HILL Collage Pharmacology ALL
Total Questions : 74
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreWhich of the following instructions should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the patient to increase the next dosage if a dose is missed is not appropriate. This can lead to overdosage, which may result in adverse effects and complications. It's essential for the patient to take the medication as prescribed and not make up for missed doses in this manner.
Choice B rationale:
Ampicillin is an antibiotic and, as such, will not reduce the effectiveness of birth control pills. This is a misconception. Patients on antibiotics are often advised to use an additional form of contraception, such as condoms, to prevent unintended pregnancy, but the effectiveness of birth control pills is not reduced by ampicillin.
Choice D rationale:
There is no need to avoid skin care products like moisturizers while on penicillin therapy. Ampicillin and other penicillin antibiotics do not typically interact with these products. Therefore, this advice is not relevant to the patient's treatment.
Which ongoing assessment would the nurse complete?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Monitoring for the appearance of adverse reactions is a crucial aspect of managing a patient with TB undergoing treatment. TB medications can have side effects, and early detection of adverse reactions is essential for timely intervention. Some common adverse effects of TB drugs include hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and gastrointestinal disturbances. By closely monitoring the patient, the nurse can ensure prompt action if these side effects occur, improving the patient's overall care and safety.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring the patient's vital signs every 24 hours may be part of standard nursing care, but when managing a patient with TB, the primary focus should be on monitoring for adverse reactions to the TB medications. Vital signs are important but not the most critical aspect of care in this specific situation.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the patient's history of contacts is essential for identifying potential sources of TB transmission. However, it is more related to the initial assessment and diagnosis of TB rather than ongoing assessment during treatment. The primary focus during treatment is monitoring the patient's response to medication and any adverse reactions.
Choice D rationale:
Using Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) to administer TB drugs is a standard practice to ensure treatment adherence. However, ongoing assessment should focus on monitoring for adverse reactions and treatment effectiveness rather than the administration method, which is usually established at the beginning of treatment.
Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sulfonamides can increase the risk of crystalluria, which may lead to kidney stones. Adequate fluid intake can help dilute the urine and reduce the risk of crystalluria and kidney stone formation. This is a relevant and appropriate response by the nurse.
Choice B rationale:
Sulfonamides can make the skin more sensitive to sunlight, increasing the risk of sunburn. However, increasing fluid intake is primarily to prevent kidney stone formation, not a reaction to sunlight.
Choice C rationale:
While maintaining adequate hydration does help prevent dehydration, this answer does not directly address the potential side effects or risks associated with sulfonamide use. It is a bit too general and doesn't provide specific information related to the medication.
Choice D rationale:
Sulfonamides can affect blood counts in some cases, but maintaining adequate fluid intake is not primarily related to preventing low blood counts. It's more about mitigating the specific side effects associated with sulfonamide use, such as crystalluria and kidney stones.
The nurse understands that this is the result of which organism?
Explanation
The physician prescribes antineoplastic drug therapy to the client.
Which of the following would the nurse include in the discussion about the prescribed therapy?
Explanation
Which preadministration assessment would be most important for the nurse to complete with respect to this effect?
Explanation
The nurse should teach the client about which of the following common adverse reactions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Constipation Constipation is not a common adverse reaction to ciprofloxacin. While gastrointestinal side effects can occur with this medication, constipation is not typically associated with it. Ciprofloxacin is more likely to cause diarrhea or other gastrointestinal issues rather than constipation.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea Nausea is a common adverse reaction to ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to feelings of nausea. It is important to educate the client about this potential side effect, as nausea can affect their compliance with the medication.
Choice C rationale:
Sedation Sedation is not a common adverse reaction to ciprofloxacin. This medication is not known for causing drowsiness or sedation. In fact, it is often prescribed to be taken twice a day, and sedation could interfere with the client's daily activities.
Choice D rationale:
Dry mouth Dry mouth is not a common adverse reaction to ciprofloxacin. While dry mouth can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically associated with ciprofloxacin. Instead, ciprofloxacin is more likely to cause gastrointestinal symptoms and potential taste alterations.
When obtaining the client's drug history, the client reports using an herbal product in the past to prevent and relieve the symptoms.
Which of the following would the client most likely identify?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ginger Ginger is not typically used to prevent or relieve symptoms of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is more commonly known for its anti-nausea properties and may be used for gastrointestinal discomfort, but it is not a well-known remedy for UTIs.
Choice B rationale:
Feverfew Feverfew is an herbal remedy often used for headaches and migraines, not for UTIs. It has anti-inflammatory properties and is not typically associated with urinary tract health.
Choice C rationale:
Saw palmetto Saw palmetto is sometimes used for symptoms related to the prostate, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), but it is not commonly associated with preventing or relieving UTI symptoms. Its primary use is for male reproductive health, not UTIs.
Choice D rationale:
Cranberry Cranberry is a well-known and widely recognized natural remedy for preventing and relieving symptoms of UTIs. It is believed to help by preventing the adhesion of bacteria to the urinary tract wall, making it easier for the body to flush out the bacteria. It is important for the client to be aware of this option, as cranberry products, such as cranberry juice or supplements, can be a helpful adjunct to treatment or prevention of UTIs.
Which of the following antitubercular drugs would the nurse expect the client to receive during this phase?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Isoniazid Isoniazid is one of the first-line drugs used in the initial treatment phase of tuberculosis (TB). It is a key component of the standard regimen for TB treatment. Isoniazid is highly effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium responsible for TB, and it plays a critical role in the initial phase of treatment to rapidly reduce the bacterial load.
Choice B rationale:
Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin is not a first-line drug for the treatment of tuberculosis. While it has antibacterial properties, it is not considered one of the primary agents for TB treatment. It is more commonly used to treat other types of bacterial infections, such as urinary tract infections.
Choice C rationale:
Gentamycin Gentamycin is not typically used as a first-line treatment for TB. It is reserved for specific situations, such as drug-resistant TB cases, and is not part of the standard initial treatment regimen for TB.
Choice D rationale:
Clindamycin Clindamycin is not a first-line drug for the treatment of tuberculosis. It is primarily used to treat anaerobic bacterial infections and is not a standard part of TB treatment protocols.
Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client about possible adverse reactions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sedation Sedation is not typically associated with laxative use. Laxatives are primarily used to relieve constipation by promoting bowel movements, and sedation is not a common adverse reaction.
Choice B rationale:
Renal Impairment Renal impairment is a significant consideration when prescribing laxatives, especially those that may be excreted by the kidneys. In patients with renal impairment, there is a risk of drug accumulation, which could lead to potential adverse effects. The nurse should educate the client about this possibility to ensure their safety.
Choice C rationale:
Cramps Cramps are a possible adverse reaction to laxative use. Laxatives can cause gastrointestinal discomfort, including cramping and abdominal pain. However, it's essential to inform the client of this potential side effect so they can be prepared for it.
Choice D rationale:
Hepatic Impairment Hepatic impairment is not typically associated with adverse reactions to laxative use. Laxatives primarily affect the gastrointestinal system and do not directly impact the liver. Therefore, hepatic impairment is not a major concern when using laxatives.
The nurse reviews the client's medical record for possible contraindications for use.
Which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible contraindication?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Pseudomembranous colitis Pseudomembranous colitis is a severe inflammation of the colon that can be caused by the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile, often associated with antibiotic use. Antidiarrheal drugs should not be administered in cases of infectious diarrhea, as they can worsen the condition. The nurse should be alert to this contraindication to avoid potential harm to the client.
Choice B rationale:
Type 1 diabetes Type 1 diabetes is not typically a contraindication for antidiarrheal drug use. However, it is essential to consider the overall health of the client and the potential causes of their diarrhea. In some cases, diabetes-related issues could be relevant, but it is not a direct contraindication for antidiarrheal drugs.
Choice C rationale:
Liver disease Liver disease is not a direct contraindication for antidiarrheal drug use. While the liver plays a role in drug metabolism, antidiarrheal drugs primarily affect the gastrointestinal system and do not directly harm the liver. However, individual patient factors and liver function should be considered.
Choice D rationale:
Renal Disease Renal disease is not typically a contraindication for antidiarrheal drug use. These drugs primarily affect the gastrointestinal system and do not have a direct impact on the kidneys. However, in patients with severe renal disease, it is essential to consider their overall health and the potential causes of their diarrhea.
Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client's medical record.
The nurse would withhold the drug and contact the primary health care provider if the client's history revealed which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hemolytic anemia Hemolytic anemia is a contraindication for the use of ferrous sulfate, which is an iron supplement. Iron can exacerbate hemolysis in individuals with certain types of hemolytic anemia, leading to further breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, the nurse should withhold the drug and consult with the primary healthcare provider to explore alternative treatments.
Choice B rationale:
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is not a direct contraindication for ferrous sulfate. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a separate condition that requires different treatments. These two conditions are not typically interrelated in terms of treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Anemia of chronic kidney disease Anemia of chronic kidney disease is a condition where the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. While ferrous sulfate may not be the first-line treatment for this type of anemia, it is not a strict contraindication. The decision to use iron supplements would depend on the individual patient's needs and the primary healthcare provider's recommendations.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension Hypertension is not a contraindication for ferrous sulfate use. While patients with high blood pressure should be monitored closely, iron supplementation does not directly affect blood pressure regulation. The nurse should consider potential interactions with other medications the client may be taking, but hypertension alone is not a reason to withhold ferrous sulfate.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Constipation is a potential adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate (Feosol), an iron supplement. Iron can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including constipation, due to its effect on slowing down bowel movements and hardening of stool. It is important for the nurse to discuss this with the client before administering the drug to ensure the client is aware of this potential side effect.
Choice B rationale:
Fluid retention is not a common adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In fact, iron supplements are more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues like constipation rather than fluid retention.
Choice C rationale:
Fatigue is not a direct adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In some cases, iron deficiency can lead to fatigue, but this is usually a result of the underlying condition and not the medication itself.
Choice D rationale:
Clay-colored stools are not a typical adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. This may indicate a potential issue with liver function or biliary obstruction but is not directly related to the iron supplement.
Which adverse reactions would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sedation is not a common adverse reaction to antiretroviral therapy. Antiretroviral medications are primarily used to treat HIV and do not typically cause sedation.
Choice B rationale:
Bruising is a potential adverse reaction to antiretroviral therapy. Some antiretroviral medications can cause blood-related side effects, such as decreased platelet count, which can result in easy bruising and bleeding. It's important for the nurse to include this in the teaching plan to ensure the client is aware of this potential side effect.
Choice C rationale:
Altered taste is not a common adverse reaction to antiretroviral therapy. While some medications can cause taste disturbances, this is not a typical side effect of antiretroviral drugs.
Choice D rationale:
Constipation is not a common adverse reaction to antiretroviral therapy. Antiretroviral medications primarily target the HIV virus and do not typically cause gastrointestinal issues like constipation.
When discussing the use of this herb, the nurse would alert the client that contact dermatitis is a possibility if the client has a hypersensitivity to which of the following plants?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ragweed is a common allergenic plant that can cause contact dermatitis in individuals with hypersensitivity to it. Chamomile tea, when related to potential allergies, is often cross-reactive with ragweed due to the presence of similar allergenic proteins. The nurse should alert the client to the possibility of contact dermatitis if they have a hypersensitivity to ragweed.
Choice B rationale:
Foxglove is not commonly associated with contact dermatitis and is not related to the use of chamomile tea. Foxglove is known for its cardiac glycosides and is used in the treatment of heart conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Black Cohosh is not typically associated with contact dermatitis and is not directly related to the use of chamomile tea. Black Cohosh is used for various medicinal purposes, including the management of menopausal symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Lavender is not commonly associated with contact dermatitis and is not typically related to the use of chamomile tea. Lavender is known for its calming and aromatic properties and is used in various skincare and aromatherapy products.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Antihypertensive therapy. Rationale: Antihypertensive medications are used to manage high blood pressure. While they may have some side effects, they do not significantly increase the risk of candidal infections. Candidal infections are primarily caused by an overgrowth of Candida, a type of yeast, and are often associated with factors that disrupt the body's normal microbial balance. Antihypertensive drugs do not directly affect the body's susceptibility to candidal infections.
Choice B rationale:
Antibiotics. Rationale: Antibiotics are known to disrupt the normal microbial balance in the body, including the balance of bacteria and yeast. This disruption can lead to an overgrowth of Candida and an increased risk of candidal infections. Antibiotics kill not only harmful bacteria but also beneficial bacteria that help keep Candida in check. This imbalance can result in candidal overgrowth, causing infections such as oral thrush or vaginal yeast infections.
Choice C rationale:
BetaBlockers. Rationale: Beta-blockers are a class of medications commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. They work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, primarily on the heart. While beta-blockers have various side effects, including potential impacts on blood sugar and lipid levels, they do not significantly increase the risk of candidal infections. Candidal infections are more closely associated with medications that disrupt the microbial balance in the body.
Choice D rationale:
Diuretics. Rationale: Diuretics are medications that promote diuresis or increased urine production. They are used to manage conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. Diuretics primarily affect fluid balance in the body and do not directly increase the risk of candidal infections. While diuretics may lead to electrolyte imbalances, they are not associated with candidal overgrowth. Candidal infections are more often linked to antibiotics or immunosuppressive medications.
Which of the following precautions should the nurse instruct the client to follow to reduce the effects of photosensitivity?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Wear protective clothing and sunscreen when outside. Rationale: Sulfonamide antibiotics, a type of medication mentioned in the question, can increase the skin's sensitivity to sunlight, leading to photosensitivity reactions. To reduce the effects of photosensitivity, the client should be instructed to wear protective clothing that covers the skin and to apply sunscreen with a high sun protection factor (SPF) when going outdoors. This helps shield the skin from harmful UV rays, reducing the risk of sunburn and other adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Increase fluid intake. Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is a general recommendation for clients taking sulfonamide antibiotics to minimize the risk of crystalluria, a side effect that can result from inadequate hydration. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine and can lead to kidney stones. While staying hydrated is essential, it is not specifically related to reducing photosensitivity, which is the focus of this question.
Choice C rationale:
Avoid lights while indoors. Rationale: Avoiding lights while indoors is not a standard precaution to reduce the effects of photosensitivity caused by sulfonamide antibiotics. Photosensitivity primarily refers to the skin's heightened sensitivity to sunlight. Being indoors under regular lighting conditions should not significantly impact photosensitivity. The key precautions are related to outdoor sun exposure.
Choice D rationale:
Wear protective footwear. Rationale: Wearing protective footwear is not a standard precaution to reduce photosensitivity effects caused by sulfonamide antibiotics. Photosensitivity primarily affects the skin, not the feet. While protective footwear may be recommended in specific situations, such as in a construction or industrial setting, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of photosensitivity reactions.
Which of the following precautions should the nurse instruct the client to follow to reduce the effects of photosensitivity?
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Increase fluid intake. Rationale: As mentioned earlier, increasing fluid intake is a general recommendation for clients taking sulfonamide antibiotics to prevent crystalluria. It is essential to stay well-hydrated, but it is not directly related to reducing photosensitivity, which is the focus of this question.
Choice C rationale:
Choice D rationale:
Wear protective footwear. Rationale: Wearing protective footwear is not a standard precaution to reduce photosensitivity effects caused by sulfonamide antibiotics. The focus of photosensitivity precautions is on protecting the skin from sunlight, not the feet. Protective footwear may be relevant in specific situations but is not directly related to reducing the risk of photosensitivity reactions.
The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?
Explanation
Which of the following would be the best option for the drug?
Explanation
Explanation
The nurse also observes that the client has developed lesions in the form of red wheals on the neck and the mouth.
The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
Explanation
Explanation
Explanation
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tapeworm. Tapeworm infections are caused by parasites known as cestodes. Antiprotozoal drugs are primarily used to treat infections caused by protozoa, which are a different type of pathogen. Tapeworms are not protozoa; they are classified as helminths. Therefore, using antiprotozoal drugs for tapeworm infections is not indicated.
Choice B rationale:
Aspergillosis. Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus species. Antiprotozoal drugs are not effective against fungal infections. They are designed to target protozoa, which are a different group of microorganisms. Therefore, antiprotozoal drugs are not indicated for the treatment of aspergillosis.
Choice D rationale:
Cryptococcal meningitis. Cryptococcal meningitis is a fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans. Like aspergillosis, it is caused by a fungus, not a protozoan parasite. Antiprotozoal drugs are not appropriate for the treatment of fungal infections. Therefore, the use of antiprotozoal drugs is not indicated for cryptosporidium meningitis.
Choice C rationale:
Giardiasis. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia. Antiprotozoal drugs, such as metronidazole, are effective in treating giardiasis. These drugs target protozoa and disrupt their cellular functions, making them a suitable choice for the treatment of giardiasis.
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