Pathophysiology of the Hematologic System > Pathophysiology
Exam Review
Blood transfusion
Total Questions : 30
Showing 30 questions, Sign in for moreWhat is the appropriate indication for blood transfusion based on this hemoglobin level?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"I'm feeling weak and dizzy." Rationale: Weakness and dizziness can be symptoms of anemia, which is often associated with low hemoglobin levels.
However, these symptoms alone are not a definitive indication for blood transfusion.
Other factors, such as the patient's overall clinical condition and the cause of the low hemoglobin, need to be considered.
Choice B rationale:
"My hemoglobin is 7 g/dL, so I need a transfusion." Rationale: This statement indicates that the patient is aware of their low hemoglobin level and believes they need a transfusion.
The hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL is a common threshold used as an indication for blood transfusion, especially in symptomatic patients.
This choice is correct because it aligns with the appropriate clinical indication for a transfusion based on the hemoglobin level.
Choice C rationale:
"I had orthopedic surgery yesterday." Rationale: While surgery can lead to blood loss, the statement alone does not provide sufficient information to determine if a transfusion is necessary.
The decision to transfuse blood should be based on the patient's hemoglobin level, overall clinical condition, and the extent of blood loss during surgery.
Choice D rationale:
"I have a stable cardiovascular disease." Rationale: The presence of stable cardiovascular disease is not directly related to the need for a blood transfusion based on a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.
The decision to transfuse should primarily be based on the patient's hemoglobin level and symptoms.
Which blood product is most suitable for this purpose?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Whole blood.
Rationale: Whole blood contains red blood cells, plasma, platelets, and clotting factors.
While it can increase fibrinogen levels, it also contains other components that may not be necessary for a patient with hemophilia A.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is a more specific choice for increasing fibrinogen levels.
Choice B rationale:
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
Rationale: PRBCs primarily consist of red blood cells and are not a suitable choice for increasing fibrinogen levels.
Hemophilia A is a clotting disorder, and fibrinogen is a clotting factor found in plasma.
PRBCs do not contain significant amounts of plasma or clotting factors.
Choice C rationale:
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Rationale: FFP is the most suitable choice for increasing fibrinogen levels in a patient with hemophilia A.
FFP contains all the clotting factors, including fibrinogen, and can help correct coagulation abnormalities in these patients.
Choice D rationale:
Platelets.
Rationale: Platelets are involved in the clotting process, but they do not contain significant amounts of fibrinogen.
Platelets are used to treat conditions where there is a deficiency in platelet count or function, not to increase fibrinogen levels.
What are the nursing responsibilities before initiating the transfusion? Select three options.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Verify the patient's identification.
Rationale: Ensuring the correct patient is receiving the blood transfusion is a critical safety step.
Verifying the patient's identification helps prevent transfusion errors and ensures that the right blood product is administered to the right patient.
Choice B rationale:
Obtain informed consent.
Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is a necessary step before any medical procedure, including blood transfusions.
It ensures that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the transfusion and has the opportunity to ask questions and make an informed decision.
Choice E rationale:
Document the procedure accurately.
Rationale: Accurate documentation is essential for maintaining a complete record of the transfusion process.
It includes documenting the patient's identification, vital signs, the type and volume of blood product administered, any adverse reactions, and the patient's response to the transfusion.
This documentation serves as a legal and clinical record of the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Monitor vital signs during the transfusion.
Rationale: While monitoring vital signs is important during a blood transfusion, it is not a responsibility before initiating the transfusion.
Vital sign monitoring occurs during the transfusion to detect any immediate adverse reactions or transfusion-related complications.
Choice D rationale:
Prepare the patient for an exchange transfusion.
Rationale: Preparing a patient for an exchange transfusion is not a nursing responsibility before initiating a routine blood transfusion.
Exchange transfusions are typically used for specific medical conditions, such as hemolytic disease of the newborn or sickle cell disease, and involve the removal and replacement of a large volume of blood.
Standard blood transfusions do not require this preparation.
For , fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is the most suitable blood product for increasing fibrinogen levels in a patient with hemophilia A.
For , the nursing responsibilities before initiating a blood transfusion include verifying the patient's identification, obtaining informed consent, and documenting the procedure accurately.
Monitoring vital signs is important but occurs during the transfusion, and preparing the patient for an exchange transfusion is not relevant to routine blood transfusions.
Which blood product should the nurse administer to address this condition?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Whole blood.
Rationale: Whole blood contains red blood cells, plasma, platelets, and other components.
It is typically used for patients with significant blood loss or when multiple blood components need to be replaced.
However, in this case, the patient is specifically experiencing thrombocytopenia, which means a low platelet count.
Administering whole blood would not be the most appropriate choice because it does not provide a concentrated dose of platelets, which is what the patient needs.
Choice B rationale:
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
Rationale: Packed red blood cells are primarily used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in patients with anemia or significant blood loss.
They do not contain a sufficient quantity of platelets to address thrombocytopenia, so this is not the correct choice for the patient in question.
Choice C rationale:
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is rich in clotting factors and is used to treat bleeding disorders or clotting factor deficiencies.
While it can be a valuable component in some cases, it does not directly increase platelet counts.
Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for a patient with thrombocytopenia.
Choice D rationale:
Platelets.
Rationale: Platelets are the correct choice for a patient with thrombocytopenia.
Platelet transfusion provides a concentrated dose of platelets, which can help increase the patient's platelet count and improve clotting ability.
It directly addresses the underlying issue in thrombocytopenia, making it the most suitable option.
Which alternative to blood transfusion may be considered for patients with symptomatic anemia and ongoing bleeding?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Whole blood.
Rationale: Whole blood contains all blood components, including red blood cells, plasma, platelets, and clotting factors.
It is used for patients with symptomatic anemia and ongoing bleeding, as it can address both the anemia and provide clotting factors to assist in hemostasis.
Choice B rationale:
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
Rationale: Packed red blood cells are primarily used to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity in patients with anemia or significant blood loss.
While they can address the anemia component of the patient's condition, they do not provide clotting factors.
Therefore, they may not be the best choice for patients with ongoing bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is rich in clotting factors and is used to treat bleeding disorders or clotting factor deficiencies.
It can be beneficial for patients with bleeding issues but does not address the anemia component of the patient's condition.
Choice D rationale:
Platelets.
Rationale: Platelets are responsible for clot formation and are primarily used to treat thrombocytopenia or clotting disorders.
They do not address the anemia component of the patient's condition and are not typically considered an alternative to blood transfusion for anemic patients with ongoing bleeding.
ABO and Rh Blood Group Systems:
Which of the following statements accurately describes the compatibility of blood types for this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"I can receive blood from donors with blood types A-, O+, or O-." Rationale: This statement is incorrect because individuals with blood type A- can only receive blood from donors with blood type A- or O-.
Rh factor (positive or negative) is a critical consideration in blood compatibility.
Choice B rationale:
"I can receive blood from donors with blood types A- or O-." Rationale: This statement is accurate.
Individuals with blood type A- can safely receive blood from donors with blood type A- (the same type) or O- (universal donor for A- individuals)
The negative Rh factor ensures compatibility.
Choice C rationale:
"I can receive blood from donors with blood types A-, A+, O+, or O-." Rationale: This statement is incorrect.
Individuals with blood type A- should not receive blood from donors with A+ because the Rh factor is incompatible.
A- individuals can only safely receive Rh-negative blood.
Choice D rationale:
"I can receive blood from donors with blood types A-, A+, or O-." Rationale: This statement is incorrect because it suggests that an A- individual can receive blood from A+ donors.
As mentioned earlier, the Rh factor must be compatible, and A- individuals should not receive Rh-positive blood.
Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This choice is incorrect.
While individuals with AB+ blood type are considered universal recipients for plasma components, they cannot receive blood from donors with the O- blood type.
Choice B rationale:
This choice is also incorrect.
AB+ individuals can receive blood from AB+ and AB- donors, but not exclusively from them.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is incorrect as well.
AB+ individuals can receive blood from AB+ donors, A+ donors, and B+ donors, but this statement does not provide a complete and accurate picture of their compatibility.
Choice D rationale:
This choice is correct.
Individuals with blood type AB+ can safely receive blood from donors with blood types AB+, A+, A-, or B+.
The rationale behind this is that AB+ individuals have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells and do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
Therefore, they can receive blood with ABO and RhD compatibility.
Select all the blood types that can be safely transfused to a client with blood type O-.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A+ blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type O-.
The rationale is that the recipient, in this case, does not have antibodies against the A antigen, which is present on A+ blood.
Therefore, there is no antigen-antibody reaction.
Choice B rationale:
B- blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type O-.
The rationale is similar to choice A, as the recipient does not have antibodies against the B antigen, which is present on B- blood.
Choice C rationale:
AB+ blood contains both A and B antigens and RhD antigen, which can potentially react with antibodies present in a client with blood type O-.
Therefore, it is not safe to transfuse AB+ blood to a client with blood type O-.
Choice D rationale:
O+ blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type O-.
The rationale is that O+ blood does not have A or B antigens, which could react with antibodies present in the recipient.
Choice E rationale:
O- blood is compatible with blood type O- because it does not contain A, B, or RhD antigens, which could be targeted by antibodies in the recipient.
Which of the following blood types can the nurse safely administer to this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
B- blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type B+ since B+ individuals do not have anti-B antibodies.
However, the reverse is not true.
A client with blood type B+ should not receive B- blood because B- blood has anti-A antibodies that can react with the A antigen present on the recipient's red blood cells.
Choice B rationale:
A- blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type B+ since B+ individuals do not have anti-A antibodies.
However, the reverse is not true.
A client with blood type B+ should not receive A- blood because A- blood has anti-B antibodies that can react with the B antigen present on the recipient's red blood cells.
Choice C rationale:
O- blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type B+ because O- blood is universally compatible with all blood types.
O- blood does not contain A, B, or RhD antigens, making it safe for transfusion to recipients with any blood type.
Choice D rationale:
AB- blood can be safely transfused to a client with blood type B+ since B+ individuals do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies.
However, the reverse is not true.
A client with blood type B+ should not receive AB- blood because AB- blood contains both A and B antigens, which can react with the antibodies present in the recipient's plasma.
A client with blood type O+ is scheduled for surgery.
The nurse is reviewing the compatibility of blood types for potential transfusion during the procedure.
Which of the following blood types can be safely transfused to this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
AB+ blood type contains both A and B antigens as well as the Rh antigen (positive)
Blood type O+ has neither A nor B antigens but does have the Rh antigen.
Therefore, AB+ blood cannot be safely transfused to a client with blood type O+ as it would lead to a mismatch in ABO compatibility.
Choice B rationale:
O- blood type is the universal donor for red blood cell transfusions.
It lacks both A and B antigens as well as the Rh antigen, making it compatible with all other blood types.
Since the client in question has blood type O+, which is Rh-positive, O- blood can be safely transfused without any ABO or Rh incompatibility.
Choice C rationale:
A+ blood type contains A antigens and the Rh antigen (positive)
Blood type O+ lacks A antigens but does have the Rh antigen.
Therefore, A+ blood is not compatible with O+ blood due to ABO incompatibility.
Choice D rationale:
B+ blood type contains B antigens and the Rh antigen (positive)
Blood type O+ lacks B antigens but does have the Rh antigen.
Therefore, B+ blood is not compatible with O+ blood due to ABO incompatibility.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take before starting the transfusion?
Explanation
"I'll verify the physician's order for the specific blood product."
Choice A rationale:
Selecting any available intravenous site for the transfusion without verifying the physician's order is unsafe and can lead to administering the wrong blood product or causing an adverse reaction in the patient.
Verifying the order is a critical step in ensuring patient safety during a blood transfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Using a blood administration set with additives may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary action the nurse should take before starting the transfusion.
Verifying the physician's order is the first and most crucial step.
Choice C rationale:
Verifying the physician's order for the specific blood product is essential to confirm that the correct blood type and unit are being administered to the patient.
This step ensures ABO and Rh compatibility and minimizes the risk of transfusion reactions.
Choice D rationale:
Administering the transfusion as quickly as possible is not appropriate and can be dangerous.
Transfusions should be administered at a controlled and appropriate rate to monitor for any adverse reactions.
Rushing the transfusion can increase the risk of complications.
What should the nurse do during the transfusion?
Explanation
"I'll stay with the patient for the entire transfusion."
Choice A rationale:
Staying with the patient for the entire transfusion is a crucial safety measure.
The nurse must monitor the patient for any signs of a transfusion reaction, such as fever, chills, rash, shortness of breath, or changes in vital signs.
Immediate intervention may be required if a reaction occurs.
Choice B rationale:
Adding medications to the blood bag is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be done without a specific physician's order.
Medications should be administered separately through a different IV line, if necessary, and only as ordered.
Choice C rationale:
Administering the transfusion at a rate of 4 mL/min is not a standard practice.
The rate of transfusion is determined by the physician's order and the patient's specific needs.
It is not a fixed rate and should be adjusted as needed.
Choice D rationale:
Using any available intravenous line for the transfusion may not be appropriate, especially if the line is already in use for other medications or fluids.
The nurse should select a dedicated line for the transfusion to minimize the risk of contamination or complications.
Select all the signs or symptoms the nurse should monitor for delayed transfusion reactions.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fever is a potential sign of a delayed transfusion reaction.
Delayed transfusion reactions can occur several days after a blood transfusion and may present with fever as a symptom.
This can be indicative of hemolysis or an immune response to the transfused blood.
Choice C rationale:
Jaundice is another sign that the nurse should monitor for delayed transfusion reactions.
Jaundice can be a result of hemolysis, where the red blood cells are destroyed, leading to an increase in bilirubin levels in the bloodstream.
Choice B rationale:
Increased urine output is not typically associated with delayed transfusion reactions.
Delayed reactions are more likely to manifest as fever, jaundice, or other signs of hemolysis.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension is not a common sign of delayed transfusion reactions.
These reactions are more likely to present with symptoms related to the destruction of red blood cells, such as fever and jaundice.
Choice E rationale:
Decreased oxygen saturation is not a typical sign of delayed transfusion reactions.
It is important to monitor oxygen saturation during a blood transfusion, but this is more relevant to immediate transfusion reactions, such as transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
What action should the nurse take immediately after the transfusion?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should obtain post-transfusion laboratory tests immediately after the transfusion to assess the patient's response to the blood transfusion.
These tests may include a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Choice B rationale:
Returning any unused blood product to the blood bank is not the immediate action needed after a transfusion.
Post-transfusion laboratory tests and patient assessment take precedence.
Choice C rationale:
Removing the IV catheter without flushing it immediately after the transfusion is not appropriate.
The IV site should be maintained for a period after the transfusion to ensure there are no adverse reactions, and the catheter should be flushed according to the facility's protocol.
Choice D rationale:
Educating the patient about the procedure is important but should be done before the transfusion, not immediately after.
Immediate post-transfusion care involves monitoring the patient and obtaining necessary laboratory tests.
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a patient.
What should the nurse consider when selecting an intravenous site for the transfusion?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Choosing a site with infiltration or phlebitis is not appropriate for a blood transfusion.
Infiltration can lead to the transfused blood leaking into the surrounding tissues, and phlebitis can cause discomfort and complications.
A suitable site should be chosen for the transfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Using the same IV line for other medications without flushing it between medications can lead to drug interactions or contamination.
It is generally not recommended to mix blood transfusions with other medications in the same line.
Choice C rationale:
Avoiding sites with edema or infection is a crucial consideration when selecting an intravenous site for a blood transfusion.
Using a site with edema can make it difficult to insert the catheter, and using a site with infection can introduce pathogens into the bloodstream.
Choice D rationale:
Using a 24-gauge IV catheter for a blood transfusion may not be suitable for all patients.
The size of the catheter should be appropriate for the type of blood product being transfused and the patient's vein size.
A larger catheter may be necessary for blood products with higher viscosity.
The nurse observes that the patient has developed fever, chills, back pain, chest pain, dyspnea, and jaundice.
What type of transfusion reaction is the patient most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Acute hemolytic reaction.
Choice A rationale:
A febrile nonhemolytic reaction typically presents with fever, chills, and rigors but is not associated with back pain, chest pain, dyspnea, or jaundice.
It is often caused by antibodies to leukocytes or platelets in the donor's blood.
This reaction is usually mild and self-limiting.
Choice B rationale:
Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like urticaria, pruritus, flushing, and can include mild to moderate fever, but they do not cause back pain, chest pain, dyspnea, or jaundice.
These reactions are usually associated with sensitivity to plasma proteins or allergens in the blood product.
Choice C rationale:
Acute hemolytic reactions involve the rapid destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream.
This can cause fever, chills, back pain, chest pain, dyspnea, and jaundice, making it the most likely reaction in this case.
It is usually due to ABO incompatibility between the donor and recipient blood.
Choice D rationale:
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) typically presents with symptoms related to volume overload, such as pulmonary edema, hypertension, and tachycardia.
It does not typically manifest with fever, chills, back pain, chest pain, dyspnea, or jaundice.
What type of transfusion reaction is the client likely experiencing based on these symptoms?
Explanation
Allergic reaction.
Choice A rationale:
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) usually presents with acute respiratory distress, not urticaria, pruritus, and flushing.
It is characterized by the sudden onset of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema.
Choice B rationale:
Bacterial contamination of blood products can lead to sepsis, but the symptoms described in the question (urticaria, pruritus, and flushing) are not indicative of bacterial contamination.
Symptoms of bacterial contamination would typically include fever, chills, and signs of infection.
Choice C rationale:
Febrile nonhemolytic reactions can cause fever, chills, and rigors, but they are not associated with urticaria, pruritus, or flushing.
Choice D rationale:
An allergic reaction, also known as a hypersensitivity reaction, can manifest with symptoms like urticaria (hives), pruritus (itching), and flushing.
These symptoms are indicative of an allergic response to components in the blood product, such as plasma proteins or allergens.
Which of the following statements made by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is not caused by antibodies in the donor's plasma.
It is primarily a result of excessive volume administered during a transfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is indeed a leading cause of transfusion-related mortality.
TRALI is characterized by acute respiratory distress and is caused by antibodies in the donor's plasma that react with leukocytes in the recipient's lungs.
Choice C rationale:
Febrile nonhemolytic reaction is not the most common type of transfusion reaction.
It is relatively common but not the most common.
Other reactions, like allergic reactions or acute hemolytic reactions, can also occur.
Choice D rationale:
Allergic reactions are not typically caused by ABO incompatibility between the donor and recipient blood.
ABO incompatibility is more likely to lead to acute hemolytic reactions.
Allergic reactions are usually triggered by sensitivities to plasma proteins or allergens in the blood product.
Choice E rationale:
Bacterial contamination of blood products can indeed result in sepsis.
This is a severe and life-threatening complication of transfusion, making it important to ensure the safety of blood products and proper handling to prevent contamination.
The nurse notes that the patient has developed dyspnea, orthopnea, tachypnea, and crackles on lung auscultation.
Which type of transfusion reaction should the nurse suspect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is characterized by acute respiratory distress and is usually not associated with abdominal symptoms.
TRALI is more common in patients receiving plasma-containing blood products.
Choice B rationale:
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) occurs when a patient receives a volume of blood or blood products that exceeds their circulatory system's capacity.
Symptoms include dyspnea, orthopnea, tachypnea, and crackles on lung auscultation, which match the symptoms described in the question.
This condition is more likely when blood products are transfused too rapidly or in excessive volume.
Choice C rationale:
Allergic reactions to blood transfusions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, and flushing, rather than the respiratory symptoms and crackles on lung auscultation described in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Febrile nonhemolytic reactions are characterized by fever and chills and do not typically manifest as dyspnea, orthopnea, tachypnea, or crackles on lung auscultation.
A client who received a blood transfusion starts experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
What type of transfusion reaction is the client likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is characterized by symptoms related to fluid overload, such as dyspnea and fluid accumulation, but not abdominal symptoms like abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Choice B rationale:
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) primarily presents with respiratory symptoms and is not associated with gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Choice C rationale:
Acute hemolytic reactions occur when there is a mismatch between the donor and recipient blood types, resulting in rapid destruction of transfused red blood cells.
Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which are consistent with the client's presentation described in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Allergic reactions to blood transfusions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, and flushing, but not with gastrointestinal symptoms like abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
The patient presents with symptoms of fever, jaundice, hemoglobinuria, and a positive Coombs test.
What complication is the patient likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Delayed hemolytic reactions occur several days after a blood transfusion and are characterized by symptoms like fever, jaundice, hemoglobinuria, and a positive Coombs test.
This matches the patient's presentation described in the question.
Choice B rationale:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) typically presents with fever, rash, diarrhea, and liver dysfunction.
It is a rare but severe complication that occurs when the donor's lymphocytes attack the recipient's tissues.
Choice C rationale:
Post-transfusion purpura is a rare condition characterized by severe thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) that occurs a week or more after a blood transfusion.
It does not match the symptoms described in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM) is a theoretical concept and not a recognized clinical entity.
It is not associated with the specific symptoms mentioned in the question.
What complication might be responsible for these symptoms?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Delayed hemolytic reaction occurs more than 24 hours after a blood transfusion and is characterized by a drop in hemoglobin levels, jaundice, and a positive direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test)
It does not typically present with fever, rash, and pancytopenia, so it is not the best choice for the given symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a condition where donor T lymphocytes attack the recipient's tissues, often seen in bone marrow or stem cell transplant recipients.
While it can cause pancytopenia, it typically occurs within a few weeks of transplantation, not four weeks after a blood transfusion.
Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) occurs when viable T lymphocytes in the transfused blood attack the recipient's tissues.
Symptoms can include fever, rash, diarrhea, and pancytopenia.
TA-GVHD is a delayed complication of transfusion that typically presents about 1 to 6 weeks post-transfusion, making it the most likely cause of the symptoms described in the scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Post-transfusion purpura is a rare condition that occurs 5 to 12 days after a transfusion and is characterized by sudden severe thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and bleeding, often in the form of purpura.
It does not typically present with fever, rash, and pancytopenia, so it is not the best choice for the given symptoms.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include as part of these safety measures? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ensuring that blood products meet quality and safety standards is a fundamental aspect of blood transfusion safety.
Blood products must be properly screened and tested for infectious diseases and compatibility to reduce the risk of adverse reactions in the recipient.
Choice B rationale:
Using the right blood product for the right patient at the right time is a critical safety measure.
Administering the wrong blood type or product can lead to severe and life-threatening reactions, such as hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a barcode system or electronic verification system for patient and product identification is essential for ensuring that the correct blood product is matched to the right patient.
This technology helps prevent administration errors.
Choice D rationale:
Administering blood products using reusable equipment is not recommended due to the risk of cross-contamination and infection transmission.
Single-use, disposable equipment is the standard for blood transfusion to enhance safety.
Choice E rationale:
Disposing of used blood products and materials according to hospital policy is crucial to prevent potential contamination and reduce the risk of infection transmission.
Proper disposal procedures are a part of overall transfusion safety protocols.
Choice D is not a recommended safety measure as using reusable equipment for blood transfusions can increase the risk of contamination and transmission of infections.
Therefore, it should not be included as part of blood transfusion safety measures.
What complication could be responsible for these symptoms?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) typically presents with symptoms of fever, rash, diarrhea, and pancytopenia 1 to 6 weeks after transfusion.
It is a delayed reaction, but it does not cause epistaxis, hematuria, and menorrhagia, which are bleeding symptoms.
Therefore, it is an unlikely choice for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM) is a theory that blood transfusions may affect the immune system, but it does not typically present with the specific bleeding symptoms described in the scenario.
TRIM is more concerned with the immunosuppressive effects of transfusions.
Choice C rationale:
Post-transfusion purpura is a rare condition that occurs 5 to 12 days after a transfusion.
It is characterized by sudden severe thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and bleeding symptoms, which can include epistaxis (nosebleeds), hematuria (blood in the urine), and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding)
This aligns with the symptoms described in the scenario, making it the most likely cause.
Choice D rationale:
Viral infections can be a complication of blood transfusions, but they do not typically present with these specific bleeding symptoms within 7 days after the transfusion.
Viral infections may cause a broader range of symptoms and have a longer incubation period.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has received a blood transfusion.
What action should the nurse take to ensure transfusion safety during administration?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Verifying the patient's identification is an essential step in patient safety, but it alone does not ensure transfusion safety.
Transfusion safety involves multiple steps beyond identification.
Choice B rationale:
Maintaining aseptic technique and infection control practices is crucial during a blood transfusion.
This includes using sterile equipment, wearing gloves, and following proper hand hygiene.
Infection can be a severe complication of transfusion if proper precautions are not taken.
Choice C rationale:
Administering blood products using old and sterile equipment is not a safe practice.
Blood transfusions require the use of fresh, sterile equipment to prevent contamination and ensure patient safety.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the patient's condition only after the transfusion is not sufficient to ensure safety.
Continuous monitoring during the transfusion is necessary to detect and respond to any adverse reactions promptly.
What alternative option can the nurse suggest to reduce the risk of incompatibility, infection, and immunologic reaction?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Autologous transfusion involves collecting and storing the patient's blood before a planned surgery or procedure, eliminating the risk of incompatibility, infection, and immunologic reactions associated with allogeneic (donor) blood transfusions.
This option aligns with the patient's religious beliefs and offers a safe alternative.
Choice B rationale:
Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production but does not eliminate the need for transfusion entirely.
It may not align with the patient's refusal of blood products due to religious beliefs.
Choice C rationale:
Iron therapy can increase hemoglobin levels but may not completely eliminate the need for transfusion.
It also may not be a suitable alternative for the patient's specific condition.
Choice D rationale:
Hemostatic agents are not a substitute for blood transfusion.
They are used to control bleeding but do not address anemia or increase hemoglobin levels.
What alternative treatment option can the nurse discuss with the client to increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for transfusion?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Oxygen therapy can improve oxygen-carrying capacity but does not directly address chronic anemia due to kidney disease.
Erythropoietin therapy is a more targeted option.
Choice B rationale:
Erythropoietin injections stimulate red blood cell production and can be effective in treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease.
It is a suitable alternative to blood transfusion in this context.
Choice C rationale:
Volume expanders like lactated Ringer's primarily increase blood volume and circulation but do not address anemia or increase hemoglobin levels.
This option may not be the most appropriate for the client's condition.
Choice D rationale:
Iron therapy is generally used to treat iron deficiency anemia, but it may not be the most effective option for anemia related to chronic kidney disease, as it does not address the underlying cause.
Erythropoietin therapy is a more targeted approach.
Which of the following options are examples of volume expanders that can increase blood volume and circulation without adding blood cells? (Select three.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Normal saline is a sterile solution of sodium chloride in water, and it is a commonly used intravenous fluid to expand blood volume.
It is isotonic, meaning it has a similar osmolarity to blood, and can effectively increase circulating blood volume without adding blood cells.
Choice C rationale:
Albumin is a colloid solution often used as a volume expander.
It contains proteins that help maintain colloid osmotic pressure, which can draw fluid from interstitial spaces into the bloodstream, thereby increasing blood volume and circulation without adding blood cells.
Choice D rationale:
Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is another colloid solution used as a volume expander.
It works similarly to albumin by increasing colloid osmotic pressure and attracting fluid into the vascular space, thereby increasing blood volume and circulation without adding blood cells.
Choice B rationale:
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
It does not directly increase blood volume or circulation; instead, it increases the number of red blood cells, which can improve oxygen-carrying capacity in the long term but does not serve as a volume expander.
Choice E rationale:
Oxygen therapy is not a volume expander.
While it can increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by providing supplemental oxygen, it does not increase blood volume or circulation and is not used for that purpose.
Which medication can the nurse suggest for this purpose?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Oxygen therapy is not a medication used to promote clotting or stop bleeding.
Its primary purpose is to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, especially in cases of hypoxia.
Choice B rationale:
Erythropoietin injections are used to stimulate red blood cell production in conditions like anemia.
While it can indirectly help improve oxygen-carrying capacity, it does not promote clotting or stop bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Hemostatic agents like vitamin K or tranexamic acid can help promote clotting and stop bleeding.
Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver, while tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that prevents the breakdown of clots.
These medications are often used in bleeding disorders to control hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
Iron therapy is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia and increase hemoglobin levels.
It does not have a direct role in promoting clotting or stopping bleeding.
A nurse is caring for a patient with hypoxia due to anemia and is exploring treatment options to improve oxygen-carrying capacity.
What therapy can the nurse recommend?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Lactated Ringer's solution is a volume expander, not a therapy for improving oxygen-carrying capacity.
It can increase blood volume but does not address the underlying cause of anemia or hypoxia.
Choice B rationale:
Hemostatic agents like protamine sulfate are used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.
They are not indicated for improving oxygen-carrying capacity in anemic patients.
Choice C rationale:
Oxygen therapy delivered through a nasal cannula or mask is indeed a therapy to enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.
It provides supplemental oxygen to improve oxygen saturation in the blood, which can alleviate hypoxia in anemic patients.
Choice D rationale:
Erythropoietin injections can stimulate the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
This therapy can increase the patient's hemoglobin levels and improve oxygen-carrying capacity, making it a suitable recommendation for a patient with hypoxia due to anemia.
For , choices A, C, and D are correct as they are examples of volume expanders that can increase blood volume and circulation without adding blood cells.
For , choice C is correct as hemostatic agents like vitamin K or tranexamic acid can promote clotting and stop bleeding in a patient with a bleeding disorder.
For , choice D is correct as erythropoietin injections can stimulate the production of red blood cells and help alleviate hypoxia in a patient with anemia.
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