Hesi rn health assessment
Total Questions : 57
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is caring for a 65-year-old male client in the clinic who presents with shortness of breath and a productive cough. The client has a history of smoking and was recently treated with antibiotics for pneumonia.
Exhibits
Nurses Notes (0700hrs): The client reports feeling increasingly short of breath over the past two days. He has a productive cough with greenish sputum. He denies chest pain but mentions feeling very fatigued. The client appears anxious and is using accessory muscles to breathe. He is sitting upright in bed and leaning forward slightly. The client states he has not been able to sleep well due to the cough. He also reports a decreased appetite over the past few days.
Physical Examination Results (0700hrs): The client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. He has a productive cough with greenish sputum. His skin is warm and dry to the touch. Breath sounds are diminished in the lower lobes with crackles heard bilaterally. The client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has a prolonged expiratory phase. His nail beds are slightly cyanotic. The client is diaphoretic and appears fatigued.
Vital Signs (0700hrs):
- Temperature: 38.3°C (100.9°F)
- Heart Rate: 110 bpm
- Respiratory Rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Blood Pressure: 140/90 mmHg
- Oxygen Saturation: 88% on room air
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is the first priority in this scenario. The client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, which indicates hypoxemia. Providing supplemental oxygen will help improve the client’s oxygenation and alleviate symptoms of shortness of breath. Ensuring adequate oxygenation is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress and potential complications.
Choice B rationale: Obtaining a sputum culture is important to identify the causative organism of the client’s respiratory infection and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. However, this action is not the immediate priority. Addressing the client’s hypoxemia by administering oxygen takes precedence to stabilize the client’s condition.
Choice C rationale: Administering an antipyretic medication can help reduce the client’s fever and improve comfort. However, this is not the immediate priority. The client’s hypoxemia and respiratory distress need to be addressed first by administering oxygen.
Choice D rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is important for maintaining hydration and helping to thin respiratory secretions. However, this action is not the immediate priority. The client’s hypoxemia and respiratory distress need to be addressed first by administering oxygen
A nurse is caring for a 57-year-old female client in the emergency department who presents with joint pain and stiffness in her hands. The client has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
Exhibits
Nurses’ Notes (0700hrs):
- The client reports experiencing joint pain and stiffness in her hands for the past few months.
- The pain is described as aching and is worse in the morning, lasting for about an hour before improving.
- The client mentions difficulty in performing daily tasks such as buttoning clothes and opening jars.
- There is visible swelling in the small joints of both hands.
- The client denies any recent trauma or injury to the hands.
- The client reports feeling fatigued and has had occasional low-grade fevers.
- The client is currently taking medication for hypertension and diabetes.
Medical History:
- Hypertension for 10 years, managed with medication.
- Type 2 diabetes for 5 years, managed with oral hypoglycemic agents.
- No known allergies.
- Family history of autoimmune diseases.
Vital Signs (0700hrs):
- Temperature: 37.8°C (100°F)
- Blood Pressure: 140/90 mmHg
- Heart Rate: 82 bpm
- Respiratory Rate: 18 breaths per minute
- Oxygen Saturation: 98% on room air
Physical Examination Results (0700hrs):
- Swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands.
- Limited range of motion in the affected joints.
- No deformities observed.
- Skin over the joints appears slightly erythematous.
- No signs of infection or injury.
Diagnostic Results (0700hrs):
- Complete Blood Count (CBC): WBC 8,000/mm³ (4,000-11,000/mm³), Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL (12-16 g/dL), Platelets 250,000/mm³ (150,000-450,000/mm³)
- Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): 40 mm/hr (0-20 mm/hr)
- C-Reactive Protein (CRP): 15 mg/L (0-10 mg/L)
- Rheumatoid Factor (RF): Positive
A nurse is analyzing the assessment findings. Which findings are indicative of rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply.
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Small joints of the hand are commonly affected in rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA typically involves the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, leading to pain, swelling, and stiffness in these areas.
Choice B rationale: Joint swelling is a hallmark of RA. The inflammation in RA causes synovial membrane thickening and fluid accumulation, leading to visible swelling in the affected joints.
Choice C rationale: Symmetrical involvement is characteristic of RA. The disease often affects the same joints on both sides of the body, which helps differentiate it from other types of arthritis.
Choice D rationale: Pain increases with motion is not specific to RA. While joint pain can worsen with movement in many types of arthritis, it is not a distinguishing feature of RA.
Choice E rationale: Heberden nodes are associated with osteoarthritis, not RA. These bony enlargements occur at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints and are not typically seen in RA.
Choice F rationale: Fatigue and fever are common systemic symptoms of RA. The chronic inflammation associated with RA can lead to generalized fatigue and occasional low-grade fevers.
Choice G rationale: Morning stiffness quickly resolves is not indicative of RA. In RA, morning stiffness typically lasts for more than an hour, whereas in other types of arthritis, it may resolve more quickly
A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old male client in the emergency department who sustained a fall from a ladder. The client has a closed and displaced fracture of the right ulna and radius. The nurse is monitoring the client closely for any changes in condition.
Exhibits
Nurses’ Notes (0800 hrs)
- The client is alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation.
- The right forearm is visibly deformed with significant swelling and bruising.
- The client reports severe pain rated 10/10, described as sharp and throbbing.
- Capillary refill in the right hand is 4 seconds.
- The skin on the right forearm is warm to the touch.
- Radial pulse is 2+ and palpable.
- The client denies any numbness or tingling in the right hand.
Vital Signs (0800 hrs)
- Temperature: 37.2°C (99°F)
- Heart Rate: 88 bpm
- Blood Pressure: 138/82 mmHg
- Respiratory Rate: 18 breaths/min
- Oxygen Saturation: 98% on room air
Diagnostic Results (0800 hrs)
- X-ray results: Closed and displaced fracture of the right ulna and radius.
- Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL (Reference range: 13.8-17.2 g/dL)
- White Blood Cell Count: 8,000/mm³ (Reference range: 4,500-11,000/mm³)
Provider’s Prescriptions (0800 hrs)
- 0.9% sodium chloride IV infusion at 75 mL/hr
- Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV push STAT once
- Obtain cast cart
- Neurovascular assessment every hour for the first 24 hours
A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old male client in the emergency department with a closed and displaced fracture of the right ulna and radius. Based on the exhibits provided, what is the priority nursing action at this time?
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Administering the prescribed morphine sulfate is important for managing the client’s severe pain. However, the priority action is to assess the neurovascular status of the affected limb to ensure there is no compromise
in circulation or nerve function.
Choice B rationale: Preparing the cast cart for immobilization is necessary to stabilize the fracture. However, before immobilization, it is crucial to perform a neurovascular assessment to identify any potential complications that may need
immediate attention.
Choice C rationale: Performing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority action. The client’s capillary refill time is prolonged (4 seconds), indicating potential compromised circulation. Assessing the neurovascular status will help determine if there is an urgent need for intervention to prevent further complications such as compartment
syndrome.
Choice D rationale: Initiating the IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is important for maintaining hydration and ensuring venous access. However, the immediate priority is to assess the neurovascular status of the affected limb to identify any urgent issues that need to be addressed.
When inspecting the client’s skin, the nurse observes several areas of ecchymosis on the trunk and extremities. Which information in the client’s history requires additional follow-up by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Working in a day care center may expose the client to minor injuries or infections, but it is not directly associated with widespread ecchymosis. Ecchymosis is more likely related to systemic issues rather than occupational hazards.
Choice B rationale
Adhering to a gluten-free diet is typically related to managing celiac disease or gluten intolerance, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract. Ecchymosis is not a typical manifestation of gluten intolerance.
Choice C rationale
Taking an oral anticoagulant medication increases the risk of bleeding, which can manifest as ecchymosis (bruising) on the skin. Anticoagulants such as warfarin or aspirin can interfere with the blood’s ability to clot, leading to bleeding into the skin and subsequent ecchymosis.
Choice D rationale
Dental surgery may involve procedures that could cause minor trauma to the oral tissues, leading to localized bruising around the mouth or jaw area. However, this localized bruising would typically not explain the presence of ecchymosis observed on the trunk and extremities.
When evaluating a client’s rectal bleeding, which findings should the nurse document?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While the number of blood clots expelled with each stool may be relevant in assessing the severity of bleeding, it does not provide as much information about the potential underlying causes of bleeding as documenting the color characteristics of the stool does.
Choice B rationale
Documenting evidence of internal hemorrhoids is important in assessing rectal bleeding, but it is not as fundamental as documenting the color characteristics of the stool. Internal hemorrhoids can be one potential cause of rectal bleeding, but other more serious conditions may also cause bleeding.
Choice C rationale
While gastrointestinal bleeding may have a distinct odor, documenting this alone does not provide as much diagnostic information as describing the color characteristics of the stool. Documenting odor may be important in some cases, but it is not as critical as documenting the color of the stool.
Choice D rationale
When evaluating rectal bleeding, documenting the color characteristics of each stool is crucial. Different colors of stool can indicate various underlying causes of bleeding. Bright red blood typically suggests lower gastrointestinal bleeding, while darker, tarry stools (melena) may indicate bleeding higher in the gastrointestinal tract.
Which skill should the nurse have an older client demonstrate to evaluate the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sorting a collection of socks may assess cognitive function and fine motor skills, but it does not directly evaluate the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL) such as bathing, dressing, or feeding.
Choice B rationale
Opening a bar soap package is a practical task that requires fine motor skills and dexterity, which are essential for performing activities of daily living (ADL) such as bathing and grooming.
Choice C rationale
Telephoning a family member assesses communication skills and cognitive function but does not directly evaluate the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL).
Choice D rationale
Reading a short paragraph assesses cognitive function and literacy skills but does not directly evaluate the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL).
To objectively confirm the presence of fever, before taking the client’s temperature, which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking the client to describe any other related symptoms is important for a comprehensive assessment but does not objectively confirm the presence of fever.
Choice B rationale
Placing the dorsum of the hand on the client’s forehead is a quick and practical method to assess for fever. It provides an initial subjective assessment of the client’s temperature before taking an accurate measurement with a thermometer.
Choice C rationale
Using both hands to hold and palpate the client’s hands may help assess for other symptoms such as clamminess or coldness but does not objectively confirm the presence of fever.
Choice D rationale
Lightly pinching a fold of skin over the client’s sternum assesses skin turgor and hydration status but does not objectively confirm the presence of fever.
While assessing the legs of an adult client, the nurse observes leathery-looking skin. The client reports aching, tired legs that swell if standing for long periods of time. To screen for venous insufficiency, the nurse should ask the client if they have experienced which subjective finding?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Painful symptoms alleviated by warmth are more indicative of conditions such as arthritis or muscle strain rather than venous insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Cool, pale skin below the knees is more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Decreased pain when legs are elevated is a common symptom of venous insufficiency. Elevating the legs helps reduce venous pressure and alleviate symptoms such as swelling and aching.
Choice D rationale
Deep, continuous pain in the calf muscles is more indicative of conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) rather than venous insufficiency.
To assess a client’s pupillary reaction to accommodation, which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Observing pupil size when focusing on a near object and then a far object assesses the accommodation reflex. This reflex involves the pupils constricting when focusing on a near object and dilating when focusing on a far object. This response is mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system and is a normal physiological reaction to changes in focal distance.
Choice B rationale
Determining if dilation of the pupils occurs when the room is darkened assesses the pupillary light reflex, not accommodation. The pupillary light reflex involves the pupils dilating in low light conditions to allow more light to enter the eye, which is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system.
Choice C rationale
Noting the speed of pupil constriction when a penlight is shined into the eye assesses the direct and consensual light reflexes. This test evaluates the function of the optic and oculomotor nerves and is not related to the accommodation reflex.
Choice D rationale
Comparing the shape of each of the pupils bilaterally with normal room light assesses for anisocoria or differences in pupil size, which can indicate neurological issues. This assessment does not evaluate the accommodation reflex.
While percussing the borders of the heart, the nurse picks up an area of dullness beginning at the 5th left intercostal space and moving upward to the 2nd left intercostal space at the sternal border. What do these findings indicate?
Explanation
ChoiceArationale
Abenignvariationwouldnottypicallypresentwithapatternofdullnessextendingfromthe 5th left intercostal space to the 2nd left intercostal space at the sternal border. This pattern suggests an abnormality rather than a benign variation.
ChoiceBrationale
Cardiacenlargementisindicatedbyanareaofdullnessextendingfromthe5thleftintercostal space to the 2nd left intercostal space at the sternal border. This finding suggests an enlarged heart, which can be due to conditions such as cardiomegaly or left ventricular hypertrophy.
ChoiceCrationale
Cardiacatrophyrefersto adecreaseinthesizeormassoftheheartmuscle,resultingina smaller than normal heart. The described findings indicate dullness extending upward, suggesting an enlargement rather than atrophy of the heart.
ChoiceDrationale
Anexpectedfindingwouldnottypicallypresentwiththedescribedpatternofdullness.The normal area of cardiac dullness is more limited and does not extend as described.
An older adult male arrives at the healthcare center with lower abdominal discomfort and frequent urination. The nurse asks the client to provide a urine sample. After an extended period of time, the client returns with only a few drops of urine. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Giving the client 8 ounces (236.5 mL) of water to drink may help in obtaining a urine sample, but it does not address the immediate concern of potential bladder distention.
Choice B rationale
Sending the sample for laboratory evaluation is not appropriate when the sample is insufficient. The nurse should first address the underlying issue of why the client could not provide an adequate sample.
Choice C rationale
Instructing the client to attempt to urinate again may not be effective if the client is experiencing bladder distention or another underlying issue preventing urination.
Choice D rationale
Evaluating the client for bladder distention is the most appropriate action. Bladder distention can cause lower abdominal discomfort and difficulty urinating. Assessing for distention can help determine if the client needs further intervention, such as catheterization.
While interviewing a newly admitted older female client, the nurse observes that the client ignores Questions asked by the nurse, and speaks loudly to her son who brought her to the hospital. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Orienting the client to her surroundings is important but does not address the immediate issue of potential hearing impairment, which may be causing communication difficulties.
Choice B rationale
Standing directly in front of the client and asking about any hearing loss is the first action to take. The client’s behavior of ignoring questions and speaking loudly to her son suggests a potential hearing impairment. Addressing this issue first can help improve communication and ensure the client understands the nurse’s questions.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a tuning fork to complete Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests is appropriate for assessing hearing acuity but should be done after initially addressing the potential hearing loss through direct questioning.
Choice D rationale
Performing a mental status exam to assess the client’s thought processes is important but should be done after addressing the potential hearing impairment, which may be the primary cause of the observed behavior.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment for a client with pyelonephritis who has urgency and burning while urinating.
Which finding indicates an expected response when the nurse percusses the costovertebral angle?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An audible thud without pain is a normal finding when percussing the costovertebral angle (CVA) in a healthy individual. This indicates that there is no inflammation or infection in the kidneys or surrounding tissues.
Choice B rationale
Sharp, severe pain upon percussion of the CVA is a classic sign of pyelonephritis. This pain is due to the inflammation and infection of the kidney, which causes tenderness in the area.
Choice C rationale
Rebound tenderness is typically associated with peritoneal irritation, such as in cases of appendicitis or peritonitis. It is not a common finding in pyelonephritis.
Choice D rationale
Rigidity and firmness are more indicative of muscle spasms or guarding, which can occur in conditions like peritonitis or severe abdominal pain, but not specifically in pyelonephritis.
The nurse asks a female client about the proverb “Glass Houses,” and she replies, “It will break the windows.”. Which conclusion should be documented about this client’s response?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Impaired memory would be indicated by difficulty recalling recent events or information, not by an inability to understand or interpret a proverb.
Choice B rationale
Impaired thinking is suggested by the client’s literal interpretation of the proverb “Glass Houses.”. This indicates difficulty with abstract thinking and understanding figurative language, which can be a sign of cognitive impairment.
Choice C rationale
Normal mental status for age would be indicated by the ability to understand and interpret common proverbs and idioms appropriately. The client’s response does not align with this.
Choice D rationale
Impaired concentration would be indicated by difficulty focusing on tasks or maintaining attention, not by a literal interpretation of a proverb.
A client presents with itching and pain in the left ear that started several days after beginning swim lessons. The nurse observes a discharge coming from the ear with a musty odor.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A translucent, pearly gray, and mobile tympanic membrane is a normal finding and does not align with the symptoms of itching, pain, and discharge.
Choice B rationale
A red, edematous ear canal with no visualization of the tympanic membrane is indicative of otitis externa, commonly known as “swimmer’s ear.”. This condition is characterized by inflammation and infection of the external ear canal, often following swimming.
Choice C rationale
A thickened and bulging tympanic membrane is more indicative of otitis media with effusion or acute otitis media, where fluid or pus collects behind the eardrum.
Choice D rationale
A retracted and non-mobile tympanic membrane is typically associated with eustachian tube dysfunction or negative middle ear pressure, not with the symptoms described.
The nurse completes palpation of the thoracic region on an adult client. Which finding is considered normal for this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
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Tenderness upon palpation of the thoracic region is an abnormal finding and may indicate inflammation, infection, or other pathological conditions.
Choice B rationale
A thrill is a palpable vibration over the chest wall, often associated with turbulent blood flow due to cardiac abnormalities. It is not a normal finding in the thoracic region.
Choice C rationale
Non-tenderness upon palpation of the thoracic region is a normal finding, indicating the absence of inflammation, infection, or other abnormalities.
Choice D rationale
Crepitus is a crackling or popping sensation felt under the skin, often due to the presence of air in the subcutaneous tissue. It is not a normal finding and may indicate conditions such as pneumothorax or subcutaneous emphysema.
While completing an admission assessment for a client with gastrointestinal bleeding, the nurse inspects the perianal area and anus. Which findings indicate a normal appearance of the anus?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypotonic tone of the anal sphincter is an abnormal finding and may indicate neurological or muscular disorders affecting the sphincter control.
Choice B rationale
A dimpled area above the anus can be a sign of a congenital condition such as a pilonidal sinus or other abnormalities.
Choice C rationale
Increased pigmentation and coarse skin around the anus are normal findings and are due to the natural variation in skin texture and color in this area.
Choice D rationale
A flap of tissue at the sphincter, also known as a skin tag, can be a normal finding but may also indicate previous hemorrhoids or other conditions.
The nurse should anticipate difficulty locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) in which client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 75-year-old with a pneumothorax and a chest tube may have a displaced PMI due to the pneumothorax, but it is not necessarily difficult to locate. The chest tube may also cause some displacement, but it is not the primary factor affecting PMI location.
Choice B rationale
A 54-year-old who is 5 feet (152.4 cm) tall and weighs 300 pounds (136.1 kg) is likely to have difficulty locating the PMI due to the increased adipose tissue. Obesity can make it challenging to palpate the PMI as the excess tissue can obscure the heart’s apex.
Choice C rationale
A 2-year-old who is demonstrating diaphragmatic breathing may have a PMI that is slightly higher and more medial than in adults, but it is generally not difficult to locate.
Choice D rationale
A 45-year-old long-distance runner with a body mass index (BMI) of 18 kg/m² is likely to have a more prominent PMI due to a leaner body composition and a potentially enlarged heart from athletic conditioning.
The nurse observes the presence of brittle, concave curves to the nails of a client on assessment. Which information should the nurse obtain from the client that may explain the appearance of the nails?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Diabetes mellitus can lead to various complications affecting the nails, such as yellowing or thickening due to poor circulation and infections, but it is not typically associated with brittle, concave (spoon-shaped) nails.
Choice B rationale
Iron deficiency anemia is often associated with brittle, spoon-shaped (concave) nails, known as koilonychia. This condition affects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to changes in the nail beds.
Choice C rationale
Coronary heart disease can lead to changes in the nails due to poor circulation, but it is not commonly associated with brittle, concave nails. Other nail changes might include clubbing or cyanosis.
Choice D rationale
Recent candida infection can affect the nails, causing them to become discolored, thickened, or separated from the nail bed, but it does not typically cause the nails to become brittle and concave.
Which assessment finding supports the client statement, “My feet swell all the time?”
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Positive Homan’s sign bilaterally indicates deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but does not directly correlate with swelling.
Choice B rationale
2+ pitting edema of ankles bilaterally is a direct indication of swelling and supports the client’s statement about their feet swelling all the time.
Choice C rationale
Pedal pulses weak and thready indicate poor arterial circulation but do not directly confirm swelling.
Choice D rationale
Capillary refill in both feet greater than 3 seconds indicates poor peripheral perfusion but does not directly correlate with swelling.
During assessment of a client’s abdomen, the nurse observes that the client’s umbilicus is depressed and below the surface of the abdomen. Which action should the nurse take in response to this observation?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Palpating the area for masses may be indicated if there are other signs or symptoms suggestive of abdominal pathology, but a depressed umbilicus alone is not typically an indication for palpation.
Choice B rationale
Observing the midline for scarring may be relevant if there are signs of previous surgical procedures or other abdominal interventions, but the presence of a depressed umbilicus does not necessarily indicate scarring or previous surgery.
Choice C rationale
Asking about recent abdominal trauma could potentially cause changes in the appearance of the umbilicus, such as bruising or swelling, but it is not the most likely explanation for a depressed umbilicus below the surface of the abdomen.
Choice D rationale
A depressed umbilicus below the surface of the abdomen is a normal anatomical variation in some individuals, particularly those with a more slender build or a deeper abdominal cavity. It does not typically indicate pathology or require further intervention.
An adult client exhibits an allergic reaction to an insect bite. The nurse should observe the client’s skin for which finding?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Fissuring refers to deep cracks or splits in the skin. While it can occur in various skin conditions, it is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction to an insect bite.
Choice B rationale
Excoriation refers to a scratch or abrasion on the surface of the skin, often resulting from scratching due to itching. While this can occur secondary to an allergic reaction, it is not a primary characteristic of such reactions.
Choice C rationale
Papules are small, raised, solid bumps on the skin that are typically less than 1 centimeter in diameter. They can be a result of various skin conditions, but they are not specifically associated with allergic reactions to insect bites.
Choice D rationale
Wheals, also known as hives or urticaria, are raised, red or skin-colored welts on the skin that often itch and can appear rapidly in response to an allergen such as an insect bite. They are a characteristic feature of allergic reactions and are caused by the release of histamine.
Heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the ______ and S2 at the _.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The right side of the heart is not specifically associated with the loudest heart sounds for S1 or S213.
Choice B rationale
The center of the heart is not specifically associated with the loudest heart sounds for S1 or S213.
Choice C rationale
The apex of the heart is where S1 is loudest. S1 is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves and is best heard at the apex.
Choice D rationale
The base of the heart is where S2 is loudest. S2 is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves and is best heard at the base.
Choice E rationale
The left side of the heart is not specifically associated with the loudest heart sounds for S1 or S213.
A client is being evaluated for environmental allergies. While examining the client’s nasal passage, which finding suggests to the nurse that the client is experiencing allergic rhinitis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intranasal edema and swelling of turbinates are classic signs of allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory response to allergens, leading to swelling and congestion in the nasal passages. The turbinates, which are structures inside the nose that help filter and humidify the air, become swollen due to the inflammatory response, causing symptoms such as nasal congestion, runny nose, and sneezing.
Choice B rationale
Purulent secretions from the eyes and nares are more indicative of an infection, such as bacterial sinusitis or conjunctivitis, rather than allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis typically involves clear, watery secretions rather than purulent (pus-like) discharge.
Choice C rationale
Snoring and bilateral, pale gray nodules are suggestive of nasal polyps, which can occur in chronic rhinosinusitis but are not specific to allergic rhinitis. Nasal polyps are non-cancerous growths that can obstruct nasal passages and cause breathing difficulties.
Choice D rationale
Eye tearing and thick yellow nasal drainage are more characteristic of an infection, such as bacterial sinusitis or conjunctivitis. Allergic rhinitis usually causes clear, watery secretions and may involve eye symptoms like itching and tearing, but not thick yellow drainage.
During an admission assessment, which approach should the nurse use to assess a client’s speech patterns?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asking the client to complete a common proverb or saying can provide some insight into cognitive function and language skills, but it may not comprehensively assess speech patterns. This method may also be influenced by the client’s familiarity with specific proverbs.
Choice B rationale
Having the client repeat a phrase containing alliteration can assess specific aspects of speech, such as articulation and fluency. However, it may not provide a holistic assessment of speech patterns and may not be suitable for all clients.
Choice C rationale
Noting the client’s responses during the initial interview allows the nurse to observe the client’s spontaneous speech patterns, including articulation, fluency, rate, and coherence, during the natural flow of conversation. This approach provides a comprehensive assessment of speech abilities in various contexts.
Choice D rationale
Listening while the client reads items listed on the menu can assess reading ability and pronunciation, but it may not fully capture speech patterns in spontaneous conversation or communication. Additionally, it may not be relevant to clients who may have difficulty reading or have limited literacy skills.
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