Ati rn vati maternal newborn
Total Questions : 49
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is assessing a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea is a common and normal occurrence in pregnancy due to increased estrogen production and greater blood flow to the vaginal area. It is usually a thin, white discharge and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by itching, burning, or an unusual odor.
Choice B rationale
Excessive salivation, also known as ptyalism, can occur during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester. It is linked to hormonal changes and is not typically harmful, though it may be uncomfortable for the patient.
Choice C rationale
Darkening of the skin on the face, known as melasma or chloasma, is common during pregnancy and is due to increased pigmentation from hormonal changes. It typically resolves postpartum and is not harmful.
Choice D rationale
Epigastric pain in a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to other organs. It requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.
A nurse is teaching a class to clients who are pregnant.
Which of the following topics should the nurse include in the discussion about cesarean birth? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Delay in initiating breastfeeding can occur after a cesarean birth due to the effects of anesthesia, postoperative recovery, and the need for medical monitoring, which can delay the mother’s ability to start breastfeeding.
Choice B rationale
Routine use of intubation equipment is not standard practice during a cesarean birth. Intubation is typically reserved for patients who require general anesthesia or have complications that necessitate airway management.
Choice C rationale
The need for an indwelling urinary catheter is common during a cesarean birth. It helps to keep the bladder empty and out of the way during the procedure and is usually placed after anesthesia and removed shortly after the surgery.
Choice D rationale
Management of postpartum pain is an important topic to discuss with clients undergoing cesarean birth. Postoperative pain management may include medications and non-pharmacological methods to ensure comfort and aid in recovery.
A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn who has a bilirubin level of 14 mg/dL (1 to 12 mg/dL) and is to begin phototherapy.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Giving glucose water after feedings is not recommended for newborns undergoing phototherapy. Breastfeeding or formula feeding should be continued to provide adequate nutrition and hydration.
Choice B rationale
Instructing the client to avoid breastfeeding during treatment is not necessary. Breastfeeding should continue to promote bonding, provide nutrition, and help with the infant's hydration and bilirubin excretion.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring intake and output is crucial for a newborn receiving phototherapy to ensure proper hydration and assess the effectiveness of the treatment in lowering bilirubin levels.
Choice D rationale
Applying lotions and ointments throughout the treatment is not recommended, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. The skin should be clean and dry to maximize exposure to the phototherapy light.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is at 24 weeks of gestation.
The client's prepregnancy weight was within the recommended range for their height and they have gained 2.7 kg (6 lb) during the pregnancy.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gaining 2 pounds per week throughout the rest of pregnancy is excessive and not recommended. Normal weight gain is approximately 1 pound per week in the second and third trimesters.
Choice B rationale
Dieting during pregnancy can lead to inadequate nutrient intake for both the mother and the developing fetus. It is essential to focus on a balanced diet rather than trying to lose weight.
Choice C rationale
Meeting with a dietitian can help the client assess their nutritional needs and develop a healthy eating plan to support their pregnancy, ensuring both maternal and fetal health.
Choice D rationale
Eating an additional 700 calories per day is too high. Generally, an additional 300-500 calories per day is recommended during the second and third trimesters to support pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are postpartum.
Which of the following clients is at an increased risk for a fall?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An indwelling urinary catheter can increase the risk of falls because it may cause discomfort and restricted mobility, leading the client to move awkwardly or lose balance.
Choice B rationale
While a second-degree perineal laceration might cause pain and limited mobility, it doesn't usually contribute as significantly to fall risk as an indwelling catheter.
Choice C rationale
Saturating a perineal pad every 5 to 6 hours may indicate heavy postpartum bleeding, but it isn't directly related to fall risk. The concern here would be more about monitoring for hemorrhage rather than falls.
Choice D rationale
Breast engorgement causes discomfort and pain but doesn't directly affect a client's mobility or balance, making it less likely to increase fall risk.
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class to a group of parents and is discussing facilitation of sibling acceptance of the newborn.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Holding the newborn during the initial visit may make the older sibling feel left out or jealous. Encouraging involvement with the new baby may be more beneficial.
Choice B rationale
Spending individual time with the older sibling helps them feel valued and ensures they do not feel neglected, facilitating better acceptance of the newborn.
Choice C rationale
Having the older sibling purchase a gift for the newborn can create a positive association, but it is less impactful than ensuring individual time and attention.
Choice D rationale
Postponing the introduction until discharge can increase feelings of jealousy or resentment, as the older sibling might feel excluded from the new family dynamic during a crucial time.
A nurse is assessing a newborn.
Which of the following findings indicates a need to check the newborn's blood glucose level for hypoglycemia?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A shrill cry may indicate distress but isn't specifically related to hypoglycemia in newborns.
Choice B rationale
Weak peripheral pulses are more commonly associated with circulatory or cardiac issues rather than hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale
Yellowish skin suggests jaundice, which is due to elevated bilirubin levels, not hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale
Hypotonia, or decreased muscle tone, can be a sign of hypoglycemia in newborns, indicating a need to check blood glucose levels.
A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. The newborn has meconium-stained amniotic fluid.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Suctioning the mouth and nose ensures that the airway is clear of any meconium-stained fluid, which can cause respiratory issues in the newborn if inhaled.
Choice B rationale
While skin-to-skin contact is beneficial for bonding and temperature regulation, ensuring the airway is clear is a higher immediate priority.
Choice C rationale
Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer helps maintain body temperature but is secondary to ensuring the airway is clear of meconium-stained fluid.
Choice D rationale
Tactile stimulation is important for encouraging breathing, but first ensuring the airway is clear takes precedence.
A nurse is teaching a new parent how to correctly use a car seat.
Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rear-facing car seats are safer for infants and toddlers because they provide better support for their head, neck, and spine in the event of a collision. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping children in rear-facing seats until they are at least 2 years old or until they reach the highest weight or height allowed by the manufacturer.
Choice B rationale
A four-point harness is not sufficient for securing a baby in a car seat. A five-point harness, which includes two shoulder straps, two hip straps, and one crotch strap, provides more secure and effective restraint for infants.
Choice C rationale
The shoulder harness should be positioned in the slots at or below the baby's shoulders, not above, to ensure proper fit and restraint. Placing the harness above the shoulders can result in improper restraint and increased risk of injury in an accident.
Choice D rationale
The correct angle for a rear-facing car seat is typically 45 degrees, not 30 degrees. A 45-degree angle ensures the baby's airway remains open, preventing the head from falling forward and potentially causing breathing difficulties.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is 2 weeks postpartum and has mastitis.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Feeding from only one breast can lead to engorgement and a decrease in milk supply in the affected breast. It is important to continue breastfeeding from both breasts, even if one is infected.
Choice B rationale
Discarding milk is not necessary and can lead to a decrease in milk supply. The infection does not harm the baby, and breastfeeding helps to drain the breast and clear the infection.
Choice C rationale
Moist heat can help to increase blood flow and promote healing in the affected breast. Applying warm compresses or taking warm showers can help to reduce pain and inflammation associated with mastitis.
Choice D rationale
While staying hydrated is important for overall health, there is no specific requirement to drink at least 1500 milliliters of fluid per day for mastitis. Adequate fluid intake should be maintained, but there is no direct correlation with resolving the infection.
A nurse is receiving a report on four newborns born in the past 12 hr. Which of the following newborns should the nurse assess first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 34/min is within the normal range for a newborn, which is typically between 30 to 60 breaths per minute. This does not indicate immediate distress.
Choice B rationale
Acrocyanosis, or bluish discoloration of the hands and feet, is common in newborns and usually resolves within the first few days of life. It is not a sign of critical illness.
Choice C rationale
Caput succedaneum, a swelling of the soft tissues of the newborn's scalp, is a common and benign condition that resolves on its own within a few days. It does not require immediate medical attention.
Choice D rationale
An axillary temperature of 36°C (96.8°F) is considered low and may indicate hypothermia in a newborn. Hypothermia can lead to serious complications, so this newborn requires immediate assessment and intervention to stabilize their body temperature.
A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and received a dose of calcium gluconate to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that calcium gluconate was effective?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 12/min indicates that the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate toxicity has been effectively reversed by calcium gluconate. Normal respiratory rate in adults is 12-20 breaths per minute.
Choice B rationale
Absent deep tendon reflexes indicate ongoing magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate administration should restore normal reflexes, not cause their absence.
Choice C rationale
Slurred speech is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Effective treatment with calcium gluconate should improve neurological function and resolve symptoms like slurred speech.
Choice D rationale
A urine output of 22 mL/hr is below the normal range and suggests renal impairment or ongoing toxicity. Effective treatment should result in an increase in urine output to within the normal range (greater than 30 mL/hr).
A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
During labor, the body experiences physiological stress, which typically causes an increase, not a decrease, in white blood cell (WBC) count. This increase is a normal response to stress.
Choice B rationale
Blood glucose levels can decrease during labor due to the energy expenditure and physiological demands of the process. This is why it is important to monitor glucose levels and provide necessary interventions if hypoglycemia occurs.
Choice C rationale
The respiratory rate generally increases during labor to meet the increased oxygen demands of the body. A decrease in respiratory rate is not expected during this time.
Choice D rationale
Body temperature may increase slightly during labor due to the physical exertion and metabolic activity involved. A decrease in temperature is not a typical finding during labor.
A nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to a client who is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Informing the client to expect dark-colored stools is inaccurate for methotrexate administration. Dark stools typically indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, not a side effect of methotrexate.
Choice B rationale
Wearing two pairs of gloves is necessary when handling methotrexate as it is a cytotoxic drug. This protects healthcare workers from accidental exposure to the medication, which can be harmful.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is typically administered intramuscularly or orally, not subcutaneously. Administering it subcutaneously is incorrect and would not be effective for treating an ectopic pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
While it is essential to counsel the client on safe intercourse practices, instructing to use a condom for only 7 days post-administration is not specific or relevant to the methotrexate therapy for ectopic pregnancy.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is breastfed and has a weight loss of 11% at 48 hr after birth.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meconium stools are common in newborns and not a concern in the context of weight loss.
Choice B rationale
Depressed fontanels can indicate dehydration in a newborn, which is critical, especially with significant weight loss.
Choice C rationale
Rust-stained urine is often due to urate crystals and is typical in newborns, not specifically alarming.
Choice D rationale
Overlapping suture lines can be a normal finding in a newborn's head and not indicative of an acute problem relating to weight loss.
A client who is in active labor is admitted to a labor and delivery unit reporting "My water just broke and my baby is breech.”. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking fetal heart tones is the priority to assess the well-being of the fetus, especially in breech presentation and after the membranes have ruptured.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for a cesarean birth is important but follows the assessment of fetal heart tones and other immediate measures.
Choice C rationale
Checking the color, amount, and odor of the fluid is important, but ensuring fetal heart tones comes first to monitor any distress.
Choice D rationale
Performing a Nitrazine test to assess for rupture of membranes is redundant once the client reports her water has broken.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client who had no immunity to rubella and received the rubella immunization.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Only one dose of rubella immunization is necessary post-delivery, no need for a second dose in 2 weeks.
Choice B rationale
Prevention of pregnancy is recommended for at least 1 month (not 4 months) after receiving the rubella vaccine to avoid possible teratogenic effects.
Choice C rationale
An additional rubella immunization is not recommended during pregnancy as the live vaccine is contraindicated during gestation.
Choice D rationale
Rubella vaccine is safe for breastfeeding mothers, as it does not affect the safety of breast milk.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum.
Which of the following are findings of this condition? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypertension is not a characteristic finding of hyperemesis gravidarum, which primarily affects fluid balance and nutritional status.
Choice B rationale
Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration, commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum due to excessive vomiting.
Choice C rationale
Tachycardia can result from dehydration and electrolyte imbalances seen in hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice D rationale
Poor skin turgor indicates dehydration, a common symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice E rationale
Polyuria is not typical in hyperemesis gravidarum; the condition usually leads to dehydration, reducing urine output.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is breastfeeding their newborn and reports that their nipples have become sore and cracked.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Starting each feeding with the most sore breast can worsen the condition, as the infant initially sucks more vigorously at the beginning of a feeding. This might increase the pain and damage to the already sore breast.
Choice B rationale
Moisture-proof lining in breast pads can cause an accumulation of moisture, creating a breeding ground for bacteria. This can exacerbate soreness and lead to infections such as mastitis.
Choice C rationale
Breastfeeding less frequently can lead to engorgement and plugged ducts, which can further complicate breast soreness and potentially decrease milk supply. Regular feeding helps in maintaining milk flow and production.
Choice D rationale
Colostrum has natural healing properties, including immunoglobulins and growth factors, that can help heal sore and cracked nipples. Applying colostrum can promote faster recovery and reduce discomfort.
A nurse is assessing a 1-hour-old newborn.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Transient circumoral cyanosis is common in newborns, especially when crying or feeding, and usually resolves on its own without intervention.
Choice B rationale
Transient strabismus, or the temporary crossing of the eyes, is normal in newborns due to underdeveloped eye muscles and usually resolves as the infant grows.
Choice C rationale
Caput succedaneum is the swelling of the scalp caused by pressure during delivery. It is usually benign and resolves within a few days without treatment.
Choice D rationale
Generalized petechiae, or small red or purple spots on the skin, can indicate a serious underlying condition such as a clotting disorder or infection and requires immediate medical evaluation.
A nurse is assessing a 1-hour-old newborn.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Transient circumoral cyanosis is common in newborns, especially when crying or feeding, and usually resolves on its own without intervention.
Choice B rationale
Transient strabismus, or the temporary crossing of the eyes, is normal in newborns due to underdeveloped eye muscles and usually resolves as the infant grows.
Choice C rationale
Caput succedaneum is the swelling of the scalp caused by pressure during delivery. It is usually benign and resolves within a few days without treatment.
Choice D rationale
Generalized petechiae, or small red or purple spots on the skin, can indicate a serious underlying condition such as a clotting disorder or infection and requires immediate medical evaluation.
A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about substance use disorders during pregnancy.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Methadone is often prescribed to pregnant women with opioid use disorder and is considered safe for breastfeeding. Breastfeeding can provide additional benefits such as bonding
and transferring antibodies to the infant.
Choice B rationale
Methamphetamine use during pregnancy is linked to fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and low birth weight, not fetal macrosomia (large body size).
Choice C rationale
Reducing environmental stimuli is essential for neonates exposed to substances in utero. Increased stimuli can overwhelm their underdeveloped nervous systems, leading to stress
and adverse outcomes.
Choice D rationale
Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by growth deficiencies, facial abnormalities, and central nervous system dysfunction. An increased head circumference is not a typical
feature; rather, microcephaly (small head circumference) is more common.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has a history of anemia.
Which of the following results should the nurse identify and report as an indication of a prenatal complication?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevated BUN levels (25 mg/dL) can indicate kidney dysfunction, dehydration, or high protein intake. However, it’s not directly related to a prenatal complication, though it still
requires monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 10.2 mg/dL is below the normal range (11 to 16 mg/dL) and can indicate anemia. During pregnancy, anemia can lead to serious complications such as preterm
birth and low birth weight, making this result significant.
Choice C rationale
A fasting blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL falls within the normal range (70 to 110 mg/dL) and does not indicate a complication. Thus, it is not concerning in the context of prenatal
complications.
Choice D rationale
Hematocrit (Hct) of 32% is slightly below the normal range (33 to 47%), which can be common in pregnancy due to increased plasma volume. While monitoring is required, it’s not as
critical as anemia.
A nurse is teaching a client about iron supplementation during pregnancy.
Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Taking iron supplements with milk is not advised because calcium in milk can interfere with the absorption of iron, reducing its effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Doubling the dose of iron supplements if a dose is missed is not recommended because it can cause gastrointestinal issues and toxicity. It's better to just continue with the regular
dosing schedule.
Choice C rationale
Consuming 29 grams of fiber daily is a good practice for overall health, but it does not directly aid in iron absorption. Fiber can actually bind to iron and decrease its absorption in the
intestines.
Choice D rationale
Vitamin C enhances the absorption of non-heme iron (found in supplements) by converting it into a more absorbable form. Taking vitamin C with iron supplements increases their
effectiveness, making this statement correct.
A nurse is providing client teaching regarding an intrauterine device (IUD).
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular spotting is common after the placement of an IUD as the body adjusts to the device. This is a normal side effect and typically resolves within a few months.
Choice B rationale
Avoiding tampons initially after IUD placement is advised to prevent displacement or infection. Once the IUD is properly positioned and the risk of infection decreases, tampons can generally be used.
Choice C rationale
Informed consent is required prior to IUD placement to ensure the client understands the procedure, potential risks, and benefits, ensuring an informed decision.
Choice D rationale
IUDs typically need to be replaced every 3 to 10 years, depending on the type. Replacing an IUD every 2 years is not accurate and does not align with standard medical
recommendations.
Sign Up or Login to view all the 49 Questions on this Exam
Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.
Sign Up Now
