ATI RN Pharmacology 2019 Updated 2024
Total Questions : 67
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the treatment has been effective?
Explanation
Atorvastatin is a medication that belongs to a group of drugs called statins. It is used to lower blood levels of “bad” cholesterol (low-density lipoprotein, or LDL), to increase levels of “good” cholesterol (high-density lipoprotein, or HDL), and to lower triglycerides (a type of fat in the blood). The treatment has been effective if the LDL level is reduced, as high LDL levels can increase the risk of heart disease and stroke. A normal range for LDL is less than 100 mg/dL.
Choice A is wrong because urine specific gravity is a measure of how concentrated the urine is, not how much cholesterol is in the blood. A normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.0304.
Choice B is wrong because BUN (blood urea nitrogen) is a measure of how well the kidneys are working, not how much cholesterol is in the blood. A normal range for BUN is 7 to 20 mg/dL.
Choice D is wrong because blood glucose is a measure of how much sugar is in the blood, not how much cholesterol is in the blood.
A normal range for blood glucose is 70 to 100 mg/dL.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of benign prostate hypertrophy and a prescription for doxazosin. The client tells the nurse, “I do not want to take this medication.
I would prefer a natural therapy.” Which of the following supplements should the nurse suggest the client discuss with the provider?
Explanation
Saw palmetto is a natural herbal supplement that may help reduce the symptoms of benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH) by inhibiting the enzyme 5- alpha-reductase, which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), a hormone that stimulates prostate growth. Some studies have shown that saw palmetto can improve urinary flow and reduce nocturia in men with BPH.
Choice Ais wrong because black cohosh is a plant that contains phytoestrogens, which are compounds that mimic estrogen in the body.Black cohosh is mainly used for menopausal symptoms in women, such as hot flashes and mood swings.
Choice Bis wrong because garlic has no proven effect on BPH. Garlic may have some benefits for cardiovascular health and immune system, but it does not affect prostate size or function.It has no effect on BPH and may even worsen it by altering the hormonal balance.
Choice C is wrong because feverfew is a herb that has anti-inflammatory and anti-migraine properties.
It may help prevent or treat headaches, arthritis, and allergies, but it has no effect on BPH or urinary symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for lisinopril.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when administering lisinopril?
Explanation
Lisinopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. However, one of the common side effects of lisinopril is hypotension, which means low blood pressure. Hypotension can cause dizziness, faintness, or lightheadedness when getting up suddenly from a lying or sitting position. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure when administering lisinopril and report any signs of hypotension to the doctor.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which means ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril.
Tinnitus can be caused by other factors such as ear infections, loud noises, or medications such as aspirin or antibiotics.
Choice C is wrong because hypokalemia, which means low potassium levels in the blood, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril. In fact, lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which means high potassium levels in the blood, especially in patients with kidney problems or diabetes. Hyperkalemia can cause irregular heartbeats, muscle weakness, or numbness. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s potassium levels when administering lisinopril and avoid giving potassium supplements or salt substitutes that contain potassium.
Choice D is wrong because bradycardia, which means slow heart rate, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril.
Lisinopril does not affect the heart rate directly, but it can lower the blood pressure and improve the heart function.
Bradycardia can be caused by other factors such as heart block, sinus node dysfunction, or medications such as beta blockers or calcium channel blockers.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an allergic reaction?
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a sign of a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin that can cause difficulty breathing and may be life threatening.
The nurse should stop the medication and call for emergency assistance. Choice B is wrong because nausea is a common side effect of amoxicillin, not an allergic reaction.
Choice C is wrong because insomnia is not related to amoxicillin use. Choice D is wrong because cardiac dysrhythmia is not a typical symptom of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin.
It may be caused by other factors, such as underlying heart disease or electrolyte imbalance.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A is the correct action. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin that is administered subcutaneously. Expelling the air bubble helps ensure accurate dosing and prevents the injection of air into the subcutaneous tissue.
Choice B is wrong because firm pressure should not be applied to the injection site following administration.This can cause bruising or bleeding at the site.Instead, a dry gauze pad can be used to cover the site if needed.
Choice C is wrong because the syringe needle should not be inserted halfway into the client’s skin.The full length of the needle should be inserted at a 90° angle into a fold of skin that has been cleansed with an alcohol swab.
A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
A nurse accidentally administers the medication metformin instead of metoprolol to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Metformin is a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in people with type 2 diabetes. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems. If the nurse accidentally gives metformin instead of metoprolol, the client may experience hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), which can cause symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, confusion, and loss of consciousness. Therefore, the nurse should check the client’s glucose level and treat hypoglycemia if needed.
Choice A is wrong because HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is a type of cholesterol that is not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Choice B is wrong because thyroid function levels are not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Choice C is wrong because uric acid level is not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Uric acid is a waste product that can cause gout if it accumulates in the joints. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL two hours after meals.
Normal ranges for HDL are 40 to 60 mg/dL for men and 50 to 60 mg/dL for women.
Normal ranges for thyroid function levels vary depending on the specific test, but generally they are between 0.4 and 4.0 mIU/L for TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), 4.5 to 11.2 mcg/dL for T4 (thyroxine), and 80 to 180 ng/dL for T3 (triiodothyronine).
Normal ranges for uric acid are 3.4 to 7.0 mg/dL for men and 2.4 to 6.0 mg/dL for women.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for theophylline, a sustained-release capsule.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
The client will need to have blood levels drawn to monitor the therapeutic and toxic levels of theophylline, a bronchodilator that is used to treat symptoms of asthma and other lung conditions. The normal range of theophylline in the blood is 10 to 20 mcg/mL.
Choice A is wrong because the client should not sprinkle the medication in applesauce or any other food. Theophylline is a sustained-release capsule that should be swallowed whole and not crushed or chewed.
Choice B is wrong because the client should avoid caffeine while on this medication, as it can increase the side effects of theophylline, such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and irregular heart rate.
Choice C is wrong because the client should not limit fluid intake while on this medication unless instructed by the doctor.
Fluid intake helps prevent dehydration and kidney problems that can affect theophylline levels in the blood.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program.
The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Explanation
Lithium can cause hyponatremia by increasing the secretion of antidiuretic hormone and reducing the renal clearance of sodium.
Strenuous exercise can also cause hyponatremia by increasing sweat loss and fluid intake. Therefore, a client who is taking lithium and starting a new exercise program is at risk of developing hyponatremia.
Choice A is wrong because hypomagnesemia is not a common side effect of lithium or exercise.
Choice B is wrong because hypocalcemia is not a common side effect of lithium or exercise.
Choice D is wrong because hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lithium or exercise.
However, lithium can interact with some diuretics that can cause hypokalemia, so the client should avoid taking these drugs without consulting their doctor. Normal ranges for electrolytes are:
Sodium: 135-145 mmol/L
Magnesium: 0.7-1.1 mmol/L
Calcium: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L
Potassium: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L
A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Explanation
Naloxone is a drug that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, by blocking their receptors in the brain. One of the adverse effects of morphine is respiratory depression, which means it slows down breathing and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) or death. Naloxone can restore normal breathing and prevent further harm from opioid overdose. Therefore, an increased respiratory rate is a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
A WBC count of 5,000/mm3 is low and could indicate leukopenia, a possible side effect of amitriptyline. Leukopenia increases the risk of infection and should be reported to the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a total bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dL is within the normal range of 0.3 to 1.9 mg/dL.
Choice C is wrong because a Hct of 44% is within the normal range of 37% to 48% for women and 45% to 52% for men.
Choice D is wrong because a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
A nurse is monitoring for an infusion reaction for a client who is receiving a dose of IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction?
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
-
Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Insert the needle into the NPH vial and inject an amount of air equal to the intended NPH insulin dose.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial: Without removing the needle from the NPH vial, withdraw the NPH insulin dose from the vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Without removing the needle from the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin dose from the vial.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about medication reconciliation. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to perform medication reconciliation for which of the following clients?
Explanation
Medication reconciliation is the process of creating the most accurate list possible of all medications a client is taking and comparing that list against the physician’s orders at every transition of care. A client who is transferred to a step-down unit is at risk of medication errors due to changes in the level of care and the prescribing providers. Therefore, medication reconciliation should be performed for this client to prevent adverse drug events.
Choice A is wrong because a referral for social services does not involve a change in the client’s medications or care setting.
Choice B is wrong because transport to radiology is a temporary and short-term movement that does not require medication reconciliation.
Choice D is wrong because a consultation for physical therapy does not affect the client’s medication regimen or orders.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking sertraline and reports a desire to begin taking supplements.
Which of the following supplements should the nurse advise the client to avoid?
Explanation
The nurse should advise the client to avoid taking St. John’s Wort with sertraline because it can increase the risk of a rare but serious condition called serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can cause symptoms such as confusion, hallucination, seizure, extreme changes in blood pressure, increased heart rate, fever, excessive sweating, shivering or shaking, blurred vision, muscle spasm or stiffness, tremor, incoordination, stomach cramp, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea.
Choice B. Black cohosh is wrong because it is a herbal supplement that is used to treat menopausal symptoms and has no known interaction with sertraline.
Choice C. Coenzyme Q is wrong because it is a natural substance that is involved in energy production and has no known interaction with sertraline.
Choice D. Ginger root is wrong because it is a spice that is used to treat nausea and has no known interaction with sertraline.
A nurse is caring for a client who has major depression and a new prescription for citalopram.
Which of the following adverse effects is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
Explanation
Confusion is a serious side effect of citalopram that may indicate a severe adverse reaction such as serotonin syndrome or hyponatremia. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider immediately and monitor the client for other signs of toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because weight loss is a common side effect of citalopram that usually does not require medical attention unless it is severe or persistent. Choice C is wrong because bruxism (teeth grinding) is a common side effect of citalopram that can be managed with mouth guards or dose adjustment. Choice D is wrong because insomnia is a common side effect of citalopram that can be minimized by taking the medication in the morning or using sleep aids.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has sinusitis and a new prescription for cefuroxime.
Which of the following client information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
Explanation
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for total parental nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following routes of administration should the nurse use?
Explanation
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
A nurse recently administered filgrastim intravenously to a client who has cancer and is receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy.
For which of the following data, discovered after the medication was administered, should the nurse file an incident report?
Explanation
This is because filgrastim is incompatible with dextrose solutions and may lose its effectiveness. The nurse should use normal saline instead.
Choice Ais wrong because the client had chemotherapy 12 hours before the medication was administered.
Choice B is wrong because the medication vial can be stored at room temperature for up to 24 hours before it is administered.
Filgrastim should not be frozen or shaken.
Choice Cis wrong because the client’s absolute neutrophil count was within the normal range of 1,500 to 8,000/mm3 before the medication was administered. Filgrastim is used to treat neutropenia, a low white blood cell count caused by chemotherapy or other conditions.
Filgrastim can be given at least 24 hours after chemotherapy to stimulate the production of white blood cells.
It should not be given within 24 hours before chemotherapy because it may increase the sensitivity of rapidly dividing cells to cytotoxic agents.
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
Explanation
According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.
Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.
Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.
Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an adult client who has a fever and a prescription for acetaminophen.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for receiving this medication?
Explanation
Acetaminophen is contraindicated in patients with severe hepatic impairment or severe active liver disease1 and should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment or active liver disease. Alcohol use disorder can cause liver damage and increase the risk of acetaminophen toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because hepatitis B vaccine within the last week is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
There is no evidence that acetaminophen interferes with the immune response to the vaccine or causes adverse effects.
Choice B is wrong because chronic kidney disease is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized by the liver and has minimal renal excretion.
However, patients with chronic kidney disease should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
Choice C is wrong because diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen does not affect blood glucose levels or interact with oral antidiabetic drugs.
However, patients with diabetes mellitus should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
A nurse is planning care for a client who requires treatment for high cholesterol. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect to administer?
Explanation
Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.
Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol. Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol. Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following factors predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
Explanation
Taking a high-ceiling diuretic predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity because it can cause hypokalemia (low blood potassium level), which increases the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin. Digoxin is a medicine that is used to treat heart failure or arrhythmias (abnormal heart rhythms) by increasing cardiac contractility and controlling the heart rate. Digoxin toxicity happens when there is too much digoxin in the body and it becomes harmful, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, vision disturbance, and irregular heartbeat.
Choice A is wrong because taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (also called a statin) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Statins are lipid-lowering medications used to prevent coronary heart disease by blocking an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis.
Statins do not affect the blood potassium level or the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin.
Choice B is wrong because having a 10-year history of COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. COPD is a lung condition that causes breathing difficulties and chronic inflammation.
COPD does not affect the blood potassium level or the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin.
Choice D is wrong because having a prolapsed mitral valve does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
A prolapsed mitral valve is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly, allowing some blood to leak back into the atrium.
A prolapsed mitral valve does not affect the blood potassium level or the sensitivity of the heart to digoxin.
A nurse is teaching a client who has pernicious anemia to self-administer nasal cyanocobalamin.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
This is the recommended dosage for cyanocobalamin nasal spray for pernicious anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency. Cyanocobalamin nasal gel is used to prevent a lack of vitamin B12 that may be caused by various factors.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment depends on the individual’s response and blood levels of vitaminB. Some people may need to use this medication for longer than 6 months.
Choice C is wrong because there is no need to lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication.
This may cause nasal irritation or drainage.
Choice D is wrong because using a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication may interfere with the absorption of cyanocobalamin. If you have a stuffy nose, you should talk to your doctor about alternative ways to take vitaminB.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia.
Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypermagnesemia because it can help calm some symptoms such as impaired breathing, irregular heartbeat, and hypotension. Calcium also helps normalize the neuromuscular function that is affected by excess magnesium.
Choice B. Acetylcysteine is wrong because it is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and prevent kidney damage from contrast dye.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, a class of sedative drugs.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.7 to 2.3 mg/dL or 0.7 to 1.1 mmol/L. Hypermagnesemia is defined as a magnesium level above 2.6 mg/dL or 1.5 mmol/L.
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