Health assessment nus 140 (Central pennysilvania community college)
Total Questions : 59
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreThe nurse is admitting a client to the acute care unit. Which should the nurse consider when regarding the confidentiality of the client?
Explanation
A) Information sharing is limited to those directly involved in the client's care: This statement reflects the principle of confidentiality and the ethical obligation to protect the client's private health information. Only healthcare providers directly involved in the client’s care should have access to their information, ensuring that it remains secure and confidential.
B) All members of the unit's healthcare team may have access to the client's chart: While many healthcare team members need access to the client's information for care coordination, this statement is misleading. Access should be limited to those directly involved in the client’s care to protect their confidentiality.
C) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) determines who may communicate with the client: While HIPAA does set guidelines for the protection of health information and governs the sharing of health data, it does not specifically determine who may communicate with the client. Instead, it focuses on protecting their privacy.
D) The medical records are open to any hospital employee, including administration: This statement is incorrect as it violates confidentiality principles. Medical records are not accessible to all hospital employees; access is restricted to authorized personnel only, ensuring that patient information is kept confidential.
The nurse is beginning a health history interview. Which of the following will best guide the rest of the health history interview?
Explanation
A) "Have you ever had any surgeries?": While this question is important, it is more specific and may not provide the comprehensive context needed to guide the interview. It could lead to a narrow focus on past surgical history without addressing the client’s current health status or concerns.
B) "Tell me about any medical problems that you have had.": This question is useful but lacks the immediate relevance to the client's current situation. It may prompt the client to recount past issues rather than focusing on their current health needs and reasons for seeking care.
C) "Tell me about any medications you are currently taking.": This is an essential aspect of health history, but like the previous options, it doesn't address the client’s immediate concerns or symptoms that may guide the rest of the interview.
D) "Tell me why you are seeking care today.": This question is the most effective starting point as it directly addresses the client’s current health issue or concern. Understanding the reason for seeking care helps the nurse prioritize topics, gather relevant information, and tailor the rest of the health history interview to the client’s specific needs, making it a crucial guide for further questioning.
A client tells the nurse that they are experiencing discomfort above their elbow. Which medical terminology should the nurse use to describe the location of discomfort?
Explanation
A) Anterior to the elbow: This term describes a location in front of the elbow. While it indicates a direction, it does not specifically address the vertical relationship of the discomfort in relation to the elbow. Since the client described discomfort "above" the elbow, this term is not the most accurate choice.
B) Distal to the elbow: The term "distal" refers to a location that is farther away from the trunk of the body or point of reference. Given that the discomfort is described as being above the elbow, this term is incorrect, as it would imply the discomfort is located toward the hand rather than toward the shoulder.
C) Proximal to the elbow: This term correctly indicates a location closer to the trunk of the body and specifically suggests that the discomfort is situated above the elbow, making it the most appropriate medical terminology to use in this context. It accurately reflects the relationship of the discomfort to the elbow.
D) Inferior to the elbow: "Inferior" refers to a location below another point of reference. Since the discomfort is described as above the elbow, this terminology would not apply and would misrepresent the location of the client’s discomfort.
The nurse is obtaining a focused interview. Which statements made by the client suggest that the client has an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A) "I have cut back on fat and switched to a vegetarian diet." This statement suggests a positive change in dietary habits, which can lower the risk of cardiovascular disease. A vegetarian diet, particularly if it includes plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, is associated with a reduced risk of heart disease. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an increased risk.
B) "I have cut back on my smoking." While reducing smoking is a positive step, smoking itself is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. However, the statement indicates an attempt to decrease risk, which does not inherently suggest an increased risk. It may show improvement rather than risk.
C) "I have been stressed out since my divorce last year." Chronic stress is a recognized risk factor for cardiovascular disease, as it can lead to behaviors such as poor diet, inactivity, and increased blood pressure. This statement highlights a significant concern for the client’s cardiovascular health.
D) "I have an occasional glass of wine." Moderate alcohol consumption is sometimes associated with cardiovascular benefits. While excessive drinking can pose risks, this statement alone does not indicate an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. It reflects moderation rather than concern.
E) "I have gained 25 pounds over the past year." Weight gain, especially if it leads to obesity, is a significant risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease. This statement indicates a change in health status that could negatively impact the client’s cardiovascular risk profile.
A client is experiencing sudden-onset severe pain in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen that is rated as a 10 on a pain scale of 0-10. The client is also experiencing nausea, vomiting, and restlessness. Based on this data, the nurse concludes that the client is experiencing which of the following?
Explanation
A) Chronic pain: Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for an extended period, often longer than three months, and is usually associated with conditions that are ongoing or recurring. The client’s symptoms, including sudden-onset severe pain and accompanying acute symptoms like nausea and vomiting, do not align with the characteristics of chronic pain.
B) Intractable pain: Intractable pain refers to pain that is resistant to treatment and does not respond well to analgesics or other interventions. While the client's pain is severe, the sudden onset and associated symptoms suggest a specific acute process rather than a pain condition that is inherently resistant to treatment.
C) Acute pain: Acute pain is characterized by its sudden onset and typically corresponds to a specific injury or condition, often with accompanying physiological responses such as nausea and restlessness. The client’s severe pain rating of 10, along with nausea and vomiting, strongly indicates that they are experiencing acute pain, likely related to an underlying acute abdominal condition.
D) End-of-life pain: End-of-life pain usually occurs in patients with terminal illnesses and is often managed with palliative care strategies. The client’s sudden onset of severe pain and accompanying symptoms indicate a different situation, likely not related to a terminal condition.
The nurse is admitting a client of the Muslim faith during the holy month of Ramadan. The client tells the nurse that he must fast during this time. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
Explanation
A) "What can we do to accommodate your needs during your stay here?" This response is the most appropriate as it demonstrates cultural sensitivity and respect for the client’s religious practices. It opens the door for a collaborative discussion about how the healthcare team can support the client’s fasting while ensuring that his health needs are met during hospitalization.
B) "I will let your healthcare provider know that you need to be discharged." While it is important to communicate the client’s needs to the healthcare provider, suggesting discharge may not be a feasible solution. It does not address the complexities of fasting during hospitalization and could imply that the client’s faith is a burden rather than a respected aspect of their care.
C) "Fasting may be harmful to your body during your illness." While it is crucial to ensure the client’s health is not compromised, this response could come off as dismissive of the client’s beliefs. Instead of expressing concern, it could be more beneficial to explore how fasting can be managed within the context of their medical care.
D) "You must eat a high protein diet during times of illness." This response does not take into account the client’s religious beliefs and fails to respect the significance of fasting in the Muslim faith. While dietary considerations are important, this approach disregards the client’s right to practice their faith and may come across as prescriptive rather than collaborative.
What is an expected finding when palpating the sinuses?
Explanation
A) No discomfort: When palpating the sinuses, the expected finding is that there should be no discomfort. Healthy sinuses typically do not cause pain or tenderness during palpation, indicating that they are clear and not inflamed or infected.
B) Lumps less than 1 centimeter: While lumps may be found in various areas of the body, the presence of lumps in the sinus area during palpation is not a typical finding and may indicate an abnormality or concern that would require further evaluation.
C) Painful sensation behind the eyes: A painful sensation behind the eyes can indicate sinusitis or other sinus issues. It is not an expected finding during a normal examination of the sinuses, as healthy sinuses should not cause discomfort.
D) Heavy pressure: Heavy pressure is often a symptom associated with sinusitis or sinus congestion, but it is not an expected finding during a routine palpation of the sinuses. Healthy sinuses should not feel heavy or pressured during examination.
Which of the following is the rationale for the nurse to reassess the patient's pain after treatment?
Explanation
A) To determine the location of the pain: While knowing the location of the pain can be relevant for overall assessment, this is not the main reason for reassessing pain after treatment. The focus is more on understanding the response to treatment rather than just identifying where the pain is.
B) To establish the effectiveness of medication: Reassessing pain after treatment is essential to evaluate how well the medication has alleviated the pain. This helps the nurse determine if the current pain management approach is effective or if modifications are necessary to improve the patient's comfort.
C) To make changes to the patient's pain goal: While understanding pain levels can inform care planning, the primary purpose of reassessing pain is to gauge treatment effectiveness rather than directly changing the pain management goals at that moment.
D) To measure the pain's duration: Measuring the duration of pain may be useful in a broader context of pain management, but it is not the immediate rationale for reassessing pain after treatment. The focus should be on the effectiveness of the intervention rather than just how long the pain lasts.
A resident in an assisted-living facility is restless most nights and sits in the lounge area reading. When questioned, the resident reports suffering from insomnia. What should the nurse expect as an outcome if the resident continues with this pattern of sleep?
Explanation
A) Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area: While there could be safety concerns related to a resident being in a common area at night, the primary outcome expected from continued insomnia would more directly relate to the individual's functioning rather than immediate safety issues.
B) Onset of cardiac dysfunction: While chronic sleep disturbances can contribute to various health problems, including cardiovascular issues, the immediate outcome of insomnia is more likely to be seen in daily functioning rather than a direct onset of cardiac dysfunction.
C) Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems: While ongoing insomnia may exacerbate existing health issues or lead to new ones over time, the most immediate and observable outcome of insomnia would relate to how it affects daily functioning rather than the development of new health problems.
D) The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes: Insomnia typically leads to increased fatigue, decreased alertness, and impaired cognitive function during the day. As a result, the resident's overall ability to engage in daily activities and interact socially may be significantly hindered by their lack of restorative sleep.
The client tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of his moles has started to burn and bleed. The nurse should pay close attention to danger signs for pigmented lesions, and would be concerned with which additional finding?
Explanation
A) Symmetry of lesions: While asymmetry can be a concern when assessing moles, it is not the most critical indicator when a lesion has already shown signs of burning and bleeding. Symmetry is one aspect of the overall assessment but does not immediately indicate danger in this scenario.
B) Border regularity: Irregular borders can suggest malignancy; however, the presence of burning and bleeding is a more pressing sign that warrants immediate attention. While border irregularity is important to assess, it is not as concerning as changes in color or the presence of symptoms like bleeding.
C) Diameter less than 6 mm: A diameter less than 6 mm is generally considered a normal size for moles and is not indicative of malignancy on its own. In this case, the burning and bleeding of the mole are more significant findings that raise concern, regardless of its size.
D) Color variation: Color variation in a pigmented lesion is a significant danger sign, as it can indicate changes that may suggest malignancy, especially when combined with other concerning symptoms like burning and bleeding. Variability in color may indicate the presence of different cell types and is a key factor in assessing the risk of melanoma.
The nurse is assessing a client admitted with severe back pain. Which are essential components of the pain assessment? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A) Impact on ADLs: Understanding how pain affects a client's activities of daily living (ADLs) is crucial for assessing the overall impact of the pain on their life. It provides insight into the functional limitations caused by the pain and helps guide treatment planning.
B) Family medical history: While family medical history can provide context for certain conditions, it is not an essential component of a focused pain assessment. The immediate concerns are more directly related to the client's current pain experience rather than their family's medical background.
C) Pain intensity rating: Assessing the intensity of pain is a fundamental aspect of pain assessment. Using scales (e.g., 0-10) allows the nurse to quantify the pain, monitor changes over time, and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions.
D) Characteristics of the pain: Understanding the characteristics of the pain—such as its quality (sharp, dull, throbbing) and location—is essential for determining its cause and guiding appropriate treatment strategies.
E) Aggravating factors: Identifying what exacerbates the pain is critical for understanding its nature and developing effective management strategies. Knowing which activities or positions worsen the pain can help in creating a comprehensive care plan tailored to the client's needs.
The nurse is caring for a client who has pain due to sickle cell anemia. The patient rates the pain as a 7 out of 10 (O is no pain and 10 is the worst pain possible). The client is moving around easily and smiling. She is asking for pain medication. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Explanation
A) Notify the healthcare provider that the client is exaggerating their pain: It is inappropriate for the nurse to assume that the client is exaggerating their pain based solely on their demeanor. Pain perception is subjective and can vary greatly among individuals, especially in conditions like sickle cell anemia.
B) Wait 30 minutes and see if the client is still requesting pain medication: Delaying pain relief can lead to unnecessary suffering. Given that the client rates their pain as a 7 out of 10, which indicates significant discomfort, it is essential to address their pain promptly rather than postponing treatment.
C) Administer the pain medication as prescribed: This is the most appropriate action. Clients with sickle cell anemia often experience severe pain crises, and effective pain management is crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed supports the client's comfort and well-being.
D) Administer half of the ordered dose of pain medication: Modifying the dosage without a provider's order is not appropriate. If the full prescribed dose is warranted based on the pain level, the nurse should administer it as indicated to ensure effective pain management.
When assessing an ambulatory patient, the nurse observes that both arms swing freely in alternation with leg swings. Which of the following is being assessed?
Explanation
A) Muscle strength: While muscle strength can influence gait, it specifically refers to the ability of muscles to exert force against resistance. Assessing muscle strength involves different techniques, such as manual muscle testing, rather than observing arm and leg movements.
B) Gait: The observation that both arms swing freely in alternation with leg swings is a direct assessment of the patient's gait. A normal gait pattern includes coordinated movements of the arms and legs, indicating proper motor function and balance.
C) Alignment: This term refers to the positioning of the body and its parts in relation to one another. While alignment can impact gait, it is not specifically assessed by observing the movement of the arms and legs.
D) Joint function: Joint function assessment typically focuses on the range of motion, stability, and mobility of individual joints. Observing the swing of arms and legs provides insight into overall gait rather than specific joint function.
The nurse is educating a group of women about breast health. Which statement by the nurse accurately reflects the current American Cancer Society breast cancer screening guidelines?
Explanation
A) "Women should be familiar with their own breasts so that they can report any changes to their provider": This statement aligns with current recommendations emphasizing the importance of breast self-awareness. Women are encouraged to be familiar with their breast tissue so they can recognize any changes, such as lumps or alterations in size or shape, and report these changes to their healthcare provider. This proactive approach can lead to earlier detection of breast cancer.
B) "All women should have a breast screening with an MRI beginning at age 40": This statement is misleading, as the American Cancer Society does not recommend routine MRI screenings for all women. MRI is typically reserved for women at high risk for breast cancer. The standard guideline includes annual mammograms starting at age 40, but not MRI for all.
C) "Mammograms do not help with detecting breast cancer until after age 54": This statement is incorrect. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer well before age 54, and the American Cancer Society recommends that women start getting annual mammograms at age 40. Early detection through regular screenings is critical for improving outcomes.
D) "Mammograms are only indicated if there is a strong family history": This statement is also inaccurate. While family history can increase the risk for breast cancer and may influence screening frequency, all women are encouraged to have regular mammograms starting at age 40, regardless of family history. This guideline aims to catch potential cancers early in all women.
The nurse is completing their documentation for the shift. Which of the data is objective? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A) Blood pressure 150/90: This data is objective because it is a measurable value obtained through direct observation using a sphygmomanometer. It provides a quantifiable assessment of the client's cardiovascular status and can be verified by others, making it an important piece of objective data.
B) Bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants: The assessment of bowel sounds is objective as it involves physical examination techniques that can be observed and documented by the nurse. The presence of bowel sounds indicates gastrointestinal activity, and this finding can be consistently assessed across different healthcare providers.
C) PERRLA: The abbreviation stands for "Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation." This assessment is objective as it involves specific, observable measurements of the client's pupils during an eye examination. It can be consistently evaluated by different healthcare professionals, ensuring reliable documentation.
D) Anxious about surgical procedure: This statement is subjective as it reflects the client's personal feelings and emotional state. While important for understanding the client's experience, it cannot be measured or observed directly by the nurse and relies on the client's self-reporting.
E) Dyspnea on exertion: While dyspnea can be observed, the phrase "on exertion" refers to the client's subjective experience of breathlessness. Although it can be assessed through observation of respiratory patterns, the experience itself is based on the client's interpretation, making it subjective data.
A nurse is contacting the provider about a client. Which statement is an example of the S in SBAR?
Explanation
A) "The client may be having a cardiac event": While this statement indicates a potential concern, it lacks specific details about the client's current condition. It suggests a possibility but does not clearly communicate the immediate issue or symptoms being experienced.
B) "The client needs an EKG. Please see her immediately": This statement expresses urgency and a request for action but does not provide the necessary context or information about the client's symptoms. It is more aligned with the "Request" part of SBAR rather than the "Situation."
C) "The client is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath": This statement accurately describes the current situation the client is facing. It provides essential information regarding the symptoms the nurse is observing, making it a clear example of the "Situation" in the SBAR framework. This information is critical for the provider to understand the urgency of the situation.
D) "The client's admitting diagnosis is stage 2 breast cancer": While this statement provides important background information, it does not reflect the immediate situation that requires attention. It does not address the current health issue that is prompting the nurse to contact the provider.
The client's respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, and they deny feeling short of breath. The nurse will document this finding as:
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
How can a nurse best assess a patient's dietary habits effect on their overall health?
Explanation
A) Obtain a height and weight and calculate a body mass index (BMI): Calculating BMI provides a valuable assessment of a patient’s body composition and overall health related to dietary habits. BMI is a widely used indicator that helps categorize individuals into underweight, normal weight, overweight, and obese categories. Understanding where a patient falls within these categories can highlight the potential impact of dietary habits on health and guide further dietary interventions or education.
B) Review all medications the patient is taking: While reviewing medications is important, it primarily focuses on pharmacological management rather than directly assessing dietary habits. Some medications may have dietary restrictions or require specific nutrient intake, but this does not provide a comprehensive view of the patient's overall dietary habits and their effects on health.
C) Ask about how much food is eaten at an average meal: While inquiring about portion sizes is relevant, it does not give a full picture of dietary habits, including food variety, nutrient quality, and frequency of meals or snacks. A single question about average meal size may overlook other critical aspects of the patient’s eating patterns and nutritional intake.
D) Assess for the presence of any chronic disease processes: Evaluating chronic diseases is crucial for understanding health implications, but it does not directly assess dietary habits. Chronic conditions can be influenced by diet, but the assessment of dietary habits requires a more direct inquiry into nutritional intake and lifestyle choices rather than focusing solely on disease presence.
The nurse is preparing to assess the motor function of the client's trigeminal nerve. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for the nurse to use?
Explanation
A) Have the client smile, frown, and puff out their cheeks: This test assesses the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), not the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). While important for evaluating facial movement, it does not specifically test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for mastication.
B) Palpate the masseter muscles when the client clenches their teeth: This is the correct test for assessing the motor function of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for chewing, and palpating the masseter muscles during clenching allows the nurse to evaluate muscle strength and function. It provides insight into the motor capabilities associated with this cranial nerve.
C) Assess constriction of the client's pupils with direct and indirect light: This test evaluates the function of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) and the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III). It does not assess the trigeminal nerve and is not relevant for this assessment.
D) Ask the patient to turn their head left and right with resistance: This action tests the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which is involved in neck movement. It does not relate to the function of the trigeminal nerve, making it an inappropriate choice for this specific assessment.
The nurse performs a neurological assessment and determines the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15. What will the nurse do next?
Explanation
A) Re-assess in 15 minutes: While regular assessments are important in a neurological evaluation, if the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, indicating the patient is fully alert and oriented, there may not be an immediate need to re-assess so soon unless the patient's condition changes.
B) Ask the patient to open eyes on command: If the GCS score is already determined to be 15, this indicates that the patient is responsive and capable of opening their eyes spontaneously. Asking the patient to open their eyes is unnecessary in this context since the score already reflects full responsiveness.
C) Document the findings: Documenting the GCS score of 15 is crucial as it establishes a baseline for the patient’s neurological status. This documentation is essential for ongoing assessments and monitoring, providing a record of the patient’s condition at this moment.
D) Notify the physician: Notifying the physician is not required for a GCS score of 15, as this score indicates a normal level of consciousness. Communication with the physician would be warranted only if there were changes in the patient's condition or a lower GCS score observed.
A patient is in the ED after falling off a ladder. His ankle appears swollen, out of alignment, and is painful to touch. What will the nurse do first?
Explanation
A) Splint and immobilize the extremity: While immobilizing the injured extremity is important to prevent further injury, it should follow an initial assessment of blood flow and nerve function to ensure there are no vascular or neurological compromises.
B) Apply an ice pack to the ankle: Applying ice can help reduce swelling and alleviate pain. However, it is essential first to assess the circulation to the limb to ensure that applying ice will not worsen any underlying issues.
C) Encourage weight bearing and ambulation: Encouraging weight bearing on a potentially injured ankle can lead to further damage and is not appropriate. The priority is to assess the injury and understand its severity.
D) Assess pulse, color, temperature, and capillary refill: This step is crucial as it evaluates the vascular status of the limb. Assessing these factors helps identify any potential complications, such as compartment syndrome or inadequate blood flow, and guides further management of the injury.
During the assessment of a client's head and neck, the nurse observes the client's facial expressions and the face for symmetry and movement. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
Explanation
A) VII: The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. By assessing facial symmetry and movement, the nurse evaluates the integrity and function of this nerve, which is crucial for activities such as smiling, frowning, and raising eyebrows.
B) V: The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) is primarily responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as chewing. While it plays a role in facial movement, it does not specifically assess facial expressions.
C) III: The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) controls eye movement and pupil constriction. It does not directly influence facial expressions, so it is not the nerve being assessed in this context.
D) VI: The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) is responsible for lateral eye movement. It is unrelated to facial expression or symmetry and is not the focus of this assessment.
Based on an understanding of the cognitive changes that normally occur with aging. what would the nurse expect a newly hospitalized older adult to do?
Explanation
A) Interrupt with frequent questions: While older adults may have questions, they typically do not interrupt frequently. This behavior is more indicative of anxiety or agitation rather than a cognitive change associated with aging.
B) Answer slowly and be confused: While some older adults may exhibit slower responses, confusion is not a normal cognitive change associated with aging. Confusion may suggest underlying issues such as delirium or dementia, rather than typical age-related cognitive changes.
C) Withdraw from strangers: Social withdrawal can occur in some older adults, but it is not a universal expectation. Many older adults remain engaged and sociable, and withdrawal is more commonly associated with mental health issues rather than cognitive changes.
D) Take longer to respond and react: It is common for older adults to take longer to process information and respond due to normal cognitive slowing. This may reflect changes in processing speed rather than a decline in cognitive function, and it is an expected part of aging.
The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment. Which of the following would be considered objective data?
Explanation
A) Dietary history from the patient: This information is subjective as it relies on the patient’s personal account of their eating habits, which may be influenced by memory or perception. It does not provide measurable data.
B) BMI (Body Mass Index): This is an objective measure calculated from a person’s height and weight. It provides quantifiable data that can be used to assess nutritional status and potential health risks associated with body weight.
C) Patient history of alcohol intake: This information is subjective as it is based on the patient’s self-report. It does not provide direct evidence and may vary depending on how the patient perceives their alcohol consumption.
D) Patient complaint of weight loss: This is also subjective data, as it relies on the patient’s perception of their weight change. It does not provide concrete measurements and can be influenced by various factors such as mood or misunderstanding of the situation.
The nurse auscultates the client's abdomen for 1 minute and does not hear anybowel sounds. What should the nurse do next?
Explanation
A) Listen for another minute just to be sure: While it is important to confirm findings, simply listening for another minute may not provide enough time to accurately assess bowel sounds, as they can be infrequent or absent in certain conditions.
B) Contact the physician as this is a surgical emergency: Not hearing bowel sounds for a minute is not immediately indicative of a surgical emergency. It’s essential to gather more information before escalating the situation.
C) Auscultate for another 4 minutes: This is the appropriate action, as the nurse should auscultate for a total of 5 minutes (1 minute initially and then 4 more minutes) to adequately assess bowel sounds. This duration allows for the detection of normal, hypoactive, or absent bowel sounds, which can provide critical information about the client’s gastrointestinal function.
D) Listen posteriorly for enhanced bowel sounds: While listening from different positions may sometimes help, the standard practice is to listen for an appropriate duration before changing techniques. Auscultating for a longer period is more clinically relevant in this scenario.
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