Cna exam
Total Questions : 170
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA medical assistant has finished assisting a provider with a procedure involving body fluids. Which of the following should the assistant use when performing antiseptic handwashing?
Explanation
A. Alcohol-based sanitizer: Alcohol-based sanitizers are effective for hand hygiene when there is no visible dirt or grease. They are generally used for routine hand antisepsis in situations where hands are not visibly soiled. For procedures involving body fluids, if hands are visibly soiled, traditional handwashing with soap and water is preferred.
B. Disinfectant scrub: Disinfectant scrubs are generally used for cleaning surfaces and are not appropriate for personal hand hygiene.
C. Antiseptic solution: Antiseptic solutions are used for cleaning skin before injections or procedures, not typically for hand hygiene.
D. Liquid soap: Liquid soap is suitable for handwashing, especially when hands are visibly soiled or after exposure to body fluids. In the context of body fluids, soap and water would be preferable to ensure effective removal of contaminants.
Which of the following ensures the best contact between electrodes and skin during an EKG?
Explanation
A. Applying powder to the site: Powder should not be applied to the site as it can interfere with electrode adhesion and signal transmission.
B. Wiping the site with alcohol and allowing to air dry: Wiping the site with alcohol helps to remove oils and debris, improving electrode adhesion and signal quality. Allowing the site to dry ensures proper contact between the electrode and the skin.
C. Taping the electrodes to the skin: Taping is not necessary if the electrodes are properly adhered with the adhesive backing. Excessive taping could cause discomfort or interfere with the electrode function.
D. Allowing the electrodes to sit for several hours before application: Electrodes should be applied immediately after preparation. Allowing them to sit for an extended period is not necessary and does not improve the quality of the EKG.
Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when caring for a patient who has hearing loss?
Explanation
A. Exaggerate lip movements. Exaggerating lip movements can make speech more difficult to understand. Instead, normal, clear speech should be used.
B. Speak in high-pitched tones. High-pitched tones are often harder for individuals with hearing loss to understand. Speaking in a normal, moderate tone is more effective.
C. Use long sentences. Long sentences can be confusing. It is better to use short, simple sentences to aid comprehension.
D. Stand in the patient's direct line of vision. Standing in the patient's direct line of vision allows the patient to read lips and see facial expressions, which aids in understanding.
Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use when weighing a patient who has balance issues?
Explanation
A. Have the patient hold on to the wall while weighing. Holding onto the wall can be unsafe and can affect the accuracy of the weight measurement.
B. Position a walker over the scale. Positioning a walker over the scale can affect the scale's accuracy and the patient's balance.
C. Position a cane on the scale between her feet. Placing a cane on the scale can affect weight measurement and may not provide accurate results.
D. Have the patient sit in a chair on the scale. Weighing a patient sitting in a chair on the scale can provide an accurate measurement for patients with balance issues.
A medical assistant should recognize that which of the following procedures is usually performed by a registered nurse?
Explanation
A. Administering IV medication: Administering intravenous (IV) medication is typically within the scope of practice for registered nurses (RNs) due to the complexity and need for careful monitoring.
B. Performing a heel stick on an infant: This procedure is often performed by medical assistants, especially in a pediatric setting, as it is part of routine blood collection practices.
C. Drawing blood for a glucose tolerance test: Medical assistants are usually trained to perform blood draws, including for glucose tolerance tests.
D. Performing venipuncture with a winged collection device: Medical assistants are generally trained to perform venipunctures, including using winged collection devices (butterfly needles)
Which of the following actions should a clinical medical assistant take when labeling a vacuum tube manually?
Explanation
A. Label the tube after collection, including the date and time of collection: Labels should be applied to the tube immediately after the sample is collected to ensure accuracy and prevent mix-ups. Including the date and time helps with tracking and documentation.
B. Label the tube after collection, including the provider's name: While it is important to include identifying information, the primary focus should be on the date and time of collection to ensure the sample's accuracy.
C. Label the tube prior to collection, including the date and time of collection: Labels should be applied after the collection to avoid potential errors and ensure the correct sample is labeled.
D. Label the tube prior to collection, including the provider's name: Labeling prior to collection may lead to mistakes if the wrong sample is placed in the labeled tube. The correct practice is to label after collection.
A medical assistant is examining a rash on the front of a patient's arm. Which of the following terms should the assistant use to document the location of the ra
Explanation
A. Anterior: The term "anterior" refers to the front of the body, so it is appropriate for describing a rash on the front of the patient's arm.
B. Posterior: "Posterior" refers to the back of the body, which is not the location of the rash in this scenario.
C. Lateral: "Lateral" refers to the side of the body. While the rash may be on the side of the arm, it is more specifically described as anterior.
D. Medial: "Medial" refers to the midline of the body, not specifically to the front of the arm.
A medical assistant should identify that which of the following tasks requires the use of gloves?
Explanation
A. Obtaining a tympanic reading: This procedure does not typically require gloves as it is non-invasive and does not involve contact with bodily fluids.
B. Administering a nebulizer treatment: Gloves should be worn during this procedure to maintain hygiene and prevent exposure to respiratory secretions.
C. Performing a visual acuity test: This test is non-invasive and does not require gloves.
D. Removing a cyst: This procedure typically requires more than gloves; it involves aseptic technique and potentially sterile equipment. Gloves are part of the preparation but are not sufficient on their own.
Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take if a patient has a seizure in the provider's office?
Explanation
A. Restrain the patient: Restraining a patient during a seizure can cause injury and is not recommended.
B. Place a tongue blade in the patient's mouth: This is a myth and can cause harm. It is not safe or effective.
C. Move the patient to the floor in recovery position: If possible, gently guide the patient to the floor to prevent injury and place them in a recovery position after the seizure to keep the airway clear.
D. Initiate CPR on the patient: CPR is not needed unless the patient does not regain consciousness after the seizure or if there are other signs of respiratory or cardiac arrest.
A provider is discussing treatment options with a patient who has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following specialists would the pe be referred to?
Explanation
A. Orthopedic: Orthopedic specialists focus on musculoskeletal issues such as bones and joints, not coronary artery disease.
B. Neurology: Neurologists treat neurological disorders affecting the brain and nervous system, not coronary artery disease.
C. Bariatric: Bariatric specialists focus on weight loss and obesity-related conditions, which are not the primary treatment focus for coronary artery disease.
D. Cardiology: Cardiologists specialize in heart conditions, including coronary artery disease, and are the appropriate specialists for managing and treating this condition.
Which of the following techniques should a medical assistant use to provide support to the joint when applying a bandage to an ankle?
Explanation
A. Figure 8: The figure 8 technique provides good support and stability to joints, such as the ankle, and is effective in immobilizing and securing the bandage.
B. Recurrent: The recurrent technique is used to cover a specific area, such as a stump, rather than to support a joint.
C. Tubular: The tubular bandage technique is typically used for covering and securing dressings on limbs rather than specifically supporting joints.
D. Triangular: The triangular bandage is often used for making slings or covering larger areas but is not as effective as the figure 8 technique for joint support.
Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when performing a hearing and vision screening?
Explanation
A. Begin audiometer testing on the highest frequency and lower gradually: Audiometer testing should begin at lower frequencies and gradually increase to ensure a thorough evaluation of hearing.
B. Begin audiometer testing using both ears: Audiometer testing is usually done one ear at a time to accurately assess hearing in each ear.
C. Use the Ishihara test to measure the patient's field of vision: The Ishihara test is used for color vision testing, not for measuring the field of vision.
D. Document any squinting during the Snellen test: Squinting during the Snellen test can indicate vision problems and should be documented as it may affect the accuracy of the vision assessment.
Which of the following medication routes does a medical assistant administer topically?
Explanation
A. Subcutaneous: Subcutaneous injections are administered beneath the skin but are not considered topical.
B. Transdermal: Transdermal medications are applied directly to the skin and are absorbed through it, which is a form of topical administration.
C. Intramuscular: Intramuscular injections are given into the muscle tissue, not applied topically.
D. Percutaneous: Percutaneous administration involves drugs absorbed through the skin or mucous membranes, but the term is less specific compared to "transdermal" for topical medications.
A patient is scheduled for an orthopedic consultation. The medical assistant should ensure the health record includes which of the following?
Explanation
A. Urinalysis results: Urinalysis results are not specifically relevant to an orthopedic consultation unless there is a suspected underlying condition affecting the urinary system.
B. Radiology report: Radiology reports, such as X-rays or MRIs, are essential for orthopedic consultations as they provide crucial information about bone and joint conditions.
C. Tympanometry measurements: Tympanometry is used to assess middle ear function and is not relevant to orthopedic consultations.
D. Lipid panel: A lipid panel measures cholesterol levels and is not pertinent to orthopedic consultations unless related to overall health factors.
Which of the following annual preventative screenings should a medical assistant document on a 45-year-old female patient's record?
Explanation
A. Bone density test: Bone density tests are typically recommended for women starting around age 65 or earlier if risk factors are present, but they are not usually performed annually.
B. Dilated eye exam: While dilated eye exams are important, they are generally recommended every 1-2 years, not annually, unless specific conditions warrant more frequent exams.
C. Papanicolaou (Pap) test: The Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-65 or every 5 years with HPV testing for those aged 30-65. Annual documentation is not required, but it is important to monitor this screening as part of preventative care.
D. Mammogram: Mammograms are typically recommended every 1-2 years for women starting at age 40, not annually.
A medical assistant is preparing a patient who has a history of syncope during blood draws for venipuncture. In which of the following positions should the assistant place the patient?
Explanation
A. Prone: The prone position (lying face down) is not suitable for venipuncture or for patients at risk of syncope.
B. Trendelenburg: The Trendelenburg position (lying flat with the legs elevated) can help prevent syncope by increasing venous return to the heart and improving blood flow to the brain.
C. Supine: While the supine position (lying flat on the back) is appropriate for venipuncture, the Trendelenburg position is preferred for patients with a history of syncope.
D. Fowler's: The Fowler's position (sitting or semi-sitting) is not suitable for preventing syncope during blood draws.
Point of care test regulations require quality control for which of the following reasons?
Explanation
A. To ensure accuracy of test results: Quality control ensures that the test results are accurate and reliable, which is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
B. To determine if a test is CLIA-waived: Quality control does not determine CLIA-waived status; it ensures the accuracy and reliability of tests.
C. To enhance instrument productivity: While quality control can indirectly impact productivity by ensuring correct results, it is primarily focused on accuracy and reliability.
D. To monitor the use of instrumentation: Quality control is more focused on test accuracy rather than monitoring the use of instrumentation.
Which of the following should a medical assistant recognize as an indication to prematurely terminate a patient's exercise stress test?
Explanation
A. Sweating: Sweating is a normal physiological response to exercise and is not an indication to terminate the test.
B. Bradycardia: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) during an exercise stress test can indicate a serious problem and may require premature termination of the test.
C. Palpitations: Palpitations can occur during exercise, but they are not necessarily a reason to terminate the test unless accompanied by other symptoms or abnormalities.
D. Thirst: Thirst is not a contraindication for continuing an exercise stress test.
Which of the following is a step of the sanitization process?
Explanation
A. Soak the instrument in hot water: Hot water alone does not effectively sanitize instruments; proper sanitization typically requires cleaning agents and specific processes.
B. Rinse the instrument with a 10% bleach solution: While bleach is used for disinfection, it is not a step in the initial sanitization process.
C. Soak the instrument in a 70% isopropyl alcohol solution: Alcohol is used for disinfection rather than initial sanitization.
D. Rinse the instrument under running water: Rinsing the instrument under running water is a basic step in the sanitization process to remove visible debris before further cleaning and disinfection.
When conducting an intake, a medical assistant should recognize that which of the following may indicate child abuse?
Explanation
A. Spina bifida: Spina bifida is a congenital condition, not an indicator of child abuse.
B. Malnutrition: Malnutrition can be a sign of child abuse or neglect, as it may indicate that a child is not receiving adequate care or nourishment.
C. Respiratory syncytial virus: Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a viral infection and not typically associated with child abuse.
D. Hypertension: Hypertension is not commonly linked to child abuse and is not an indicator of abuse in this context.
A clinical medical assistant is assigned to perform a routine venipuncture. Which of the following items should the assistant ensure is in the room prior to beginning the procedure?
Explanation
A. Culture tube: A culture tube is used for specific tests to collect microbiological samples, not routinely required for all venipunctures.
B. Biohazard container: A biohazard container is essential for the safe disposal of used needles and other sharp objects to prevent contamination and injury.
C. Sterile specimen cup: A sterile specimen cup is used for collecting urine samples or other specimens, not required for routine venipuncture.
D. Lancet: A lancet is used for capillary blood draws, not for routine venipuncture.
A medical assistant is caring for a Muslim patient of the opposite gender. Which of the following actions could be considered inappropriate?
Explanation
A. Avoiding intense eye contact: Avoiding intense eye contact is generally respectful and can be appropriate depending on cultural norms.
B. Reassuring the patient by touching them: In some Muslim cultures, physical contact between individuals of the opposite gender who are not family members may be considered inappropriate.
C. Maintaining distance from the patient: Maintaining a respectful distance is generally appropriate and often preferred in various cultures.
D. Using gestures cautiously: Using gestures cautiously is respectful and avoids miscommunication.
Which of the following instructions should a medical assistant give to a patient who is scheduled for a GTT?
Explanation
A. "Avoid alcohol for 48 hours prior to the test.": While avoiding alcohol may be generally recommended for some tests, fasting is the primary requirement for a glucose tolerance test (GTT).
B. "Do not eat for 8 hours prior to the test.": A GTT typically requires fasting for 8-12 hours to accurately measure glucose levels.
C. "Limit physical exertion for 24 hours prior to the test.": Physical exertion is not typically a specific concern for a GTT, but fasting is essential.
D. "Eat a high carbohydrate meal 3 hours prior to the test.": A high carbohydrate meal is not required; fasting is necessary before the test.
Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when administering eye drops to a patient?
Explanation
A. Pull the lower eyelid down. Pulling the lower eyelid down creates a pocket for the drops, making it easier to administer them without contacting the eye’s surface directly.
B. Have the patient open their eye using both hands: Using both hands to open the eye may be uncomfortable and unnecessary; the assistant should guide the patient gently.
C. Use a retractor on the eye before administering the drops: Retractors are not typically used for eye drop administration; this can cause discomfort and is not standard practice.
D. Hold the dropper 1 inch away from the surface of the eye: The dropper should be held close enough to the eye to avoid contaminating the eye surface or the dropper, but not so close as to touch the eye.
A medical assistant is calling a facility to schedule a patient for a surgical procedure. Which of the following Information should the assistant Include?
Explanation
A. Date of last office visit: While relevant, the date of the last office visit is not as crucial for scheduling a surgical procedure as the information about the ordering provider.
B. Dietary preferences: Dietary preferences are not typically necessary for scheduling a surgical procedure; they may be relevant for postoperative care.
C. Ordering provider: The name and contact information of the ordering provider are essential for coordinating and scheduling the surgical procedure.
D. Postoperative instructions: Postoperative instructions are important for patient care but not required when scheduling the procedure itself.
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