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Hesi Biology

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Question 1:

The urinary bladder and the internal reproductive organs are found in which cavity?

Explanation

The urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs, including the uterus, ovaries, and testes, are in the pelvic cavity. The pelvic cavity is a bony structure formed by the pelvis and contains the terminal portions of the digestive tract, urinary tract, and reproductive tract. It is situated inferior to the abdominal cavity and is separated from it by the pelvic brim, which is a rim of bone formed by the iliac crests, sacrum, and pubic bones. The pelvic cavity is bounded by the pelvic bones and the pelvic diaphragm and is lined with the pelvic peritoneum.


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Question 2:

Anaerobic respiration can lead to a burning sensation caused by which molecule?

Explanation

During anaerobic respiration, some living systems use an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor. Processes that use an organic molecule to regenerate NAD+ from NADH are collectively referred to as fermentation. One type of fermentation is lactic acid fermentation, which produces lactic acid (lactate) and NAD+1. The accumulation of lactic acid can lead to a burning sensation in muscles during intense exercise.


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Question 3:

What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated?

Explanation

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it activates the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for physical activity or stressful situations. This response includes several physiological changes, such as:

Increased heart rate and cardiac output: The sympathetic nervous system releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, which increase heart rate and cardiac output to provide more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles.

Decreased uterine activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits uterine contractions to prevent

premature labor.

Decreased pancreatic activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits insulin secretion and promotes glucagon secretion to increase blood glucose levels.

Decreased gastrointestinal activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits digestive functions to divert blood flow to the muscles.


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Question 4:

The pulse point located behind the knee is palpated over which artery?

Explanation

The popliteal artery is located behind the knee and is one of the major arteries that supplies blood to the leg and foot. Palpating the pulse in this artery can be done by pressing firmly on the area behind the knee, just below the crease. It is important to note that palpating the pulse in this area can be more difficult than other pulse points, as the artery is deep and surrounded by other structures such as muscle and bone.


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Question 5:

Which anatomical structure houses the malleus, incus and stapes?

Explanation

The malleus, incus, and stapes are three small bones, collectively known as the ossicles, located in the middle ear. These bones work together to transmit sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear, where they are converted into nerve impulses that are then sent to the brain. The malleus is atached to the eardrum, the incus is in between the malleus and the stapes, and the stapes is connected to the inner ear. Together, they form a chain that amplifies the sound waves and transmits them efficiently to the inner ear.


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Question 6:

What cavity of the heart normally has the thickest wall?

Explanation

The left ventricle of the heart normally has the thickest wall, which is composed mainly of cardiac muscle tissue (myocardium). The left ventricle has to generate enough force to pump oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation, which requires greater muscular effort than the right ventricle, which pumps blood only to the lungs via the pulmonary circulation. The thickness of the left ventricular wall ensures that it can withstand the pressure required to generate this forceful contraction.


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Question 7:

Where does digestion begin in the digestive system?

Explanation

Digestion begins in the oral cavity, also known as the mouth, where food is ingested and broken down into smaller pieces through mechanical digestion by the teeth and chemical digestion by enzymes in saliva, such as amylase. Once the food is sufficiently broken down, it forms a bolus and is then swallowed, passing through the esophagus and into the stomach. In the stomach, the food is further broken down by stomach acid and enzymes before passing into the small intestine for the absorption of nutrients.


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Question 8:

If you broke the distal end of two bones that articulate the carpals, which bones did you break?

Explanation

The bones that articulate with the carpals are the distal end of the radius and the distal end of the ulna. These two bones form the wrist joint with the carpals. Therefore, if you break the distal end of both the ulna and radius, it will result in a wrist fracture. This type of injury is also known as a distal radius and ulna fracture.

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Question 9:

Which of the following statement best describes endocrine glands?

Explanation

Blood then carries them to target cells or organs throughout the body. Hormones are chemical messengers that help to regulate various physiological processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Unlike exocrine glands (option a), which secrete their products into ducts that carry them to external surfaces such as the skin or digestive tract, endocrine glands have no ducts and release their secretions directly into the circulatory system. Salivary glands (option d) are exocrine glands that secrete saliva into ducts leading to the mouth. Option b is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe endocrine glands.


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Question 10:

Which hand position describes the anatomical position of a person who is standing erect with two feet forward?

Explanation

The anatomical position is a standardized reference position used to describe the human body. In this position, the person stands erect with their feet together and their arms at their sides, with the palms of the hands facing forward (anteriorly). This position is used as a reference for describing the location of different parts of the body.


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Question 11:

Which bones are formed by intramembranous ossification?

Explanation

Intramembranous ossification is a process of bone formation in which bone tissue forms directly within mesenchymal (undifferentiated) connective tissue membranes. This process is responsible for the formation of the flat bones of the skull, including the frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal bones.

Long bones of the arms and legs, bones of the pelvic girdle, and vertebrae are formed by endochondral ossification, a different process of bone formation in which bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage.

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Question 12:

In white blood cells, what contributes to phagocytes?

Explanation

Lysosomes contribute to phagocytosis in white blood cells by fusing with the phagosome, which is the membrane-bound vesicle that engulfs the foreign particle or pathogen during phagocytosis. The lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that can break down the engulfed material, thereby helping to destroy the invading pathogen. Additionally, lysosomes can also release reactive oxygen species and other antimicrobial molecules that further aid in the destruction of the pathogen.

Vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus do not directly contribute to phagocytosis in white blood cells. Vacuoles are used for storage in cells, while the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are involved in protein synthesis and processing.


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Question 13:

Which structure conducts urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder?

Explanation

The ureters are long, narrow tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Each kidney has one ureter, which emerges from the renal pelvis (a funnel-shaped cavity in the kidney) and descends downward, passing behind the peritoneum and along the back of the abdominal cavity. The ureters then enter the bladder through small openings at the base of the bladder, where they join with the urethra, a tube that carries urine out of the body.

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Question 14:

The genetic code carried by macromolecules is called?

Explanation

DNA is a double-stranded macromolecule made up of nucleotides that carry genetic information. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines the genetic code, which controls the development and function of living organisms. Chromosomes are structures made up of DNA and proteins that carry genes. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA. RNA, on the other hand, is a single-stranded macromolecule that plays a key role in protein synthesis by carrying genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.

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Question 15:

Which type of skin cancer can be recognized in the lesion’s character based on the ABCD rule?

 

Explanation

The ABCD rule is a mnemonic used to identify the characteristics of melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. The leters stand for:

A -Asymmetry: One half of the mole or lesion does not match the other half.

B - Border irregularity: The edges are ragged, notched, or blurred.

C - Color: The color is not uniform and may include different shades of brown or black, or sometimes patches of pink, red, white, or blue.

D - Diameter: The size of the mole or lesion is greater than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser), although melanomas can sometimes be smaller.

This rule is not as useful in detecting other types of skin cancer, such as squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, or sarcoma, as they tend to have different characteristics. However, any new or changing mole or lesion on the skin should be examined by a dermatologist to determine if it is cancerous.


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Question 16:

Which skin structures are responsible for fingerprints?

Explanation

Dermal papillae are small, raised structures in the dermis of the skin. They contain nerve endings, capillaries, and other specialized cells. Dermal papillae are responsible for creating fingerprints, as they push up into the epidermis and create ridges on the surface of the skin. These ridges are what give each person their unique pattern of fingerprints. Sudoriferous glands are responsible for producing sweat, Merkel cells are involved in touch sensation, and arrector pili are responsible for the contraction of hair follicles


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Question 17:

What type of synovial joint is the elbow?

Explanation

A hinge joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement in only one plane, like a door hinge. The elbow joint is made up of the humerus bone in the upper arm, the ulna bone and the radius bone in the forearm. It allows flexion and extension movements, like the opening and closing of a hinge.

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Question 18:

Which muscle of the quadriceps femoris group lies on the side surface of the lower extremities?

Explanation

The quadriceps femoris group is a group of four muscles located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. These muscles are responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint. The four muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris group are the rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, and vastus lateralis.

The vastus lateralis is the largest of the four muscles and is located on the lateral side of the thigh. It originates from the greater trochanter of the femur, the lateral lip of the linea aspera, and the lateral intermuscular septum. It inserts into the patella and the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon. The vastus lateralis is responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint and is also involved in stabilizing the patella.


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Question 19:

Which structure is a ball and socket joint?

Explanation

A ball and socket joint is a type of synovial joint where the rounded head of one bone fits into the concave socket of another bone, allowing movement in multiple directions. The shoulder joint is a classic example of a ball and socket joint, where the rounded head of the humerus bone fits into the shallow socket of the scapula bone, allowing for a wide range of movements such as flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. The ankle joint is a hinge joint, the elbow joint is a hinge joint, and the knee joint is a complex hinge joint.

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Question 20:

Which organ is the part of both the male reproductive system and the urinary system?

Explanation

The urethra is a tube that connects the bladder to the external environment and serves as a passageway for urine to exit the body during urination. In males, the urethra also serves as a passageway for semen to exit the body during ejaculation, making it a part of both the male reproductive system and the urinary system.


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Question 21:

Ceruminous glands secrete?

Explanation

Ceruminous glands are specialized sweat glands located in the skin of the ear canal. These glands secrete a waxy substance called cerumen or ear wax. Ear wax helps to lubricate and protect the skin of the ear canal and prevent the entry of foreign particles, such as dust and insects, into the ear. It also has antibacterial properties that help to protect the ear from infection. The amount and composition of ear wax vary from person to person and can be affected by factors such as age, genetics, and environmental conditions.

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Question 22:

What is the function of thrombocytes?

Explanation

Also known as platelets, are cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting or coagulation. When a blood vessel is injured, thrombocytes are activated and clump together to form a platelet plug that stops the bleeding. They also release substances that promote blood clotting and help to repair the damaged blood vessel. Therefore, the function of thrombocytes is important in preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not describe the function of thrombocytes.

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Question 23:

When assessing a female client who has described herself as a strict vegetarian, the nurse notes she has unusual skin color. The nurse should ask the nurse if she has eaten large amounts of?

Explanation

Eating large amounts of turnips and beets can lead to a condition called beeturia, which causes the urine and skin to turn a reddish or purplish color. This condition is harmless and is caused by the betalain pigments present in these vegetables. As a strict vegetarian, it is possible that the client consumes large amounts of these vegetables, which could explain the unusual skin color.

Rice and eggs, carrots and squash, spinach and mustard greens are not known to cause unusual skin color. However, it is important for the nurse to ask the client about her diet and any supplements she may be taking to beter understand the cause of the unusual skin color.


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Question 24:

Which structure is located on the sternum?

Explanation

The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension located at the inferior end of the sternum (breastbone), which serves as an atachment site for certain abdominal muscles. The hyoid bone is a U- shaped bone located in the neck, not on the sternum. The ossa coxae are also known as the hip bones, which are in the pelvic region, not on the sternum. Sesamoid bones are small, rounded bones that are embedded within tendons and can be found in various locations throughout the body, but not necessarily on the sternum.


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