Health assessment exam (Samuel merit university)
Total Questions : 44
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreWhich nonpharmacologic pain treatment should the nurse avoid using in an older adult who shows signs of confusion?
Explanation
A. Music can be a soothing nonpharmacologic method to reduce pain and may help with relaxation, even for confused patients, as it typically doesn’t require cognitive engagement.
B. Aromatherapy is generally safe and may offer calming effects for older adults without relying heavily on cognitive processing.
C. Heat application is a physical pain relief method, and as long as safety precautions are taken, it can be used effectively in confused patients.
D. Distraction can be a beneficial technique for pain relief and is often effective without requiring cognitive engagement.
E. Guided Imagery should be avoided in confused older adults, as it relies on the patient's ability to follow instructions and visualize mental images, which can be challenging and potentially frustrating for someone with cognitive impairment.
The nurse obtains information when performing a focused assessment of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea (shortness of breath) over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider?
Explanation
A. Decreased lung sounds on expiration are common in COPD patients due to airway obstruction but do not necessarily indicate an acute issue.
B. Respirations are 40 breaths/minute is a critical finding, as this rapid respiratory rate suggests significant respiratory distress or worsening hypoxemia, which needs immediate intervention to prevent further complications.
C. An anterior-posterior diameter ratio of 1:1 (barrel chest) is a common finding in advanced COPD but does not indicate acute worsening.
D. Hyperresonance to percussion is typical in patients with COPD due to air trapping and does not suggest an immediate emergency.
E. Decreased tactile fremitus may occur in COPD due to increased air trapping but is not an urgent finding requiring immediate reporting.
The nurse receives orders for an opiate pain medication for a client with severe pain. What other order does the nurse anticipate getting?
Explanation
A. Fluid restriction by mouth is not typically necessary with opioid administration unless other health conditions require it.
B. A low salt diet is unrelated to opioid administration unless there are concurrent health issues like hypertension or fluid retention.
C. A chest x-ray is not indicated solely due to opioid use.
D. Stool softener medication is commonly prescribed alongside opioid medications because opioids frequently cause constipation due to reduced gastrointestinal motility.
E. Antidiarrheal medication is not needed, as opioids are more likely to cause constipation rather than diarrhea.
In which position would the nurse place a 20 year old adult with asthma who is short of breath?
Explanation
A. Supine is not recommended, as it can make breathing more difficult by limiting chest expansion.
B. Trendelenberg is not suitable for someone with breathing difficulties, as this position can worsen dyspnea.
C. High-Fowler is the best position for an asthma patient experiencing shortness of breath as it promotes lung expansion and allows for maximum chest wall movement.
D. Semi-Fowler may help but is less effective than High-Fowler in cases of acute respiratory distress.
E. Left-lateral does not optimize chest expansion and is not typically recommended for respiratory distress.
A postoperative client with a tracheostomy tube in place suddenly begins have noisy, bubbly sounding respirations. What action should the nurse take first?
Explanation
A. Suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority action to clear secretions, which is likely the cause of the noisy, bubbly respirations. This can help the client breathe more easily.
B. Changing the tracheostomy tube is only necessary if the tube is obstructed or malfunctioning, and suctioning is generally the first step.
C. Notifying the healthcare provider may be needed if suctioning is ineffective or if complications persist, but immediate intervention is required.
D. Changing the tracheostomy dressing does not address the respiratory noise or potential secretion buildup.
E. A head-to-toe assessment may be needed, but the immediate concern is clearing the airway obstruction.
A 67-year-old client states that he recently began to have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for about 2 minutes, then he is able to resume his activities. How would the nurse document this finding?
Explanation
A. Venous insufficiency typically presents with swelling and pain that worsens with prolonged standing, not with exercise.
B. Claudication is the correct term, as it describes pain due to decreased blood flow to the muscles during exercise, often relieved by rest, which matches the patient's symptoms.
C. Muscle cramps may cause pain but are usually not consistently triggered by activity and relieved by rest.
D. Deep vein thrombosis would typically present with pain, swelling, warmth, and redness rather than exercise-induced pain relieved by rest.
E. Bruit from turbulent blood flow is an audible sound over an artery and not directly related to the type of pain described.
Which statement by the nurse indicates the correct order of steps to take when performing a focused assessment of the respiratory system?
Explanation
A. Palpate, inspect, percuss, and then auscultate is not the correct order, as inspection is always performed first.
B. Percuss, palpate, auscultate, and then inspect is incorrect, as inspection should come first.
C. Auscultate, inspect, percuss, and then palpate is also incorrect, as auscultation is typically the last step.
D. Inspect, auscultate, palpate, and then percuss is close but does not follow the standard order.
E. Inspect, palpate, percuss, then auscultate is the correct order for respiratory assessment, allowing for a thorough and systematic approach.
When assessing a newly admitted client, the nurse notes a thrill along the left sternal border. To obtain more information about the cause of the thrill, which action will the nurse take next?
Explanation
A. Auscultate for any cardiac murmurs is correct, as a thrill often indicates turbulent blood flow, which may correlate with murmurs that can be heard upon auscultation.
B. Comparing apical and radial pulse rates is useful in assessing pulse deficits but does not directly address the cause of the thrill.
C. Palpating the quality of the peripheral pulses does not provide specific information about the thrill's origin.
D. Finding the point of maximal impulse is a useful cardiac assessment but does not directly explain the cause of the thrill.
E. Checking capillary refill time assesses peripheral perfusion but does not relate to the thrill's cause.
What subjective data should the nurse obtain about a client's cardiac status? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Inquiring about personal and family cardiac history provides essential subjective information on potential hereditary risks and the client’s own cardiac health.
B. Asking about fatigue and chest pain allows the nurse to assess symptoms that may suggest cardiac issues, making it critical subjective data.
C. Inspecting for intercostal retractions and nasal flaring is part of the objective assessment rather than subjective data.
D. Palpating the chest for thrills and heaves is also an objective action, assessing physical findings rather than subjective symptoms.
E. Auscultating the heart with the diaphragm and bell of the stethoscope is an objective assessment to detect sounds rather than gathering subjective information from the client.
A client was admitted 2 days ago with pneumonia. The client is now having chest pain. Vital signs are Temperature 37.2 C (98.9 F), Pulse 108, Blood pressure 160/90, respirator rate 24, and Oxygen Saturation 90%. What should the nurse do first?
Explanation
A. Calling another nurse for help is unnecessary unless additional assistance is required after initial interventions.
B. Giving pain medication as ordered may address the chest pain but does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
C. Calling the admitting healthcare provider can be done later if symptoms do not improve, but the immediate priority is to improve oxygenation.
D. Telling the client to remain calm may help reduce anxiety but does not address the low oxygen saturation.
E. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula as ordered is the priority action to improve the client’s oxygen saturation and alleviate hypoxemia, which could be contributing to their chest pain.
When listening to heart sounds, which valve closures are heard best at the base of the heart. Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Pulmonic valve closure is best heard at the base of the heart, near the second intercostal space at the left sternal border.
B. Tricuspid valve sounds are best heard at the lower left sternal border, near the apex rather than the base of the heart.
C. Aortic valve closure is also best heard at the base of the heart, near the second intercostal space on the right sternal border.
D. Mitral valve sounds are heard best at the apex of the heart, near the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line, not the base.
The nurse is performing a focused cardiovascular assessment on a 70-year-old client. What finding would be considered abnormal? No palpable vibration felt over the precordium (chest wall)
Explanation
A. S1 and S2 heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope is a normal finding, as these are the expected heart sounds.
B. A blowing sound heard over the mitral area with the bell of the stethoscope suggests a possible murmur, which could indicate valvular abnormalities and is considered abnormal.
C. Apical pulse palpated at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line is normal and expected in adults.
D. Absence of sound over carotid arteries with the bell of the stethoscope indicates no bruits and is considered normal.
The nurse wants to prevent venous thrombus (DVT) formation in a client after surgery. What action should the nurse delegate to the certified nursing assistant/patient care assistant to help prevent DVT formation in the client?
Explanation
A. Using the incentive spirometer is primarily aimed at preventing respiratory complications, not directly related to DVT prevention.
B. Dangling the legs off the bed promotes blood flow and prepares the client for ambulation, which helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of DVT.
C. Encouraging ambulation is crucial for DVT prevention, but this task typically requires nursing judgment and assessment.
D. Keeping the knees elevated for prolonged periods may increase the risk of venous stasis, potentially contributing to DVT formation.
E. Limiting fluids without a clinical indication can lead to dehydration, which may increase the risk of blood clots.
The RN and certified nursing assistant/patient care assistance (CNA/PCA) are caring for five clients on a medical/surgical unit. Which of the following tasks would be most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the CNA/PCA?
Explanation
A. Chest percussion is a specialized skill that should be performed by a nurse or respiratory therapist due to the risk of complications.
B. Lung auscultation requires assessment skills and clinical judgment, which is within the RN’s scope of practice, not the CNA’s.
C. Taking vital signs on a client with severe dyspnea may require immediate interpretation and intervention, best handled by an RN.
D. Suctioning requires skill and knowledge of the procedure and potential complications, which should be performed by the RN.
E. Setting up a meal tray is an appropriate task for a CNA, as it does not require nursing judgment and supports the client’s nutritional needs.
When performing a cardiovascular assessment, what would the nurse understand about an S3 heart sound? Select all that apply
Explanation
A. An S3 is often associated with a stiff or poorly compliant ventricle.
B. An S3 heart sound can be an indication of congestive heart failure in adults, as it reflects increased fluid volume and pressure in the ventricles.
C. S3 is heard just after S2, not S1.
D. The S3 heart sound is not always pathologic. It is often benign in children, adolescents, and young adults, where it may occur due to a rapid filling phase of the ventricles.
E. In adolescents and younger individuals, an S3 heart sound is usually considered a normal finding.
The nurse is assessing a 1-day post-operative client and discovers fine crackles at the bases of the right lung on inspiration. What does the nurse suspect is the cause of the adventitious lung sounds in the right lung?
Explanation
A. Asthma typically presents with wheezing, not fine crackles.
B. Pneumothorax usually presents with decreased or absent breath sounds rather than crackles.
C. Atelectasis, which is common after surgery, can cause fine crackles at the lung bases due to collapsed alveoli reopening during inspiration.
D. Emphysema generally results in diminished breath sounds and hyper-resonance rather than crackles.
E. Bronchitis typically produces coarse crackles or rhonchi, not fine crackles.
The nurse is asked to describe what the heart sound S1 represents. What would be the correct response by the nurse?
Explanation
A. This option incorrectly includes the aortic valve rather than the tricuspid valve in the S1 heart sound.
B. S1 represents the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, which occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole and produces the "lub" sound.
C. The pulmonic valve closure is associated with the S2 heart sound, not S1.
D. The closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves occurs in S2, not S1.
E. This combination is incorrect, as S1 is associated with mitral and tricuspid valve closure.
When teaching a health promotion class at a retirement home for individuals 65 or greater, which information would the nurse include about ways to decrease the spread of respiratory infections?
Explanation
A. Decreasing dietary protein does not directly affect the spread of respiratory infections. Protein is important for maintaining immune function.
B. Obtaining flu vaccines is an effective way to reduce the spread of respiratory infections, especially among older adults who are at higher risk.
C. Overhydration is not related to infection control and is not necessary in this context.
D. While handkerchiefs may help with containing respiratory droplets, disposable tissues are generally more hygienic.
E. Limiting daily activity is unnecessary for preventing respiratory infections and could negatively impact overall health.
A client with pneumonia is admitted to the medical/surgical floor. Which activity is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
Explanation
A. Administering oxygen is crucial for clients with pneumonia, as it helps ensure adequate oxygenation, especially if respiratory function is compromised.
B. Allowing the client to choose when to eat does not directly impact the treatment of pneumonia.
C. Restricting family visits is generally not necessary unless infection control policies require it.
D. While rest is important, it is not as critical as maintaining oxygenation.
E. The location of the client in relation to the nurse’s station does not directly affect pneumonia treatment.
A client asks the nurse to describe what causes a murmur. What would be the correct response by the nurse?
Explanation
A. Poor electrical impulse conduction may lead to arrhythmias but does not cause a murmur.
B. A heart murmur is caused by turbulent blood flow, often through narrowed or leaking valves, creating an abnormal heart sound.
C. Left ventricular enlargement can contribute to other cardiac issues but does not directly cause murmurs.
D. Weak atrial contractions may lead to decreased cardiac output but not necessarily to a murmur.
E. While hypertension can affect the heart, it is not the direct cause of a murmur.
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment using the LEARN mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the "L" portion of the mnemonic?
Explanation
A. "Leave" is not a part of the LEARN mnemonic.
B. "Leverage" is also not included in the LEARN mnemonic.
C. "Listen" is the correct answer; it encourages active listening to understand the client’s cultural needs and perspectives.
D. While "Look" may imply observation, it is not a component of the LEARN mnemonic.
E. "Liken" is not part of the LEARN mnemonic and is not relevant here.
The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client for heart failure. What findings would the nurse expect to find during the assessment? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Edema is a common finding in heart failure due to fluid retention.
B. Shortness of breath occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, common in heart failure.
C. Increased appetite is not typical in heart failure; decreased appetite is more common.
D. Weight gain due to fluid retention is more common in heart failure, rather than extreme weight loss.
E. Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure due to increased central venous pressure.
Which of the following scenarios gives the most absolute confirmation client learning has taken place? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Demonstrating an insulin injection shows hands-on learning and mastery of the skill.
B. Attending a course does not confirm comprehension or skill.
C. Watching a nurse apply a dressing does not guarantee learning; active participation is necessary.
D. Listing healthy food choices indicates understanding of dietary education.
E. Nodding does not confirm learning; it may only indicate acknowledgment.
A client is admitted with a venous insufficiency of the right leg. What assessment findings does the nurse expect to find with this condition?
Explanation
A. Poor hair growth is more associated with arterial insufficiency.
B. A weak pulse may suggest arterial, not venous, insufficiency.
C. Edema is a common finding in venous insufficiency due to fluid pooling in the extremities.
D. Muscle atrophy is not typically associated with venous insufficiency.
E. Pale color is more indicative of arterial insufficiency, while venous insufficiency may present with darkened or reddish skin.
The nurse is asked to describe what the heart sound S2 represents. What would be the correct response by the nurse?
Explanation
A. The closure of the pulmonic and mitral valves corresponds to heart sound S1, not S2.
B. The tricuspid and mitral valves close with S1.
C. Heart sound S2 represents the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves, signaling the end of systole and the beginning of diastole.
D. The mitral valve closes with S1, not S2.
E. The pulmonic and tricuspid valves do not correspond with S2.
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