Pre-eclampsia, Eclampsia > Maternal & Newborn
Exam Review
Complications and Outcomes
Total Questions : 5
Showing 5 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is caring for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate infusion.
What is the rationale for administering this medication?
Explanation
To prevent seizures.Magnesium sulfate is given prophylactically to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia.Seizures are a sign of eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure.Some antihypertensive drugs might be given to manage blood pressure in clients with preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not increase urine output.In fact, it can cause oliguria or renal failure as adverse effects.
Choice D is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not improve placental perfusion.It may actually decrease placental blood flow and cause fetal distress.Delivery of the baby is the only cure for preeclampsia.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with eclampsia who has developed disseminated intrasvascular coagulation (DIC).
What findings would the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, C and E. A client with eclampsia who has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) would have decreased platelet count, prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).These findings indicate that the client has excessive clotting and bleeding due to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice B is wrong because increased fibrinogen level is not a sign of DIC.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the meshwork of clots.In DIC, fibrinogen is converted to fibrin and then degraded by fibrinolysis, resulting in decreased fibrinogen level.
Choice D is wrong because decreased fibrin degradation products (FDPs) or D-dimer are not a sign of DIC.
FDPs or D-dimer are fragments of fibrin that are released when clots are broken down by fibrinolysis.
A nurse is assessing a client with mild pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks of gestation.
What signs and symptoms would indicate worsening of the condition? Select all that apply.
Explanation
The correct answer is choices A, B and C.These are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia that indicate worsening of the condition and require immediate medical attention.
Choice A is correct because a headache that does not respond to acetaminophen may indicate increased intracranial pressure due to cerebral edema.
Choice B is correct because blurred vision or scotoma (spots in the visual field) may indicate retinal damage or detachment due to hypertension.
Choice C is correct because epigastric pain or right upper quadrant pain may indicate liver ischemia or rupture due to vasospasm and edema.
Choice D is wrong because weight gain of 2 lbs in one week is normal for a pregnant woman at 34 weeks of gestation.Weight gain of more than 4 lbs in one week should be reported to the physician.
Choice E is wrong because swelling of the ankles and feet is common in pregnancy and does not necessarily indicate preeclampsia.Swelling of the face, eyes, or hands should be reported to the physician.
A nurse is preparing to administer an antihypertensive medication to a client with severe pre-eclampsia.
What blood pressure parameters should the nurse aim for?
Explanation
Systolic < 160 mmHg and diastolic < 110 mmHg.This is the blood pressure goal for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving antihypertensive medication.
The goal is to lower the blood pressure enough to prevent maternal complications such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage, but not too much to compromise fetal perfusion.
Choice A is wrong because systolic < 120 mmHg and diastolic < 80 mmHg are the normal blood pressure ranges for a healthy adult.
This goal is too low for a client with severe pre-eclampsia and may cause fetal hypoxia.
Choice B is wrong because systolic < 140 mmHg and diastolic < 90 mmHg are the blood pressure ranges for a client with mild hypertension.
This goal is also too low for a client with severe pre-eclampsia and may not prevent maternal complications.
Choice D is wrong because systolic < 180 mmHg and diastolic < 120 mmHg are the thresholds for initiating antihypertensive therapy in a client with severe pre-eclampsia.
This goal is too high for a client who is already receiving antihypertensive medication and may not adequately lower the blood pressure.
A nurse is educating a client with pre-eclampsia about the importance of fetal kick counts.
How many fetal movements should the client report in one hour?
Explanation
At least 6 fetal movements should be reported in one hour.
This is because fetal kick counts are a way to monitor the fetus’s health and well-being.A decrease in fetal movements may indicate fetal distress or problems with the placenta.Pre-eclampsia is a condition that affects the blood pressure and the kidneys of the pregnant person and can cause complications for both the person and the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because at least 2 fetal movements in one hour is too low and may suggest a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because at least 4 fetal movements in one hour is also too low and may indicate a problem with the pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because at least 8 fetal movements in one hour is higher than the recommended minimum and may not be realistic for some fetuses.
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