Hesi rn fundamentals exam
Total Questions : 48
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreThe nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and receiving supplemental oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula. The oxygen saturation is 89%. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Verifying the placement of the pulse oximeter is the first step to ensure accurate readings. Incorrect placement can lead to false low oxygen saturation readings.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the oxygen to 3 L/minute may be necessary if the oxygen saturation remains low after verifying the pulse oximeter placement. However, it is not the immediate first step.
Choice C rationale
Removing the nasal cannula is not appropriate as it would further decrease the oxygen supply to the patient.
Choice D rationale
Switching to a non-rebreather mask is not the immediate action to take. Non-rebreather masks deliver a high concentration of oxygen, typically reserved for severe hypoxia.
The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who had surgery for a large bowel resection with a colostomy placement. The client has now developed hyperglycemia which requires self-injections of insulin after discharge. When designing the postoperative plan of care, which outcome statement should the nurse use?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This outcome statement focuses on the client’s ability to perform a specific task related to ostomy care. While it’s important for clients with a colostomy to learn how to change their ostomy bag, in the context of this scenario, where the client has developed hyperglycemia requiring insulin injections, the priority lies in managing their diabetes and adhering to the medication regimen. Therefore, while ostomy care is important, it may not be the most immediate concern.
Choice B rationale
This outcome statement indicates the client’s attempt to self-administer insulin but inability to perform the injection. While it’s important for clients to be able to self-administer insulin, the emphasis in this scenario should be on ensuring that the client adheres to the medication regimen, rather than focusing solely on their ability to self-administer insulin immediately after discharge. Therefore, while self-administration of insulin is relevant, it may not be the most immediate priority in the postoperative plan of care.
Choice C rationale
This outcome statement focuses on monitoring the client’s respiratory status by auscultating breath sounds at regular intervals. While respiratory assessment is important, especially postoperatively, it may not directly address the client’s primary health concern in this scenario, which is managing hyperglycemia and insulin administration.
Choice D rationale
This outcome statement directly addresses the client’s need to manage their hyperglycemia by adhering to the prescribed insulin regimen. Given that the client has developed hyperglycemia requiring insulin injections, ensuring medication adherence is crucial for controlling blood sugar levels and preventing complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes. This choice aligns with the client’s health needs and goals following the surgical procedure and the development of hyperglycemia.
When assessing a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L (7.5 mmol/L), which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the strength of deep tendon reflexes is not the most important intervention because the deep tendon reflexes are not the most reliable indicator of the serum potassium level. The nurse should check the client’s reflexes and note any hyperreflexia or hyporeflexia, but these are not the priority assessments.
Choice B rationale
This is the most important intervention because a high serum potassium level can cause cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should monitor the client’s heart rate and rhythm closely and report any changes or abnormalities to the healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale
Observing the color and amount of urine is not the most important intervention because the color and amount of urine are not directly related to the serum potassium level. The nurse should assess the client’s renal function and fluid balance, but these are not the priority assessments.
Choice D rationale
Comparing muscle strength bilaterally is also not the most important intervention because the muscle strength is not the most sensitive indicator of the serum potassium level. The nurse should evaluate the client’s neuromuscular status and watch for signs of weakness or paralysis, but these are not the priority assessments.
The nurse observes a newly employed unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) checking the temperature of an adult client using a tympanic thermometer.The UAP pulls the client’s auricle up and back and prepares to insert the thermometer. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Advising the UAP to hold the thermometer securely in place for a full three minutes is unnecessary and may cause discomfort to the client. Tympanic thermometers typically provide rapid temperature readings within a few seconds.
Choice B rationale
Positive reinforcement is important for encouraging and motivating staff, it should be used appropriately. In this case, the UAP is performing the procedure correctly.
Choice C rationale
Demonstrating the correct technique for pulling the client’s auricle down and back is incorrect because the UAP is using the correct technique. For adults, the auricle should be pulled up and back.
Choice D rationale
Reminding the UAP to lubricate the thermometer before gently inserting it in the ear is not necessary for tympanic thermometers. The primary issue in this scenario is the incorrect technique for positioning the client’s auricle, so reminding about lubrication is not the most relevant intervention.
The nurse is teaching a client about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wearing gloves to dispose of the needle and syringe is a good practice to prevent needlestick injuries and contamination. However, it is not the primary action that indicates an understanding of standard precautions. Standard precautions emphasize hand hygiene as the most critical step in preventing infection transmission.
Choice B rationale
Donning a face mask before administering the medication is not necessary for standard precautions in home settings. Face masks are typically used in healthcare settings to prevent the spread of respiratory infections, but they are not required for routine medication administration at home.
Choice C rationale
Washing hands before handling the needle and syringe is a fundamental aspect of standard precautions. Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections and is a critical step in ensuring safe injection practices.
Choice D rationale
Removing the needle before discarding used syringes is not recommended. The entire needle and syringe should be disposed of in a sharps container to prevent needlestick injuries and contamination.
An older adult female client tells the clinic nurse about frequently awakening during the night and not being able to go back to sleep. What action(s) should the nurse suggest to the client to help improve sleep? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking the healthcare provider for a mild sedative for bedtime may not be the best first-line approach for improving sleep. Sedatives can have side effects and may lead to dependency. Non-pharmacological interventions are generally preferred for managing sleep disturbances in older adults.
Choice B rationale
Taking an afternoon nap to make up for missed sleep can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle and make it harder to fall asleep at night. It is generally recommended to avoid napping during the day to improve nighttime sleep quality.
Choice C rationale
Drinking a mixture of warm water, whiskey, and honey at bedtime is not a recommended practice for improving sleep. Alcohol can disrupt sleep patterns and lead to poor sleep quality. It is better to avoid alcohol before bedtime.
Choice D rationale
Establishing a regular time for going to bed and getting up helps regulate the body’s internal clock and improve sleep quality. Consistency in sleep schedules is a key factor in promoting healthy sleep habits.
Choice E rationale
Avoiding caffeinated beverages late in the day is important for improving sleep. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with the ability to fall asleep and stay asleep.
A nurse is reviewing a client’s laboratory results and notes a blood glucose result of 104 mg/dL (5.8 mmol/L). The reference range is 74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placing the client on contact precautions is not necessary for a blood glucose result of 104 mg/dL. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infectious agents, not for managing blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale
Starting a high-fiber diet is not indicated for a blood glucose result within the normal range. While a high-fiber diet can help manage blood glucose levels, it is not necessary for a result of 104 mg/dL56.
Choice C rationale
Administering an oral steroid is not appropriate for managing a blood glucose result of 104 mg/dL. Steroids can actually increase blood glucose levels and are not used for this purpose.
Choice D rationale
Making the client NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary for a blood glucose result of 104 mg/dL. This result is within the normal range, and no immediate dietary restrictions are required.
A nurse is reviewing a client’s orders and notes the following: Vital signs every 4 hours, regular diet, Cefazolin 1g IV every 8 hours for 5 days, Metformin 1,000 mg PO every 12 hours, and point of care blood glucose check every 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placing the client on contact precautions is not indicated based on the provided orders. Contact precautions are typically used for infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. difficile. The orders do not suggest the presence of such an infection.
Choice B rationale
Starting a high-fiber diet is not indicated. The client is already on a regular diet, and there is no mention of conditions that would necessitate a high-fiber diet, such as constipation or diverticulosis.
Choice C rationale
Administering an oral steroid is not indicated. The orders include Cefazolin, an antibiotic, and Metformin, an antidiabetic medication. There is no indication for an oral steroid, which is typically used for inflammatory conditions or autoimmune diseases.
Choice D rationale
Making the client NPO (nothing by mouth) is the correct action. This is likely due to the need for accurate blood glucose monitoring and the administration of IV antibiotics. Being NPO ensures that the client does not eat or drink anything that could interfere with these treatments.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to feed a client who has received a prescription to institute droplet precautions for a bacterial meningitis infection. The UAP requests a change in assignment, reporting having not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sending the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask is unnecessary for droplet precautions. Particulate filter masks, such as N95 respirators, are required for airborne precautions, not droplet precautions.
Choice B rationale
Instructing the UAP that a standard face mask is sufficient is correct. Droplet precautions require a standard surgical mask to prevent the transmission of infections like bacterial meningitis. This allows the UAP to safely provide care without the need for a particulate filter mask.
Choice C rationale
Determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is unnecessary for droplet precautions. This action is more relevant for airborne precautions, where particulate filter masks are required.
Choice D rationale
Advising the UAP to wear a standard face mask to obtain vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care is incorrect. A standard face mask is sufficient for all aspects of care under droplet precautions.
What times should the nurse measure vital signs? Select all that apply
Explanation
Choice A rationale
1500 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice B rationale
1600 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice C rationale
1800 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice D rationale
1000 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice E rationale
1200 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice F rationale
0800 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
Choice G rationale
1400 is a valid time for measuring vital signs as part of routine monitoring.
The nurse plans to use the Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation (SBAR) format of communication during which interaction?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Offering therapeutic support and comfort to a grieving family does not typically require the structured communication format of SBAR. This interaction is more about providing emotional support and empathy rather than conveying specific clinical information.
Choice B rationale
Obtaining clarification from a client’s healthcare power-of-attorney may involve detailed discussions, but it is not the primary context for SBAR. SBAR is designed for concise, structured communication about clinical situations.
Choice C rationale
Reporting a change in a client’s condition to the healthcare provider is the ideal scenario for using SBAR. This format ensures that critical information is communicated clearly and efficiently, which is essential for patient safety and effective clinical decision-making.
Choice D rationale
Completing discharge teaching to a client and family members involves providing comprehensive education and instructions, which is not the primary purpose of SBAR. SBAR is more suited for brief, focused communication about specific clinical issues.
To assess the quality of the client’s abdominal pain, which approach should the nurse use?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Providing a numeric pain scale helps quantify the intensity of pain but does not assess the quality of the pain. Quality refers to the characteristics and nature of the pain, which cannot be captured by a numeric scale alone.
Choice B rationale
Asking the client to describe the pain is the best approach to assess the quality of the pain. This allows the client to provide detailed information about the pain’s characteristics, such as its nature, location, and any associated symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Observing body language and movement can provide clues about pain but does not give a comprehensive understanding of the pain’s quality. Nonverbal cues are helpful but should be supplemented with the client’s verbal description.
Choice D rationale
Identifying effective pain relief measures is important for pain management but does not directly assess the quality of the pain. This step comes after understanding the pain’s characteristics.
The nurse notices a client grimacing while moving from the bed to a chair, but when asked about the pain, the client denies having any pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering PRN oral pain medication without further assessment may not be appropriate. The nurse needs to understand the cause of the grimacing before intervening with medication.
Choice B rationale
Asking the client what is causing the grimacing is the first step. This allows the nurse to gather more information and understand the client’s experience, which is essential for appropriate intervention.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring the client’s nonverbal behavior is important but should follow the initial assessment. Understanding the cause of the grimacing takes priority.
Choice D rationale
Reviewing the pain medications prescribed is a necessary step but should come after assessing the client’s current pain status and understanding the cause of the grimacing.
What times should the nurse measure vital signs? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring vital signs at 0800 is a standard practice in many healthcare settings to establish a baseline for the day.
Choice B rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1000 is not typically a standard time unless there is a specific clinical indication.
Choice C rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1200 helps monitor the client’s status around midday and can be important for assessing the effects of morning medications or treatments.
Choice D rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1400 is not typically a standard time unless there is a specific clinical indication.
Choice E rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1600 helps monitor the client’s status in the afternoon and can be important for assessing the effects of afternoon medications or treatments.
Choice F rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1800 is not typically a standard time unless there is a specific clinical indication.
Choice G rationale
Measuring vital signs at 2000 helps monitor the client’s status in the evening and can be important for assessing the effects of evening medications or treatments.
The nurse assesses an older adult client’s ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs). When observing the client ambulate, the nurse notes that the client’s posture is upright, and the gait is smooth and steady. Which action should the nurse take next?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Determining the client’s activity tolerance is important but should follow the initial assessment of the client’s ability to perform ADLs safely.
Choice B rationale
Teaching the client to shorten the stride to prevent falls is not necessary if the client’s gait is smooth and steady. This intervention is more appropriate for clients with gait instability.
Choice C rationale
Initiating a fall risk protocol for the client is not necessary if the client’s gait is smooth and steady. This protocol is more appropriate for clients with a higher risk of falls.
Choice D rationale
Recording the client’s ability to perform ADLs safely is the next appropriate action. This documentation is essential for the care plan and ensures that the client’s current status is accurately reflected.
The nurse is teaching the client to self-administer a dose of low molecular weight heparin SUBQ. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Expelling the air in the prefilled syringe prior to injection is not recommended for low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) administration. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe helps ensure the entire dose is delivered and prevents leakage of the medication. Removing the air bubble can lead to an incomplete dose and reduced efficacy of the medication.
Choice B rationale
Rotating injections between the abdomen and gluteal areas is not recommended for LMWH administration. The preferred site for LMWH injections is the abdominal area, specifically at least 2 inches (5.1 cm) from the umbilicus. This site provides better absorption and reduces the risk of complications such as hematoma formation.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the injection site to increase absorption is not recommended for LMWH administration. Massaging the site can cause bruising and hematoma formation, which can be painful and may affect the absorption of the medication. It is important to avoid massaging the injection site to minimize these risks.
Choice D rationale
Injecting in the abdominal area at least 2 inches (5.1 cm) from the umbilicus is the correct instruction for LMWH administration. This site provides optimal absorption and reduces the risk of complications. The abdominal area has a good blood supply, which helps in the effective absorption of the medication. Additionally, injecting at least 2 inches (5.1 cm) from the umbilicus helps avoid the umbilical area, which is more prone to bruising and discomfort.
A client voided clear, yellow urine.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The client is dehydrated. Dehydration typically results in concentrated, dark yellow urine. Clear, yellow urine indicates that the client is well-hydrated and not dehydrated. Dehydration would cause the urine to be more concentrated and darker in color due to the reduced volume of water in the body.
Choice B rationale
The client has a urinary tract infection. A urinary tract infection (UTI) often causes urine to appear cloudy, foul-smelling, or tinged with blood. Clear, yellow urine is not indicative of a UTI. UTIs are usually associated with symptoms such as pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.
Choice C rationale
The client has normal urine output. Clear, yellow urine is a sign of normal urine output and indicates that the client is well-hydrated. Normal urine color ranges from pale yellow to amber, depending on the concentration of the urine. Clear, yellow urine suggests that the client is drinking an adequate amount of water and maintaining proper hydration.
Choice D rationale
The client has kidney stones. Kidney stones can cause urine to appear cloudy, pink, red, or brown due to the presence of blood. Clear, yellow urine is not indicative of kidney stones. Symptoms of kidney stones include severe pain in the back or side, blood in the urine, and frequent urination. Clear, yellow urine suggests that the client does not have kidney stones.
Patient Data History and Physical Nurses’ Notes Laboratory Results Imaging Studies 1400 The client voided clear, yellow urine. 1500 The client is diaphoretic and flushed. Temperature elevated. Ibuprofen given as ordered. 1600 Flow Sheet Orders Blood glucose obtained. 1800 The client ate 75% of his tray for a total of 60 carbohydrates. 4 units of insulin lispro given. Review H and P, nurse’s notes, flow sheet, laboratory values, orders, and imaging studies. What times should the nurse measure vital signs? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1500 is crucial because the client is diaphoretic and flushed, indicating a potential change in condition that needs monitoring.
Choice B rationale
At 1600, blood glucose was obtained, and it is essential to measure vital signs to assess the client’s response to the insulin lispro given at 1800.
Choice C rationale
At 1800, the client ate 75% of his tray, and 4 units of insulin lispro were administered. Monitoring vital signs at this time helps evaluate the client’s metabolic response.
Choice G rationale
At 1400, the client voided clear, yellow urine. Measuring vital signs at this time provides a baseline for comparison with subsequent readings.
Choice H rationale
Measuring vital signs at 2000 ensures continuous monitoring and helps detect any late changes in the client’s condition.
The palliative care nurse receives a consult for a terminally ill client in the intensive care unit. The client is weak, mouth breathing, and refusing anything to eat or drink. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Recording the client’s daily weight is not the most immediate concern for a terminally ill client who is weak and mouth breathing. The priority is to address comfort and hydration.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining the client in high Fowler’s position can help with breathing but does not directly address the issue of dry mucous membranes due to mouth breathing and refusal to eat or drink.
Choice C rationale
Keeping mucous membranes moist is crucial for comfort and preventing complications such as dryness and cracking, which can lead to infections. This intervention directly addresses the client’s symptoms and promotes comfort.
Choice D rationale
Reporting any change in urine color is important but not the most immediate concern for a terminally ill client who is weak and mouth breathing. The priority is to address comfort and hydration.
A nurse administers an opioid analgesic to a postoperative client who also has severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement before leaving the client alone?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Removing dentures or other oral appliances is not the most critical intervention for a client with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) who has received an opioid analgesic. The priority is to ensure airway patency.
Choice B rationale
Elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle can help improve airway patency but is not as effective as applying the positive airway pressure device.
Choice C rationale
Applying the client’s positive airway pressure device (CPAP or BiPAP) is the most important intervention because it directly maintains airway patency and prevents respiratory compromise, which is crucial for a client with severe OSA2.
Choice D rationale
Putting and locking the side rails in place is important for safety but does not address the critical need to maintain airway patency in a client with severe OSA.
Patient Data History and Physical Nurses’ Notes Laboratory Results Imaging Studies Intake and Output (I&O) Urine Output Flow Sheet Orders 1400 600 mL Temperature 102°F (38.9°C) orally Review H and P, nurse’s notes, flow sheet, laboratory values, orders, and imaging studies. What times should the nurse measure vital signs? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1500 is essential because the client has a temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) at 1400, indicating a potential infection or other condition that needs monitoring.
Choice B rationale
At 1600, it is important to measure vital signs to assess the client’s response to any interventions provided for the elevated temperature.
Choice C rationale
At 1800, continuous monitoring of vital signs helps detect any changes in the client’s condition and ensures timely intervention if needed.
Choice G rationale
Measuring vital signs at 1400 provides a baseline for comparison with subsequent readings, especially given the elevated temperature.
Choice H rationale
Measuring vital signs at 2000 ensures continuous monitoring and helps detect any late changes in the client’s condition.
A healthcare organization requires nurses to chart by exception. Which assessment should the nurse document?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Active bowel sounds in the lower right quadrant are a normal finding and do not deviate from the established norm or expected outcome. Therefore, they do not need to be documented when charting by exception.
Choice B rationale
Contraction of the left pupil when light shines in the right eye is a normal consensual pupillary response. This is an expected finding and does not need to be documented when charting by exception.
Choice C rationale
Basilar lung sounds that are diminished in the left lung are not within normal limits and deviate from the expected outcome. This abnormal finding should be documented when charting by exception.
Choice D rationale
Capillary refill of 2 seconds in the lower right foot is a normal finding and does not deviate from the established norm or expected outcome. Therefore, it does not need to be documented when charting by exception.
Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a terminally ill client who is weak, mouth breathing, and refusing anything to eat or drink?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Recording the client’s daily weight is not the most immediate concern for a terminally ill client who is weak, mouth breathing, and refusing anything to eat or drink. The priority is to address the client’s comfort and hydration.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining the client in high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not directly address the issue of dry mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale
Keeping mucous membranes moist is crucial for the comfort of a terminally ill client who is mouth breathing and refusing anything to eat or drink. This intervention helps prevent dryness and discomfort.
Choice D rationale
Reporting any change in urine color is important but not the most immediate concern for a terminally ill client in this condition. The priority is to address the client’s comfort and hydration.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement before leaving a postoperative client with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) alone?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Removing dentures or other oral appliances may help prevent airway obstruction but is not the most critical intervention for a client with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
Choice B rationale
Elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle can help improve airway patency but is not as effective as applying the positive airway pressure device.
Choice C rationale
Applying the client’s positive airway pressure device (CPAP or BiPAP) is the most important intervention to maintain airway patency and prevent respiratory compromise in a client with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
Choice D rationale
Putting and locking the side rails in place is important for safety but does not directly address the airway management needs of a client with severe obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
Which assessment should the nurse document when charting by exception?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Active bowel sounds in the lower right quadrant are a normal finding and do not deviate from the established norm or expected outcome. Therefore, they do not need to be documented when charting by exception.
Choice B rationale
Contraction of the left pupil when light shines in the right eye is a normal consensual pupillary response. This is an expected finding and does not need to be documented when charting by exception.
Choice C rationale
Basilar lung sounds that are diminished in the left lung are not within normal limits and deviate from the expected outcome. This abnormal finding should be documented when charting by exception.
Choice D rationale
Capillary refill of 2 seconds in the lower right foot is a normal finding and does not deviate from the established norm or expected outcome. Therefore, it does not need to be documented when charting by exception.
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