Genito-Urinary System Disorders > Medical Surgical
Exam Review
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Total Questions : 42
Showing 42 questions, Sign in for moreExplanation
A. Dysuria can be associated with urinary tract infections but is not a typical symptom of BPH.
B. Hematuria may indicate other urological conditions but is not a primary symptom of BPH.
C. This is the correct answer. Urinary frequency, especially during the night (nocturiA. , is a common symptom of BPH. It occurs due to the enlarged prostate compressing the urethra and obstructing urine flow.
D. Rectal pain and discomfort are not typical symptoms of BPH.
Explanation
A. Young age is not a risk factor for developing BPH. BPH is more common in older men, typically over the age of 50.
B. This is the correct answer. Family history of BPH is considered a risk factor, suggesting a genetic predisposition to developing the condition.
C. High intake of dairy products is not a well-established risk factor for BPH. However, some studies have suggested a potential link between calcium intake and BPH risk, but more research is needed.
D. A sedentary lifestyle may contribute to overall health issues but is not a specific risk factor for BPH.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. Difficulty starting a urine stream is a common symptom of BPH and occurs because the enlarged prostate compresses the urethra, obstructing the flow of urine.
B. Bladder spasms causing urinary retention are not a typical symptom of BPH.
C. Excessive fluid intake may lead to increased urinary frequency, but it is not directly related to difficulty starting a urine stream in BPH.
D. An enlarged bladder compressing the urethra is not a common symptom of BPH. Instead, it is the enlarged prostate that causes the obstruction.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. When a urinary catheter is in place, there is a risk of urinary tract infection due to the introduction of bacteria into the urinary tract.
B. Increased urine output is not a typical complication related to a urinary catheter. The catheter helps drain urine from the bladder, but it does not increase urine production.
C. Reduced bladder pressure may occur when a catheter is draining urine from the bladder, but it is not a complication to monitor for specifically.
D. Improved urine flow is an intended outcome of relieving urinary retention with the catheter, not a complication.
Explanation
A. Limiting fluid intake in the morning is not likely to be helpful in reducing nighttime awakenings caused by urinary frequency and nocturia.
B. Limiting fluid intake in the afternoon is not likely to be helpful in reducing nighttime awakenings caused by urinary frequency and nocturia.
C. This is the correct answer. Limiting fluid intake in the evening can help reduce the volume of urine produced during the night, thereby decreasing nocturia and nighttime awakenings.
D. Limiting fluid intake at night may cause dehydration and is not recommended. Instead, the client should focus on reducing evening fluid intake to minimize nighttime urine production.
Questions
Explanation
A. Acute urinary retention is characterized by the sudden inability to pass urine, resulting in severe pain and discomfort. Difficulty starting a urine stream and a weak urine flow are characteristic of obstructive voiding symptoms, not acute urinary retention.
B. Urinary incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine and is not associated with difficulty starting a urine stream or a weak urine flow.
C. Stress urinary incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence characterized by urine leakage during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or laughing. It is not related to the symptoms described in the question.
D. This is the correct answer. Difficulty starting a urine stream and a weak urine flow are obstructive voiding symptoms commonly seen in clients with BPH due to the enlargement of the prostate gland, which obstructs the urethra.
Explanation
A. Increased urinary frequency is a common symptom of BPH, but it is not directly related to bladder outlet obstruction. It is a result of reduced bladder capacity due to the obstruction.
B. Nocturia is the need to wake up at night to urinate and can be caused by reduced bladder capacity and increased urine production at night due to BPH. However, it is not as indicative of bladder outlet obstruction as difficulty emptying the bladder.
C. Hematuria (blood in the urinE. can be a sign of various urinary tract disorders but is not a specific symptom of bladder outlet obstruction.
D. This is the correct answer. Difficulty emptying the bladder is a hallmark symptom of bladder outlet obstruction caused by an enlarged prostate in BPH.
Explanation
A. Urinary urgency is a common symptom of BPH but not necessarily a complication.
B. This is the correct answer. Erectile dysfunction (ED. is a potential complication of BPH. The enlarged prostate can compress the prostatic nerves and affect erectile function.
C. Stress urinary incontinence is not a typical complication of BPH. It is more commonly associated with other conditions, such as weakened pelvic floor muscles.
D. Increased urine output is not a typical complication of BPH. BPH primarily affects the outflow of urine, resulting in obstructive voiding symptoms.
Explanation
A. Overflow urinary incontinence is characterized by constant or frequent dribbling of urine due to the bladder's inability to empty fully. It is not specifically related to postvoid dribbling.
B. Stress urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or laughing. It is not directly related to postvoid dribbling.
C. This is the correct answer. Postvoid dribbling refers to the leakage of urine that occurs immediately after completing urination. It is often seen in clients with BPH due to the enlarged prostate obstructing the urethra, leading to incomplete bladder emptying and residual urine left in the urethra.
D. Urinary urgency is the sudden and strong desire to urinate and is not specifically related to postvoid dribbling.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. Urinary retention refers to the inability to completely empty the bladder, leading to a sensation of fullness in the lower abdomen and difficulty voiding.
B. Urinary urgency is the sudden and strong desire to urinate.
C. Urinary frequency is the need to urinate more often than usual.
D. Nocturia is the need to wake up at night to urinate.
Explanation
A. Reduced urine output is not a contributing factor to recurrent UTIs. In BPH, the urinary flow is obstructed, leading to incomplete bladder emptying and residual urine in the bladder, which can increase the risk of UTIs.
B. Increased fluid intake is not directly related to the risk of recurrent UTIs in BPH.
C. Decreased prostate size is not associated with recurrent UTIs in BPH.
D. This is the correct answer. Residual urine in the bladder after voiding provides a breeding ground for bacteria, increasing the risk of UTIs. In BPH, the enlarged prostate obstructs the urethra, leading to incomplete bladder emptying and the presence of residual urine, which contributes to recurrent UTIs.
Explanation
A. Alpha-blockers do not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. They work by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bladder neck and prostate, improving urinary flow and reducing obstructive voiding symptoms.
B. This is the correct answer. Alpha-blockers are commonly prescribed for BPH to relax the smooth muscles of the bladder neck and prostate, relieving the obstruction and improving urine flow.
C. Inhibiting the production of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is the mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, not alpha-blockers. DHT plays a role in prostate enlargement, and inhibiting its production can reduce the size of the prostate over time.
D. Alpha-blockers do not enhance urine production by the kidneys. They primarily focus on relaxing the smooth muscles to improve urinary flow.
Questions
A client with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) seeks medical advice. The nurse anticipates that the initial diagnostic evaluation for BPH will likely include:
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. A digital rectal examination (DRE. is typically the first step in the diagnostic evaluation of BPH. During a DRE, the healthcare provider can assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland to identify any enlargement or abnormalities.
B. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA. test is used to screen for prostate cancer, not specifically for BPH. While elevated PSA levels can be seen in both conditions, the DRE is usually the initial step for BPH evaluation.
C. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is a diagnostic test used to assess the prostate gland's size and characteristics in more detail. It is often performed in conjunction with other tests, but it is not typically the initial step in the diagnostic evaluation of BPH.
D. A urinalysis is a general test used to assess the urine's appearance, specific gravity, and the presence of blood, proteins, and other substances. While it can provide information about kidney function and potential urinary tract infections, it is not specific to BPH.
A nurse is preparing a client for a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) to evaluate the prostate gland. What information should the nurse provide to the client about the procedure?
Explanation
A. A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses sound waves to create images of the prostate gland. It does not involve a biopsy of the prostate gland.
B. Fasting is not necessary for a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS). It is a non-invasive procedure and does not require any special preparation, such as fasting.
C. While a clean bowel is preferable for a transrectal ultrasound, it does not typically require an enema. The client may be asked to empty the rectum with a bowel movement before the procedure.
D. This is the correct answer. During a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS), a lubricated probe is inserted into the rectum to obtain images of the prostate gland. Some clients may experience mild discomfort or pressure during the procedure, but it is generally well-tolerated.
A client with suspected BPH is scheduled for a prostate-specific antigen (PS
Explanation
A. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA. test is not specific to BPH diagnosis. Elevated PSA levels can be seen in both BPH and prostate cancer, but it is not used solely for BPH diagnosis.
B. This is the correct answer. The PSA test is primarily used as a screening tool for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels may indicate the presence of prostate cancer and can prompt further evaluation.
C. The PSA test is not used to assess renal function. It is specifically related to prostate health and prostate cancer screening.
D. The evaluation of urinary flow rate is typically done through urodynamic studies and flowmetry tests, not the PSA test.
A nurse is reviewing the results of a client's urinalysis as part of the diagnostic evaluation for BPH. Which finding should the nurse expect to be associated with BPH?
Explanation
A. The presence of glucose in the urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus and is not directly related to BPH.
B. An elevated white blood cell count in the urine may indicate a urinary tract infection or inflammation but is not specific to BPH.
C. The presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of a urinary tract infection and is not specific to BPH.
D. This is the correct answer. Hematuria (blood in the urinE. can be associated with BPH due to irritation or trauma to the urinary tract caused by the enlarged prostate. Hematuria may be gross (visiblE. or microscopic and should be further evaluated to determine its cause.
Explanation
A. Increased urine output is not a contributing factor to recurrent UTIs. In BPH, the urinary flow is obstructed, leading to incomplete bladder emptying and residual urine in the bladder, which can increase the risk of UTIs.
B. This is the correct answer. Residual urine in the bladder after voiding provides a breeding ground for bacteria, increasing the risk of UTIs. In BPH, the enlarged prostate obstructs the urethra, leading to incomplete bladder emptying and the presence of residual urine, which contributes to recurrent UTIs.
C. Decreased fluid intake may contribute to urinary stasis and an increased risk of UTIs, but it is not specific to BPH.
D. Reduced bladder capacity is not a contributing factor to recurrent UTIs in BPH.
Explanation
A. A urodynamic study is not used to determine the size of the prostate gland. It is primarily focused on assessing bladder and urinary function.
B. A urodynamic study is not used to assess renal function and kidney health. It is a diagnostic test focused on evaluating the lower urinary tract and bladder function.
C. This is the correct answer. A urodynamic study is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the pressure and flow of urine during voiding. It provides valuable information about the lower urinary tract's function, including bladder capacity, detrusor muscle activity, and the presence of any obstructions or abnormalities.
D. A urodynamic study is not used to evaluate the bladder's capacity directly, but it does assess bladder function during voiding.
Explanation
A. Stress urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. It is not related to the symptoms described in the question.
B. Overflow urinary incontinence is characterized by a constant dribbling of urine due to an overdistended bladder. It is typically seen in conditions that obstruct urine flow, such as BPH, but it does not present as difficulty starting the urine stream and a weak flow.
C. This is the correct answer. Difficulty starting the urine stream and a weak urinary flow are common symptoms of urinary retention, a condition in which the bladder does not fully empty during voiding due to an obstruction, such as an enlarged prostate in BPH.
D. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong urge to urinate, followed by involuntary urine loss. It is not related to the symptoms described in the question.
Questions
Explanation
A. Radiation therapy is not a first-line treatment for BPH. It is primarily used for certain types of cancer treatment.
B. Hormone therapy may be used for advanced cases of BPH, but it is not typically the initial management.
C. This is the correct answer. Watchful waiting, also known as active surveillance, is often the initial management for mild to moderate BPH. It involves close monitoring of symptoms and the prostate's size without immediate intervention unless symptoms worsen or complications arise.
D. Invasive surgery is usually reserved for severe cases of BPH that do not respond to conservative management or when complications occur.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. Alpha-blockers are commonly prescribed as the first-line medication for BPH. They relax the smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urinary flow and reducing LUTS.
B. Antibiotics are prescribed if the client has a urinary tract infection, but they do not directly address BPH symptoms.
C. Diuretics are not typically used to treat BPH.
D. Anticholinergics are used to treat overactive bladder symptoms, which are not specific to BPH-related LUTS.
Explanation
A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that removes only a portion of the enlarged prostate gland, not the entire gland.
B. This is a potential benefit of TURP, but the primary purpose of the procedure is to reduce the size of the prostate to relieve urinary obstruction and improve urinary flow.
C. This is the correct answer. TURP is performed to reduce the size of the prostate gland, which is causing urinary obstruction due to BPH.
D. TURP does not have a direct impact on fertility, as it does not affect the production or release of sperm.
Explanation
A. Relaxing the smooth muscles in the bladder neck is the action of alpha-blockers, not 5-alpha reductase inhibitors.
B. This is the correct answer. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme 5-alpha reductase, which converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is involved in the growth of the prostate gland, and reducing its levels can help shrink the prostate and improve urinary flow in BPH.
C. Inhibiting bacterial growth in the prostate gland is the action of antibiotics, not 5-alpha reductase inhibitors.
D. Contracting the prostate gland is not a desired effect in BPH management.
Explanation
A. Limiting fluid intake to avoid urinary urgency is not necessary after a TURP. Adequate hydration is essential for promoting urinary flow and preventing urinary tract infections.
B. This is the correct answer. After a TURP, sexual activity is usually restricted for at least two weeks to allow for proper healing and to reduce the risk of complications, such as bleeding or infection.
C. Restricting walking and physical activity is not necessary after a TURP. Encouraging early ambulation is important for preventing complications and promoting recovery.
D. Avoiding sitting for extended periods is not a specific activity restriction after a TURP.
Explanation
A. Prostate massage is not recommended for clients with urinary retention due to BPH. It can cause the spread of infection or worsen inflammation.
B. The double voiding technique is used to empty the bladder more completely, but it may not be effective in cases of urinary retention.
C. This is the correct answer. Catheterization is often necessary to relieve urinary retention in clients with BPH. It involves inserting a catheter into the bladder to drain the urine.
D. Pelvic floor exercises are helpful for strengthening pelvic muscles but are not a primary intervention for relieving urinary retention.
Explanation
A. Preventing recurrent urinary tract infections is not the primary purpose of combination therapy with an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor.
B. While some improvement in erectile function may occur with alpha-blockers, the primary purpose of the combination therapy is not to address erectile dysfunction.
C. This is the correct answer. The combination of an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor is used to enhance the effects of both medications. Alpha-blockers help relieve urinary symptoms quickly by relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck, while 5-alpha reductase inhibitors work over time to shrink the prostate and improve urinary flow.
D. Reducing the risk of urinary incontinence is not the primary goal of combination therapy with these medications.
Questions
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. Difficulty starting the urinary stream and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are common symptoms of urinary retention, a complication of BPH. In BPH, the enlarged prostate obstructs the flow of urine from the bladder, leading to incomplete emptying and retention.
B. Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is not typically associated with BPH but may occur in other conditions affecting the urinary tract.
C. Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing, and is not specific to BPH.
D. Urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate, and it is not specifically associated with BPH.
Explanation
A. While urinary tract infections can occur in clients with BPH, they do not typically present with severe pain in the lower abdomen, groin, and testicles.
B. Testicular cancer does not typically cause pain in the lower abdomen and is not directly related to BPH.
C. This is the correct answer. Severe pain in the lower abdomen, groin, and testicles can be indicative of kidney stones, which may occur as a complication of BPH. Urinary retention and stasis in the bladder can lead to the formation of stones.
D. Prostate cancer may cause symptoms similar to BPH, but sudden severe pain in the lower abdomen, groin, and testicles is not a typical presentation of prostate cancer.
Explanation
A. Decreased urine production is not a common complication of BPH. Instead, BPH leads to urinary retention and incomplete bladder emptying.
B. This is the correct answer. BPH can lead to urinary retention, allowing bacteria to multiply and colonize the prostate, increasing the risk of recurrent UTIs.
C. Increased bladder capacity is not a complication of BPH. Instead, the enlarged prostate obstructs the flow of urine, leading to urinary retention and incomplete emptying.
D. Inadequate fluid intake may contribute to UTIs, but the primary reason for recurrent UTIs in BPH is the bacterial colonization of the prostate due to urinary retention.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. The client's symptoms of difficulty starting the urinary stream and a weak urine flow, along with a distended bladder and a firm, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination, suggest acute urinary retention, which is a complication of BPH.
B. Chronic kidney disease is not directly related to the physical findings described in the scenario.
C. Urethral stricture may cause difficulty in starting the urinary stream, but it would not typically present with a distended bladder and an enlarged prostate.
D. Prostate cancer may have similar symptoms to BPH but would not present with acute urinary retention and a distended bladder.
Explanation
A. Chronic kidney disease is not directly related to hematuria in clients with BPH. Hematuria is not a typical symptom of kidney disease.
B. While urinary tract infections may cause hematuria, it is more commonly associated with bladder stones in clients with BPH.
C. Prostate cancer may cause hematuria, but it is less common than other potential complications.
D. This is the correct answer. Hematuria in clients with BPH may be due to the presence of bladder stones. Urinary retention and stasis can lead to the formation of stones in the bladder, which may cause bleeding and hematuria.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. Nocturia and frequent nighttime urination in clients with BPH are often due to decreased bladder capacity. BPH causes obstruction of the urinary outflow, leading to incomplete bladder emptying during the day and increased urine volume at night.
B. Nocturnal enuresis refers to involuntary nighttime urination in children and is not relevant to this scenario.
C. While hormonal changes may play a role in the development of BPH, they are not directly related to nocturia and frequent nighttime urination.
D. Urinary retention may cause decreased frequency of urination rather than nocturia and frequent nighttime urination.
Explanation
A. This is the correct answer. In cases of acute urinary retention, immediate relief is achieved through catheterization to drain the bladder and relieve the obstruction caused by the enlarged prostate.
B. Medications to reduce bladder spasms may be used as an adjunct to catheterization in managing urinary retention but are not the primary intervention for relieving the obstruction.
C. Invasive surgical intervention may be considered for persistent or severe cases of BPH, but it is not the initial step in managing acute urinary retention.
D. Increased fluid intake may be beneficial for overall bladder health but will not directly relieve the obstruction causing acute urinary retention.
Questions
Explanation
A. This statement is correct. Caffeinated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen BPH symptoms, so it's best to avoid them.
B. This statement is incorrect. Limiting fluid intake, especially in the evening, can help reduce nighttime urination in clients with BPH.
C. This statement is correct. Pelvic floor exercises, such as Kegel exercises, can help strengthen the pelvic muscles and improve urine flow in BPH.
D. This statement is incorrect. Over-the-counter cold medications containing decongestants can worsen BPH symptoms by constricting blood vessels, including those in the prostate, and can lead to urinary retention.
Explanation
A. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake would be inappropriate in this case, as the client already has a distended bladder and difficulty starting the urinary stream, which are signs of urinary retention.
B. While assisting the client in finding a comfortable position for voiding is important, it will not relieve the current urinary retention.
C. Teaching the client relaxation techniques is beneficial for overall health, but it will not address the immediate issue of urinary retention.
D. This is the correct answer. Catheterization is necessary to relieve urinary retention and drain the distended bladder.
Explanation
A. Resuming normal activities immediately after a TURP is not recommended. The client should gradually resume activities as advised by the healthcare provider.
B. This is the correct answer. After a TURP, the client is at risk of developing a UTI due to catheter use and bladder manipulation. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection, such as fever, dysuria, or cloudy urine.
C. Avoiding all fluid intake for 24 hours is not appropriate, as it can lead to dehydration and other complications. Adequate hydration is essential for postoperative recovery.
D. Administering anticoagulant medications may not be necessary after a TURP unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider. The nurse should follow the prescribed medication regimen and monitor for bleeding complications.
Explanation
A. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in two years is too long of an interval for a client with BPH. Regular follow-up is essential for monitoring the condition and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
B. This is the correct answer. Clients with BPH should have regular follow-up appointments, typically every six months, to monitor symptoms and treatment effectiveness.
C. Skipping follow-up appointments, even if the client is feeling better, is not advisable. Regular monitoring is essential to ensure optimal management of BPH.
D. Waiting for new symptoms to arise before seeking a follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions and could lead to worsening of symptoms.
Explanation
A. Dry mouth is not a common side effect of alpha-blocker medications used to treat BPH
.
B. Constipation is not a common side effect of alpha-blocker medications used to treat BPH.
C. While alpha-blockers can cause a decrease in blood pressure, they are often used to treat hypertension, so this answer is incorrect.
D. This is the correct answer. Alpha-blocker medications used to treat BPH can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to dizziness. Clients should be educated about this potential side effect and advised to change positions slowly to minimize the risk of falls.
Explanation
A. Clamping the catheter is not recommended, as it can cause urinary retention and obstruct urine flow.
B. Cleansing around the catheter insertion site with alcohol is not recommended, as it may cause skin irritation. The site should be cleaned with mild soap and water.
C. Securing the catheter to the leg with a safety pin is not recommended, as it may cause trauma to the catheter and increase the risk of infection.
D. This is the correct answer. Clients should be instructed to report any signs of catheter blockage or leakage to their healthcare provider. Catheter blockage can lead to urinary retention, and leakage may indicate a problem with the catheter or the drainage system.
Explanation
A. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for managing urinary frequency and urgency in clients with BPH.
B. Limiting fluid intake, especially in the evening, may help reduce nighttime urination, but it is not advisable to restrict fluids excessively, as dehydration can lead to other health problems.
C. This is the correct answer. Caffeine and alcohol are diuretics that can increase urine production and exacerbate urinary frequency and urgency in clients with BPH. Recommending the avoidance of these substances may help alleviate symptoms.
D. Eating a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for managing urinary frequency and urgency in clients with BPH.
Questions
A client asks the nurse, "What is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Explanation
A) This statement is not correct. BPH is a non-cancerous condition, not a malignant tumor.
B) This is the correct answer. BPH is characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland, which is non-cancerous and benign.
C) This statement is not correct. BPH is not an infection of the prostate gland but rather an enlargement.
D) This statement is not correct. BPH does not involve the absence of the prostate gland; it is an enlargement of the gland.
A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic tests used to confirm BPH in a client. Which test directly assesses the size and shape of the prostate gland?
Explanation
A) This is the correct answer. A digital rectal exam (DRE) involves the insertion of a gloved, lubricated finger into the rectum to feel the size, shape, and texture of the prostate gland. It helps assess for enlargement and any abnormalities.
B) The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test measures the level of PSA in the blood, which may be elevated in various prostate conditions, including BPH. However, it does not directly assess the size and shape of the prostate gland.
C) Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) uses sound waves to create images of the prostate gland and is used to assess the prostate's size and identify any abnormalities.
D) Urinalysis is a urine test that evaluates the urine's physical and chemical properties but does not directly assess the size and shape of the prostate gland.
Sign Up or Login to view all the 42 Questions on this Exam
Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.
Sign Up Now