Choice A) falls within the normal range for hematocrit values, which is typically around 37-52% for adult women and 40-54% for adult men. While low hematocrit values can indicate anemia, a value of 42% is not indicative of iron-deficiency anemia on its own.
Choice B rationale:
A client whose RBC count is 5.2 million/mm3 (Choice B) is within the normal range for red blood cell counts, which is roughly 4.5-5.5 million/mm3 for adult women and 4.5-6.1 million/mm3 for adult men. Although low RBC counts can be associated with anemia, the value provided is not suggestive of iron-deficiency anemia without further context.
Choice C rationale:
A client whose ferritin level is 8 ng/mL (Choice C) is the correct choice. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron, and low levels of ferritin are a strong indicator of iron-deficiency anemia. Ferritin levels less than 12 ng/mL are often considered indicative of depleted iron stores.
Choice D rationale:
A client whose hemoglobin is 15 g/dL (Choice D) falls within the normal range for hemoglobin values, which is typically around 12-15.5 g/dL for adult women and 13.5-17.5 g/dL for adult men. While low hemoglobin can suggest anemia, a value of 15 g/dL is not indicative of iron-deficiency anemia on its own.


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Question 16:

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feeding and reports cramping and abdominal distention. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice Arationale:
Applying low intermittent suction is used for nasogastric tube management to remove excess air or gastric contents and is not directly related to addressing cramping and abdominal distention. This action doesn't address the underlying issue.

Choice Brationale:
Increasing the rate of feeding is not the appropriate action to take in response to cramping and abdominal distention. It might worsen the discomfort and potentially overload the client's gastrointestinal system, leading to more issues.

Choice C rationale:
(Correct Choice) Checking for gastric residual is the appropriate action in this scenario. Cramping and abdominal distention can indicate delayed gastric emptying, which might be caused by an accumulation of feeding within the stomach. By checking for gastric residual, the nurse can assess whether there is a significant amount of residual feeding present, which might require adjusting the feeding rate or intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Requesting a higher-fat formula is not the initial action to take when the client reports cramping and abdominal distention. It assumes that the discomfort is due to the formula's composition, which might not be the case. First, assessing for gastric residual and considering other factors is important before changing the formula.


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Question 17:

A nurse in a critical care unit is assessing an adult client. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a fluid volume deficit?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range (approximately 36.5°C to 37.5°C or 97.7°F to 99.5°F) and does not specifically indicate fluid volume deficit. It's important to consider this value along with other findings.
Choice B rationale:
(Correct Choice) A pulse rate of 118/min is indicative of tachycardia, which can be a sign of fluid volume deficit. When the body is experiencing a decrease in fluid volume, the heart rate often increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain adequate circulation. Tachycardia helps to pump a reduced blood volume more rapidly to vital organs.
Choice C rationale:
A blood pressure of 152/90 mm Hg is elevated but does not solely indicate a fluid volume deficit. While low blood pressure can be a sign of dehydration, high blood pressure does not necessarily correlate directly with fluid volume status.
Choice D rationale:
Central venous pressure (CVP) of 25 mm Hg is elevated. CVP reflects the pressure in the vena cava and right atrium, indicating the amount of blood returning to the heart. An elevated CVP might be seen in fluid volume excess or right-sided heart failure, not fluid volume deficit.


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Question 18:

A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Alternating breasts during feedings is not primarily done for comfort, but rather to ensure that the baby receives both foremilk and hindmilk from each breast. Foremilk is more watery and quenches thirst, while hindmilk is richer in fats and nutrients. This choice does not accurately reflect the purpose of alternating breasts.
Choice B rationale:
Newborns often need to nurse more frequently than every 4 hours, especially during the early weeks when their stomach capacity is small. Feeding every 2 to 3 hours is generally recommended to ensure they receive enough nourishment and to stimulate milk supply.
Choice C rationale:
Supplementing feedings with water is unnecessary and can even be harmful to a breastfeeding baby. Breast milk provides all the necessary hydration for the baby, and introducing water before the recommended age can lead to decreased milk intake and potential electrolyte imbalances.
Choice D rationale:
(Correct Choice) This statement indicates an understanding of breastfeeding dynamics. The baby receives the majority of the milk's volume within the first 10 minutes of breastfeeding. However, it's important to note that nursing beyond the initial 10 minutes allows the baby to access the richer hindmilk, which is important for their growth and satiety.


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Question 19:

A nurse is planning dietary teaching for a client who adheres to a vegan diet. The nurse should identify that the client is at greatest risk for which of the following nutrient deficiencies?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Magnesium deficiency is not a common nutrient deficiency among individuals adhering to a vegan diet. Vegan diets can provide sufficient magnesium through sources like nuts, seeds, whole grains, and legumes.
Choice B rationale:
Vitamin A deficiency is a potential concern for individuals on a vegan diet. Vitamin A is mainly found in animal products as preformed retinol (retinyl esters), which is more bioavailable than the plant-based provitamin A carotenoids (e.g., beta-carotene) found in fruits and vegetables. While beta-carotene can be converted to vitamin A in the body, this conversion can be limited, leading to a risk of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for vision, immune function, and skin health.
Choice C rationale:
Omega-3 fatty acid deficiency could be a concern for vegans, but it's not the greatest risk among the provided choices. Vegan sources of omega-3 fatty acids include flaxseeds, chia seeds, walnuts, and algae-based supplements. While it's important to ensure a balanced intake of omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A deficiency is generally considered a greater risk due to its vital role in various physiological functions.
Choice D rationale:
Potassium deficiency is not typically associated with a vegan diet. In fact, many plant-based foods are rich in potassium, including bananas, avocados, spinach, and beans. Adequate intake of potassium is more achievable in a vegan diet compared to other nutrient deficiencies.


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Question 20:

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice Arationale:
Albumin in the urine is not an indication of normal kidney function. The presence of albumin in the urine, known as albuminuria, is a sign of kidney damage, especially in individuals with diabetes. It's essential for individuals with diabetes to monitor and manage their kidney health, as kidney damage is a common complication.

Choice Brationale:
Blood glucose levels between 200 and 212 milligrams per deciliter are higher than the recommended target range for individuals with type 1 diabetes. Maintaining blood glucose levels within a healthy range (typically 80-130 mg/dL fasting) is important to prevent complications.

Choice C rationale:
An HbA1c level of five percent is unrealistically low and not achievable. The HbA1c level reflects the average blood glucose level over the past two to three months. While lower HbA1c levels are associated with better diabetes control, aiming for an HbA1c of five percent would pose a risk of hypoglycemia and potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
The statement "I will have ketones in my urine if my blood glucose is maintained at 190 milligrams per deciliter" demonstrates an understanding of the relationship between high blood glucose levels and ketone production. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to the breakdown of fats for energy, resulting in the production of ketones, which can be detected in the urine. Ketones in the urine can be a sign of inadequate diabetes management and a risk of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).


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Question 21:

A nurse is evaluating a client's laboratory results. The nurse should recognize which of the following results places the client at risk for coronary heart disease.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

An HbA1c level of 5% is within the target range for good diabetes control. HbA1c represents the average blood glucose level over the past two to three months, and an HbA1c of 5% indicates well-managed blood glucose levels.

Choice B rationale:

An LDL level of 64 mg/dL is within the recommended range for individuals at risk for heart disease. Lower LDL levels are associated with reduced risk, but 64 mg/dL is not a concerning value and is not typically associated with an increased risk of coronary heart disease.

Choice C rationale:

A total cholesterol level of 173 mg/dL is within the desirable range for adults. While it's important to consider both LDL and HDL cholesterol levels, the total cholesterol value alone is not sufficient to indicate a significant risk of coronary heart disease.

Choice D rationale:

A fasting glucose level of 140 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia (elevated blood glucose) and is a significant risk factor for coronary heart disease. Hyperglycemia is associated with increased oxidative stress, inflammation, and vascular damage, all of which contribute to the development of cardiovascular complications in individuals with diabetes. It's crucial to manage blood glucose levels to reduce the risk of heart disease and other diabetes-related complications.


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Question 22:

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure about limiting sodium intake to 1,000 mg/day. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following dairy products has the highest sodium content?

Explanation

Choice A rationale: 1 cup of milk contains about 100 mg of sodium. This is a moderate amount of sodium, but it is not the highest compared to the other options.

Choice B rationale: 4 oz of vanilla pudding contains about 153 mg of sodium. This is higher than the sodium content in 1 cup of milk, but we need to compare it with the other options.

Choice C rationale: 1/2 cup of yogurt contains about 86 mg of sodium. This is less than the sodium content in both 1 cup of milk and 4 oz of vanilla pudding.

Choice D rationale: 2 oz of processed cheese can contain around 375 mg of sodium. This is significantly higher than the sodium content in 1 cup of milk, 4 oz of vanilla pudding, and 1/2 cup of yogurt.

So, the correct answer is, after analyzing all choices, D. 2 oz of processed cheese has the highest sodium content.


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Question 23:

A nurse is assessing an older adult client who has dysphagia and is experiencing dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Distended neck veins - Distended neck veins are typically associated with increased fluid volume or right-sided heart failure. In the case of dehydration, the fluid volume is reduced, and the veins are more likely to appear collapsed rather than distended.
Choice B rationale:
Tachycardia - Dehydration leads to a reduction in blood volume and a subsequent decrease in blood pressure. To compensate for this drop in blood pressure, the heart rate tends to increase. Tachycardia (an elevated heart rate) is a compensatory mechanism aimed at maintaining an adequate cardiac output despite reduced circulating blood volume.


Choice C rationale:
Hypertension - Dehydration typically leads to decreased blood volume, which in turn results in decreased blood pressure. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a common finding in dehydration. Instead, low blood pressure (hypotension) is more likely.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased respiratory rate - Dehydration primarily affects the cardiovascular system, leading to reduced blood volume and subsequent compensatory mechanisms such as increased heart rate. The respiratory rate is not directly influenced by dehydration, so a decreased respiratory rate would not be a typical finding.


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Question 24:

A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a young adult client who was administered a hypotonic IV fluid bolus for rehydration after collapsing at an athletic event. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing water intoxication?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Exaggerated reflexes - Water intoxication, also known as water poisoning or hyponatremia, occurs when there's an excessive intake of water that dilutes the body's sodium levels. This can lead to low sodium concentrations in the blood, which disrupts the balance of electrolytes and can result in neurological symptoms, including exaggerated or hyperactive reflexes.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle weakness - Muscle weakness can be a symptom of various conditions, but it is not a typical finding in water intoxication. Hyponatremia, which is associated with water intoxication, tends to affect the nervous system and can lead to neurological symptoms rather than muscle weakness.
Choice C rationale:
Hypernatremia - Hypernatremia refers to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. However, water intoxication is characterized by hyponatremia, which is low sodium levels due to excessive water intake. Therefore, hypernatremia is not a finding associated with water intoxication.
Choice D rationale:
Weak pulses - Water intoxication affects the balance of electrolytes, primarily sodium, in the body. Weak pulses are not a typical manifestation of water intoxication. Symptoms related to the nervous system, such as confusion, seizures, and altered consciousness, are more common due to the impact of electrolyte imbalances on brain function.


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Question 25:

A nurse is teaching the family of a school-age child who is obese about complications of childhood obesity. Which of the following complications should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is not typically associated with complications of childhood obesity. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder affecting the joints, and while obesity can contribute to joint stress, it's not a commonly taught complication of obesity.
Choice B rationale:
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not directly related to childhood obesity. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the body's immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Obesity is more commonly associated with type 2 diabetes, as it can lead to insulin resistance over time.
Choice C rationale:
Hypothyroidism is not a well-established complication of childhood obesity. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn't produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to a slowed metabolism. While obesity can be influenced by thyroid function, it's not a primary complication taught in relation to childhood obesity.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension is a well-recognized complication of childhood obesity. When a child is obese, the excess adipose tissue can lead to an increase in blood pressure due to increased work that the heart must perform to supply blood to the additional tissues. This can strain the cardiovascular system and potentially lead to hypertension, which is a major risk factor for heart disease and stroke. Childhood obesity can set the stage for long-term cardiovascular issues, making hypertension a key concern.


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