HESI RN milestones exam
Total Questions : 45
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA parent brings a preteen daughter to the clinic for her first female examination. During the health assessment, the nurse should implement which technique to determine if the client has reached the age of menarche?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The presence of a supernumerary breast nipple is not related to the onset of menarche and is not a common assessment in determining sexual maturity.
B. Temporary gynecomastia is more commonly observed in adolescent boys rather than preteen girls.
C. While age can provide a rough estimate, it is not as accurate as a physical assessment of sexual maturity.
D. The Tanner staging is a reliable method used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents. It includes evaluating the development of breasts, pubic hair, and other secondary sexual characteristics, which can help determine if the client has likely reached menarche.
While assessing placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the nurse aspirates cloudy green fluid into a syringe. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Withdrawing and reinserting the NGT should only be done if the tube is misplaced or dislodged.
B. Sending the fluid to the lab is unnecessary unless there is a specific concern, such as infection.
C. Connecting the NGT to wall suction should only be done after confirming proper placement.
D. Determining the pH value of the aspirated fluid helps verify that the NGT is correctly positioned in the stomach. Gastric fluid typically has a pH of 1 to 5, confirming proper placement.
A client taking temazepam informs the nurse of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of "hungover" the next day. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While additional sleep may be helpful, it does not address the root cause of the hangover effect from temazepam.
B. A benzodiazepine antagonist is typically used in cases of overdose, not for managing next-day drowsiness.
C. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms. The nurse should advise the client to taper off the medication gradually under medical supervision to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the "hangover" effect.
D. Stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and is not recommended.
A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has diabetes mellitus about preventing the long-term complications of retinopathy and nephropathy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Examining feet daily is important for preventing foot complications, such as ulcers, in diabetics but is not directly related to preventing retinopathy and nephropathy.
B. Wearing compression stockings is not specifically recommended for preventing retinopathy or nephropathy in diabetes.
C. Maintaining stable blood glucose levels is crucial for preventing or slowing the progression of diabetic complications such as retinopathy and nephropathy. Good glycemic control minimizes the damage to blood vessels in the eyes and kidneys.
D. While regular eye exams are important for detecting retinopathy early, maintaining stable blood glucose levels is key to preventing the development of complications in the first place.
A client who is 12 weeks pregnant has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse provide related to insulin dosages?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Insulin requirements generally increase as pregnancy progresses due to the growing placenta and hormones that cause insulin resistance, not fluctuate significantly.
B. Insulin requirements typically begin to increase around 18 weeks of gestation and continue to rise until approximately 36 weeks due to increased insulin resistance caused by placental hormones.
C. While insulin needs do increase, they do not typically double or quadruple during the second trimester. The increase is more gradual.
D. Insulin requirements increase during pregnancy and may decrease after delivery as the placenta is no longer present, removing the source of insulin resistance.
A client with heart failure reports increased shortness of breath. The nurse administered furosemide 20 mg IV 60 minutes ago. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Administering albuterol may help if the shortness of breath is due to bronchospasm, but the priority in heart failure is to assess fluid status and respiratory function.
B. Listening to lung fields is crucial to assess for signs of pulmonary edema, which is a common complication in heart failure. This assessment helps determine the effectiveness of the furosemide and whether further intervention is needed.
C. Measuring urine output is important but secondary to assessing respiratory status.
D. Reviewing serum potassium is important but not as urgent as assessing the client's respiratory status.
While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular, round, brownish-colored lesions on the client's hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Lubricating lotion may be helpful for dry skin but is not necessary for these lesions.
B. A biopsy is not typically required for benign lesions such as senile lentigines, unless there is suspicion of malignancy.
C. Recent international travel is unrelated to the development of senile lentigines.
D. Senile lentigines, also known as "liver spots" or "age spots," are common in older adults. They are benign lesions that result from sun exposure and aging. Recording their presence is appropriate for documentation, as they are generally not harmful.
The client's laboratory results indicate that the serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take?
Reference Range: Potassium (K+) [3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L)]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The combination of glucose and insulin is used to shift potassium into cells, which would lower serum potassium levels further; this is not appropriate for treating hypokalemia.
B. Increasing dietary intake of potassium is important but not sufficient to correct a serum potassium level as low as 2.5 mEq/L, which requires more immediate intervention.
C. A potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low and can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The healthcare provider should be informed immediately to initiate potassium replacement therapy, likely via intravenous infusion.
D. Hourly urinary output measurements may be useful but are not the immediate priority in treating severe hypokalemia.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement when administering medications?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Elevating the head of the bed is important for swallowing and preventing aspiration but is secondary to ensuring correct patient identification.
B. Using at least two different methods to identify the client is the most important step to prevent medication errors. This ensures that the correct medication is given to the correct patient.
C. Providing water is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the correct patient is identified.
D. Rechecking the medications against the MAR is important but should be done in conjunction with proper patient identification.
An older client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit after falling and fracturing the left hip. The nurse is reviewing written preoperative instructions with the client and spouse. Which action should the nurse implement while providing these instructions?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Turning on overhead lights ensures that the client can see the instructions clearly, which is particularly important for older adults who may have visual impairments. Adequate lighting helps improve comprehension and reduces the risk of misunderstandings.
B. Standing behind the client may cause confusion or discomfort. It is better to face the client while communicating.
C. Handouts should be written at a lower reading level, typically around the 5th to 6th grade, to ensure that most clients can understand them, especially older adults.
D. Background music may be distracting rather than helpful during the provision of important instructions.
While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular, round, brownish-colored lesions on the client's hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Lubricating lotion may be helpful for dry skin but is not necessary for these lesions.
B. A biopsy is not typically required for benign lesions such as senile lentigines, unless there is suspicion of malignancy.
C. Recent international travel is unrelated to the development of senile lentigines.
D. Senile lentigines, also known as "liver spots" or "age spots," are common in older adults. They are benign lesions that result from sun exposure and aging. Recording their presence is appropriate for documentation, as they are generally not harmful.
Which client is at greatest risk for aspiration?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, significantly increases the risk of aspiration, especially when consuming a full liquid diet that may not be easily controlled in the mouth. Aspiration can lead to serious complications, such as aspiration pneumonia.
B. Oxygen administration via a face mask does not typically increase the risk of aspiration unless the client has underlying conditions affecting swallowing.
C. Sensory aphasia affects communication but does not directly impact the swallowing mechanism, so it poses less risk of aspiration compared to dysphagia.
D. While clients with a nasogastric tube may be at some risk for aspiration, the risk is lower compared to a client with dysphagia actively consuming liquids.
The nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 1.5 mg IV to an anxious preoperative client. The medication is available in a 2 mg/mL vial. Which action should the nurse perform with the remainder of the medication?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Storing the remainder of the medication in a locked drawer is not appropriate for controlled substances that are not fully administered.
B. Lorazepam is a controlled substance, and any unused portion must be disposed of according to hospital policy, typically by discarding it with a witness. The presence of another nurse to witness the discarding process ensures proper documentation and compliance with legal regulations.
C. Withdrawing the medication into a syringe and labeling it is unsafe as it may lead to medication errors or misuse.
D. Simply throwing the vial into the trash, even with another nurse present, does not comply with the proper disposal procedure for controlled substances.
When systematically auscultating a client's anterior breath sounds, the nurse should begin by placing the stethoscope over which location?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The clavicle is an important landmark but not the ideal starting point for auscultating breath sounds.
B. The sternum is also not the correct starting location for breath sound auscultation.
C. The aortic site is unrelated to lung auscultation.
D. The lung apex, located above the clavicle, is the correct location to begin auscultating anterior breath sounds. This systematic approach ensures all areas of the lungs are assessed for normal and abnormal breath sounds.
A client who is in shock is receiving a continuous IV infusion of a sympathomimetic dopamine. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Explanation
Rationale:
A.Dopamine, a sympathomimetic agent, can cause significant changes in blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure every 15 minutes is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to detect any adverse effects, such as hypertension or hypotension, promptly.
B.Monitoring CBC is important but not as immediately critical in this situation as monitoring blood pressure.
C.While reviewing creatinine and BUN results is important for overall kidney function, it is not the most immediate priority when administering dopamine for shock.
D. Measuring urinary output is important for assessing renal perfusion but should be done more frequently than daily in a client receiving dopamine for shock.
A client is being evaluated for environmental allergies. While examining the client's nasal passage, which finding suggests to the nurse that the client is experiencing allergic rhinitis?
Explanation
Rationale:
A.Allergic rhinitis is characterized by intranasal edema and swelling of the turbinates due to inflammation caused by allergens. This is a common physical finding in clients with allergic rhinitis.
B.Purulent secretions typically indicate an infection rather than an allergic condition.
C.Bilateral, pale gray nodules might suggest nasal polyps, which are associated with chronic sinusitis rather than acute allergic rhinitis.
D.Eye tearing is common in allergic rhinitis, but thick yellow nasal drainage suggests an infection rather than an allergic reaction.
The nurse is caring for a client who is taking the mood stabilizer divalproex sodium. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Renal creatinine clearance is important in assessing kidney function but is not directly related to divalproex sodium therapy.
B. While CBC monitoring is essential, especially for detecting thrombocytopenia, liver function tests are more critical in this context.
C. A chemistry panel is valuable but does not specifically monitor for the primary risks associated with divalproex sodium.
D. Divalproex sodium (valproate) can cause hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests (LFTs) is crucial. Regular LFTs help detect early signs of liver damage, which can be a serious adverse effect of this medication.
The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux, and osteoarthritis. While performing a bedside assessment the nurse observes the client is alert and oriented, but is exhibiting signs of jaundice. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider about which scheduled medication?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses or with prolonged use, is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can lead to jaundice. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent further liver damage.
B. Captopril, an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, is not commonly associated with jaundice or liver dysfunction.
C. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor used for GERD, is less likely to cause liver damage compared to acetaminophen.
D. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can have many side effects, but hepatotoxicity is not among the most common, making acetaminophen the most concerning drug in this context.
The nurse is preparing a bladder irrigation for an adult client who has a long-term indwelling urinary catheter. The urine is cloudy with fibrin clots and sediment. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Clamping the catheter before irrigation is not recommended as it could cause urine retention and increase the risk of infection.
B. An infusion pump is not typically used for catheter irrigation as manual control is preferred for monitoring flow and pressure.
C. Using a sterile syringe to gently irrigate the catheter with 20 mL of normal saline is the correct approach. This method helps to clear fibrin clots and sediment without applying excessive pressure, which could damage the bladder or catheter.
D. Power flushing with 60 mL could apply excessive pressure, potentially causing trauma to the bladder or urethra.
The nurse is administering the muscle relaxant baclofen by mouth (PO) to a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Baclofen should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause withdrawal symptoms. The client should consult their healthcare provider before using other antispasmodic.
B. Monitoring intake and output every 8 hours is not specific to baclofen administration.
C. Baclofen can cause dizziness, drowsiness, and hypotension. Advising the client to move slowly and cautiously when rising and walking helps prevent falls or injury due to these side effects.
D. While muscle strength assessment is important, it is not required every 4 hours and does not specifically address the common side effects of baclofen.
A male client has been receiving the antibiotic gentamicin sulfate, IV piggyback every 12 hours for several days. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the client may be experiencing an adverse effect of gentamicin?
Reference Range: White Blood Cell [5000 to 10,000/mm3 (5 to 10 x 109/L)]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A WBC count within the normal range does not indicate an adverse effect of gentamicin.
B. Gentamicin is more likely to increase BUN levels due to nephrotoxicity rather than decrease them.
C. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can lead to hearing loss. Decreased hearing is a significant adverse effect that should be promptly addressed.
D. Photophobia is not a common side effect of gentamicin.
An older adult client with heart failure comes to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client's signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client's care?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The history of coronary artery bypass surgery is important but does not directly relate to the current symptoms.
B. A recent colonoscopy is not relevant to the client's current symptoms.
C. Long-term use of digoxin and furosemide is highly significant as these medications can lead to digoxin toxicity, especially in the context of dehydration or renal insufficiency. Symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
D. A history of depression is important but not immediately relevant to the current symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
While assessing a client who takes acetaminophen for chronic pain, the nurse observes that the client's skin looks yellow in color. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Jaundice is not related to oxygen saturation, so using a pulse oximeter is not appropriate in this situation.
B. Reducing the dose of acetaminophen may be necessary, but this decision should be made after evaluating liver function.
C. Jaundice, characterized by yellowing of the skin, can indicate liver dysfunction, possibly due to acetaminophen overuse or toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.
D. Checking capillary glucose levels is not relevant to the assessment of jaundice.
In assessing a client's neck, the nurse hears a blowing swish when auscultating the area over the left carotid artery, but hears no sound over the right carotid artery. How should the nurse document this finding?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pulse volume and bruit are different assessments; pulse volume is not graded in the context of auscultation findings.
B. A bruit is an abnormal sound heard over an artery, indicating turbulent blood flow, often due to stenosis or narrowing. Documenting a "left carotid artery bruit present" accurately reflects the findings.
C. The presence of a bruit does not necessarily mean the pulse is strong or that there is occlusion.
D. A bruit indicates turbulent flow, not necessarily complete occlusion.
In preparing to perform colostomy care, the nurse observes that a client's colostomy stoma has become a dark red to bluish color. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Applying antibiotic ointment is not appropriate for this situation as the issue is likely compromised blood flow, not infection.
B. Checking oxygen saturation is not related to the color change of the stoma.
C. Switching to non-latex supplies is important for clients with latex allergies but is not relevant to the immediate problem.
D. A dark red to bluish color of the stoma suggests compromised blood flow and possible ischemia, which requires immediate medical attention. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to address this potentially serious complication.
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