International College of Health Sciences ICHS OB Pediatrics s
Total Questions : 72
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreThe nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation are not typical signs of pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis usually presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, a palpable olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen, and signs of dehydration.
Choice B rationale:
A rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are characteristic signs of pyloric stenosis. The hypertrophied pyloric muscle obstructs the passage of food from the stomach to the duodenum, leading to gastric distention, visible peristalsis, and vomiting. The infant may appear hungry after vomiting and will continue to feed, leading to weight loss.
Choice C rationale:
Visible peristalsis and weight loss are consistent with pyloric stenosis. The visible peristalsis occurs as the infant tries to force the stomach contents through the narrowed pyloric sphincter. Weight loss is a result of poor feeding and vomiting.
Choice D rationale:
Distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not typical findings in pyloric stenosis. Constipation suggests a lower gastrointestinal issue, while pyloric stenosis primarily affects the upper gastrointestinal tract.
Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Weighing the infant every day on the same scale at the same time is crucial in monitoring excess fluid volume in congestive heart failure. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common sign of worsening heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps in early detection and timely intervention.
Choice B rationale:
Notifying the physician when weight gain exceeds more than 20 g/day might be too late for intervention. Daily weight monitoring is essential to detect trends and intervene promptly to manage excess fluid volume.
Choice C rationale:
Placing the infant in a car seat to minimize movement is not directly related to managing excess fluid volume in congestive heart failure. It is essential for safety during transportation but does not address the nursing diagnosis.
Choice D rationale:
Administering digoxin as ordered by the physician is a medical intervention for congestive heart failure. While important, the nursing diagnosis is related to excess fluid volume, and the focus should be on nursing interventions such as monitoring daily weights.
The nurse observes some children in the playroom. Which play situation exhibits the characteristics of parallel play?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Kimberly and Amanda sharing clay to each make things represents cooperative play, not parallel play. Cooperative play involves interaction and collaboration between children, whereas parallel play involves children playing side by side without interacting.
Choice B rationale:
Brian playing with his truck next to Kristina playing with her truck demonstrates parallel play. In parallel play, children play independently but alongside others, showing interest in what others are doing but without direct interaction.
Choice C rationale:
Adam playing a board game with Kyle, Steven, and Erich represents cooperative play, not parallel play. Cooperative play involves shared activities and collaboration, while parallel play involves independent activities in proximity to others.
Choice D rationale:
Danielle playing with a music box on her mother's lap is an example of solitary play, where a child plays alone without regard to others. Solitary play is common in younger children and is different from parallel play.
A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes. The nurse should base the explanation on what information?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Self-monitoring of blood glucose is not recommended primarily because it is a less expensive method of testing. The main reasons for self-monitoring include empowering the child to manage their diabetes, allowing for more frequent monitoring without hospital visits, and facilitating prompt adjustments in insulin or dietary intake.
Choice B rationale:
Self-monitoring of blood glucose can be quite accurate if done correctly. Accuracy depends on proper technique, calibration of the glucometer, and regular maintenance. It is comparable to laboratory testing when performed accurately.
Choice C rationale:
Children with diabetes need to learn to manage their condition as they grow older. Teaching them self-monitoring skills empowers them to take control of their health and make informed decisions about insulin dosages, dietary choices, and physical activity levels.
Choice D rationale:
While parental involvement is essential, self-monitoring of blood glucose is primarily about empowering the child to manage their diabetes. Parents play a supportive role in educating and supervising, but the child's active involvement is crucial for long-term management.
The nurse assessing a premature newborn infant auscultates a continuous machinery-like murmur. This finding is associated with which congenital heart defect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a systolic ejection murmur best heard at the upper left sternal border. It does not typically produce a continuous machinery-like murmur. Pulmonary stenosis results from narrowing at the pulmonary valve, obstructing blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
Choice B rationale:
A continuous machinery-like murmur is characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). PDA is a congenital heart defect where the ductus arteriosus, a fetal blood vessel that should close after birth, remains open, allowing continuous blood flow between the aorta and pulmonary artery. This murmur is often best heard in the left infraclavicular region.
Choice C rationale:
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) typically produces a harsh holosystolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border. VSD is a hole in the septum separating the ventricles, allowing blood to flow from the higher-pressure left ventricle to the lower-pressure right ventricle.
Choice D rationale:
Coarctation of the aorta causes a murmur due to increased blood flow across the aortic valve. However, this murmur is not continuous and is usually systolic and best heard in the back over the left scapula.
Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Abdominal respirations do not directly predispose toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections. Abdominal respirations are a normal breathing pattern in toddlers, transitioning from the diaphragmatic breathing seen in infants. This change is due to the toddler's increased chest wall compliance and stronger intercostal muscles, facilitating more efficient breathing.
Choice B rationale:
Slower pulse and respiratory rates in toddlers compared to infants are part of normal physiological development. Toddler's heart rates range from 70 to 110 beats per minute, and respiratory rates range from 20 to 30 breaths per minute. These rates are considered normal for toddlers and do not predispose them to frequent infections.
Choice C rationale:
Toddlers do have less efficient defense mechanisms than infants, making them more susceptible to infections. This is due to the immature immune system in toddlers, which is still developing and learning to respond to various pathogens. However, this choice is not the most important factor predisposing toddlers to frequent infections; other factors play a more significant role.
Choice D rationale:
The presence of short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue in toddlers is the most important factor predisposing them to frequent infections such as otitis media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections. These anatomical features make it easier for bacteria and viruses to enter and infect the respiratory and ear passages, leading to recurrent infections.
During a funduscopic examination of a school-age child, the nurse notes a brilliant, uniform red reflex in both eyes. The nurse should recognize that this is:
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A brilliant, uniform red reflex observed during a funduscopic examination is a normal finding. It indicates the absence of any abnormalities in the retina or lens. A normal red reflex is essential in ruling out serious conditions such as retinoblastoma, cataracts, or other eye abnormalities.
Choice B rationale:
An abnormal red reflex, especially if it is not uniform and brilliant, could indicate underlying eye conditions and would require referral to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation. However, in this scenario, the description provided indicates a normal finding, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C rationale:
A uniform red reflex does not suggest a possible visual defect that requires vision screening. A normal red reflex indicates the absence of significant visual abnormalities, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale:
Small hemorrhages in the eye would not present as a brilliant, uniform red reflex. Hemorrhages typically appear as dark spots or patches and would be an abnormal finding requiring further evaluation. This choice is incorrect in the context of the described scenario.
What should a nurse advise the parents of a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is not eating as a result of a minor illness?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Adjusting the insulin dosage without proper medical guidance can be dangerous for a child with diabetes. Giving half the regular morning dose without considering the child's current blood glucose levels can lead to hypoglycemia, a potentially life-threatening condition. This choice is unsafe and incorrect.
Choice B rationale:
Substituting simple carbohydrates or calorie-containing liquids for solid foods might help maintain the child's blood glucose levels to some extent. However, it's crucial to ensure that the child's overall nutritional needs are met. In cases of illness, monitoring blood glucose levels and consulting with a healthcare provider are essential. This choice, while not the best option, could be a temporary measure if the child is not eating solid foods due to illness.
Choice C rationale:
Giving the child plenty of unsweetened, clear liquids is the most appropriate choice. This helps prevent dehydration, a common concern when a child is not eating or drinking adequately due to illness. Clear liquids, such as water, clear broths, or oral rehydration solutions, can help maintain hydration and provide some electrolytes. It's essential for parents to monitor the child's condition closely and seek medical advice if the child's condition worsens.
Choice D rationale:
Taking the child directly to the emergency department is not necessary if the child is only experiencing a minor illness and is not eating. However, if the child shows signs of severe dehydration, persistent vomiting, or other concerning symptoms, seeking medical attention promptly is crucial. In the absence of these severe symptoms, choice C is the most appropriate course of action.
Parents of a school-age child with hemophilia ask the nurse, "Which sports are recommended for children with hemophilia?" Which sport should the nurse recommend?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Soccer involves running, sudden stops, and potential collisions, which can increase the risk of injuries and bleeding in children with hemophilia. While moderate exercise is generally beneficial for individuals with hemophilia, activities with a high risk of trauma, like soccer, should be avoided to prevent bleeding episodes. Therefore, soccer is not the recommended sport for children with hemophilia.
Choice B rationale:
Swimming is a highly recommended sport for children with hemophilia. It is a low-impact exercise that improves cardiovascular health, strength, and flexibility without putting excessive stress on the joints. Swimming also reduces the risk of bleeding episodes, making it a safe and suitable choice for individuals with hemophilia.
Choice C rationale:
Basketball involves rapid movements, jumping, and physical contact, all of which can increase the risk of injuries and bleeding in children with hemophilia. Engaging in sports that involve frequent collisions or physical impact can lead to joint bleeds and other complications in individuals with hemophilia. Therefore, basketball is not the recommended sport for children with hemophilia.
Choice D rationale:
Football, similar to soccer and basketball, involves intense physical contact and rapid movements, making it a high-risk sport for children with hemophilia. Engaging in such activities significantly increases the likelihood of bleeding episodes and injuries. Therefore, football is not the recommended sport for children with hemophilia.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a child and notes the presence of Koplik's spots. In which communicable disease are Koplik's spots present?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
A nurse providing care to a child diagnosed with chronic otitis media with effusion (OME) will assess for which sign/symptom?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fever as high as 40° C (104° F). Fever is not typically a common sign or symptom of chronic otitis media with effusion (OME). Chronic OME is characterized by the presence of fluid in the middle ear without signs of acute infection. While fever might occur in acute otitis media, it is not a typical feature of chronic OME.
Choice B rationale:
Severe pain in the ear. Severe pain in the ear is more commonly associated with acute otitis media rather than chronic otitis media with effusion. Chronic OME usually presents with a sensation of fullness or hearing loss in the affected ear due to the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, but it does not cause severe ear pain.
Choice C rationale:
Nausea and vomiting. Nausea and vomiting are not typical signs or symptoms of chronic otitis media with effusion. These symptoms are more likely to occur in conditions affecting the inner ear or vestibular system, not in chronic OME.
Choice D rationale:
A feeling of fullness in the ear. A feeling of fullness in the ear is a common sign of chronic otitis media with effusion. The accumulation of fluid in the middle ear can cause a sense of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. This sensation might be accompanied by mild hearing loss.
It is now recommended that children with asthma who are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently to monitor for increased risk.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Cough. While a cough can be a side effect of inhaled steroids, it is not a significant concern compared to other potential risks. Long-term use of inhaled steroids can lead to slowed growth in children, making choice C the correct answer.
Choice B rationale:
Osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a potential side effect of long-term use of inhaled steroids. These medications can affect bone density and increase the risk of osteoporosis, especially in individuals who are already at risk due to other factors such as age, gender, or family history.
Choice C rationale:
Slowed growth. Long-term use of inhaled steroids can lead to slowed growth in children. It's important for healthcare providers to monitor the growth of children with asthma who are taking these medications regularly. If slowed growth is observed, healthcare providers might consider adjusting the treatment plan.
Choice D rationale:
Cushing's syndrome. Cushing's syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of long-term steroid use. It is characterized by a collection of signs and symptoms caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol (a steroid hormone). While it's a potential risk, slowed growth is a more common concern in children taking long-term inhaled steroids.
The nurse is assessing a child with acute epiglottitis. Examining the child's throat by using a tongue depressor might precipitate which symptom or condition?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Inspiratory stridor. Inspiratory stridor, a high-pitched sound heard during inhalation, is a common symptom of acute epiglottitis. It is caused by the swelling and inflammation of the epiglottis, which can partially obstruct the airway and create a stridor sound during breathing.
Choice B rationale:
Complete obstruction. Using a tongue depressor to examine the throat of a child with acute epiglottitis can potentially lead to a complete airway obstruction. The epiglottis, which is already swollen, can block the airway entirely, leading to respiratory distress and potentially a life-threatening situation.
Choice C rationale:
Sore throat. A sore throat is a common symptom of various respiratory tract infections, including acute epiglottitis. However, the use of a tongue depressor can worsen the swelling and potentially lead to complete airway obstruction, which is a more immediate concern.
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory tract infection. Acute epiglottitis itself is a severe respiratory tract infection, specifically involving the epiglottis. Using a tongue depressor might exacerbate the condition, leading to airway obstruction, but it is not the cause of the respiratory tract infection.
When caring for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature, which appropriate nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Give tepid water baths to reduce fever. For an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature, tepid water baths can be used to help reduce fever. Tepid water (neither too hot nor too cold) can provide comfort and aid in reducing the body temperature. It is important not to use cold water, as it can cause shivering and increase the body's heat production.
Choice B rationale:
Encourage food intake to maintain caloric needs. Encouraging food intake is essential to ensure the infant receives adequate nutrition. However, if the infant has a reduced appetite due to illness, it's important to offer easily digestible foods and fluids to prevent dehydration. Offering small, frequent meals or breast milk/formula feeds can help maintain caloric needs.
Choice C rationale:
Have the child wear heavy clothing to prevent chilling. It is not advisable to have the child wear heavy clothing, especially if they have a fever. Fever is the body's natural response to infection and helps in fighting off the illness. Overdressing the child can trap heat and worsen the fever. Instead, it's better to dress the child in lightweight, breathable clothing to promote heat dissipation.
Choice D rationale:
Give small amounts of favorite fluids frequently to prevent dehydration. Giving small amounts of favorite fluids frequently is a suitable nursing intervention for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature. It helps prevent dehydration, especially if the infant is not feeding well due to illness. Offering oral rehydration solutions or breast milk/formula in small, frequent amounts can maintain hydration status.
A nurse is conducting discharge teaching to parents about the care of their infant after cardiac surgery. The nurse instructs the parents to notify the physician of what conditions occur. (Select all that apply.).
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest. A respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest is higher than the normal range for infants. Normal respiratory rate for infants is typically between 30-60 breaths per minute. An elevated respiratory rate could indicate respiratory distress or other underlying issues, and it's important to notify the physician for further evaluation.
Choice C rationale:
Temperature above 37.7° C (100° F). A temperature above 37.7° C (100° F) is considered a fever in infants. Fever can be a sign of infection or other underlying problems. It's important to monitor the infant's temperature regularly, and if it exceeds the normal range, medical attention should be sought.
Choice E rationale:
Turning blue or bluer than normal. Cyanosis, indicated by the infant turning blue or bluer than normal, is a concerning sign that suggests inadequate oxygenation. It can be a sign of respiratory distress or heart problems. Immediate medical attention is needed if an infant shows signs of cyanosis to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions.
The nurse is talking to a parent of an infant with heart failure about feeding the infant. Which statement about feeding the child is correct?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing the caloric density of the infant's formula may be necessary in certain situations, but it is not specific to managing heart failure. Heart failure in infants often leads to poor feeding, so increasing the amount of formula given at each feeding is more appropriate.
Choice B rationale:
Feeding the baby every 2 hours may be necessary for infants, but it is not directly related to managing heart failure. The crucial aspect in heart failure management is optimizing the nutritional intake, which may involve adjusting the amount of formula given to the infant.
Choice D rationale:
Placing a nasal oxygen cannula on the infant during and after each feeding might be necessary if the infant has respiratory distress, but it is not a general recommendation for all infants with heart failure. The focus should be on improving feeding to enhance caloric intake.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. In heart failure, infants may have difficulty feeding due to fatigue and increased energy demands. Increasing the amount of formula at each feeding can help ensure that the infant receives an adequate calorie intake, promoting growth and development. Monitoring the infant's weight gain and overall condition is essential to assess the effectiveness of this intervention.
What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old diagnosed with Graves' disease?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Relieving constipation is a priority nursing goal for a child diagnosed with Graves' disease. Graves' disease can lead to changes in bowel movements, and addressing constipation can help improve the child's overall comfort and well-being.
Choice B rationale:
Allowing the adolescent to make decisions about medication is essential for promoting autonomy, but it is not the priority in this situation. Addressing the immediate physical symptoms and discomfort takes precedence.
Choice C rationale:
Verbalizing the importance of monitoring for medication side effects is important for patient education, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Constipation can significantly impact the child's quality of life and needs prompt attention.
Choice D rationale:
Developing alternative educational goals is not relevant to the immediate physical symptoms presented in the question.
What is the nurse's first action when planning to teach the parents of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assessing the parents' anxiety level and readiness to learn is the first action when planning to teach the parents of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD). Understanding the parents' emotional state and readiness to receive information is crucial in tailoring the teaching approach effectively.
Choice B rationale:
Gathering literature for the parents is a valuable resource, but it should come after assessing the parents' needs and readiness to learn. Providing information without considering the parents' emotional state and readiness may not be as effective.
Choice C rationale:
Securing a quiet place for teaching is important for minimizing distractions, but it is not the first action. Assessing the parents' readiness to learn comes before setting up the teaching environment.
Choice D rationale:
Discussing the plan with the nursing team is important for coordination, but it is not the first action. Assessing the parents' emotional state and readiness to learn guides the development of an effective teaching plan.
When caring for a child with Kawasaki disease, the nurse should understand that principle of care?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The child's fever in Kawasaki disease is typically unresponsive to antibiotics. The disease primarily affects blood vessels and can lead to the development of coronary artery aneurysms. Antibiotics are not the mainstay of treatment for Kawasaki disease.
Choice B rationale:
Kawasaki disease does not primarily involve the joints. It is a systemic vasculitis that affects medium-sized arteries throughout the body, including the coronary arteries. Joint involvement is not a characteristic feature of this condition.
Choice C rationale:
Aspirin is actually a crucial part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease. High-dose aspirin therapy (80-100 mg/kg/day) is administered until the child is afebrile, then the dose is reduced and continued for several weeks to prevent blood clots and inflammation in the coronary arteries.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct answer. The therapeutic management of Kawasaki disease includes the administration of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and aspirin. IVIG helps reduce inflammation and prevent coronary artery abnormalities, while high-dose aspirin is used for its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet effects. This combination of treatments has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of coronary artery complications associated with Kawasaki disease.
A school-age child is admitted in vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. The child's care should include which intervention? (Select all that apply.).
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Correction of acidosis is not the primary intervention for vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. The crisis primarily involves pain due to the obstruction of blood flow by sickled cells. Correcting acidosis is not a direct treatment for this condition.
Choice B rationale:
Adequate hydration is essential in managing vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. Proper hydration helps prevent dehydration, which can worsen the crisis and lead to complications. Hydration helps maintain blood flow and prevent further sickling of red blood cells.
Choice C rationale:
Pain management is a crucial intervention for a child with vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. Pain results from tissue ischemia caused by sickled red blood cells. Effective pain management, often with analgesics, helps improve the child's comfort and quality of life during the crisis.
Choice D rationale:
Administration of heparin is not indicated for vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clot formation. In sickle cell crisis, the primary issue is the obstruction of blood flow by sickled cells, not the formation of clots. Administering heparin may not address the underlying problem and can lead to potential complications.
Choice E rationale:
Replacement of factor VIII is not relevant to vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. Factor VIII is a protein involved in blood clotting and is primarily used in the treatment of hemophilia, a different condition unrelated to sickle cell crisis.
The nurse is meeting a 5-year-old child for the first time and would like the child to cooperate during a dressing change.
The nurse decides to do a simple magic trick using gauze.
This should be interpreted as:
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is not inappropriate because of the child's age. Simple magic tricks, especially those using familiar items like gauze, can capture the attention and cooperation of young children. Age-appropriate distractions can be highly effective in engaging pediatric patients during medical procedures.
Choice B rationale:
Using a simple magic trick with gauze is a way to establish rapport with the child. Children often respond well to creative and playful approaches, making them feel more comfortable and cooperative during medical procedures. Establishing rapport is crucial for gaining trust and ensuring a positive healthcare experience.
Choice C rationale:
It is not too distracting when cooperation is important. Distractions, when used judiciously, can enhance cooperation during medical procedures. The key is to strike a balance between engaging the child and ensuring the procedure's effectiveness. A simple magic trick with gauze is generally not overly distracting and can be a helpful technique in pediatric nursing.
Choice D rationale:
Adequate time is important, but the appropriateness of the magic trick is not solely dependent on time. While having adequate time is beneficial for implementing creative approaches, the effectiveness of using a magic trick depends more on the nurse's skill, the child's response, and the overall context of the situation.
What should the nurse stress in a teaching plan for the mother of an 11-year-old diagnosed with ulcerative colitis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preventing the spread of illness to others is not the primary focus when teaching a mother about ulcerative colitis. Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease and is not contagious. The primary focus of education should be related to managing the child's symptoms and improving their quality of life.
Choice B rationale:
Nutritional guidance and preventing constipation are essential aspects of managing ulcerative colitis. Proper nutrition helps support the child's overall health and well-being. Additionally, preventing constipation is crucial in managing symptoms and reducing discomfort for children with ulcerative colitis.
Choice C rationale:
Teaching daily use of enemas may be relevant in specific cases or during acute flare-ups, but it is not a general teaching point for all children with ulcerative colitis. Enema usage should be based on the healthcare provider's recommendation and tailored to the individual child's needs.
Choice D rationale:
Coping with stress and avoiding triggers is important in managing ulcerative colitis. Stress and certain triggers can exacerbate symptoms and lead to flare-ups. Teaching coping mechanisms and identifying triggers can help the child and their family manage the condition effectively.
A child is diagnosed with juvenile hypothyroidism. The nurse should expect to assess which symptoms are associated with hypothyroidism. (Select all that apply.).
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Weight loss is not a typical symptom associated with juvenile hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism often leads to weight gain due to a slowed metabolism. Weight loss is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive.
Choice B rationale:
Sleepiness or fatigue is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. The thyroid hormone plays a vital role in regulating metabolism and energy levels. In hypothyroidism, the lack of thyroid hormone can lead to fatigue and excessive sleepiness.
Choice C rationale:
Diarrhea is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is more commonly associated with constipation due to the slowing down of the digestive system.
Choice D rationale:
Puffiness around the eyes, also known as periorbital edema, is a symptom of hypothyroidism. Thyroid hormones help regulate fluid balance in the body. In hypothyroidism, the decreased levels of thyroid hormones can lead to fluid retention, causing puffiness, especially around the eyes.
Choice E rationale:
Limited hair growth, or thinning of hair, is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. Thyroid hormones are essential for hair growth and maintenance. In hypothyroidism, hair follicles can become thin, leading to hair loss and limited growth.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is suspected in a toddler. Which test is essential in establishing this diagnosis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Bronchoscopy is not the essential test for diagnosing cystic fibrosis. Bronchoscopy is a procedure that allows the healthcare provider to visualize the airways and lungs but is not the primary test for cystic fibrosis diagnosis. Cystic fibrosis is primarily diagnosed through genetic testing and sweat chloride testing.
Choice B rationale:
Serum calcium levels are not specific to cystic fibrosis diagnosis. Serum calcium levels are typically used to assess calcium balance in the body and are not directly related to cystic fibrosis diagnosis.
Choice C rationale:
Urine creatinine levels are not specific to cystic fibrosis diagnosis. Urine creatinine levels are often used to assess kidney function and muscle breakdown but are not diagnostic for cystic fibrosis.
Choice D rationale:
Sweat chloride test is essential in establishing the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is characterized by the abnormal transport of chloride across cell membranes, leading to salty sweat. The sweat chloride test measures the amount of chloride in the sweat and is a key diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. Values above a certain threshold (typically 60 mmol/L) are suggestive of cystic fibrosis.
A 4-year-old child who weighs 44 lbs is diagnosed with Streptococcal Pharyngitis and is prescribed Penicillin. 40 mg/kg/day, twice a day for 10 days. The suspension is written as 400 mg/5 ml. Calculate one dose in mg.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The dosage prescribed for the child is 40 mg/kg/day, twice a day for 10 days. The child weighs 44 lbs, which is approximately 20 kg (1 lb = 0.45 kg). Therefore, the total daily dosage would be 40 mg/kg * 20 kg = 800 mg. This is split into two doses, so each dose would be 400 mg, not 400 mg per 5 ml as in the suspension.
Choice B rationale:
As explained above, the total daily dosage is 800 mg, split into two doses of 400 mg each. The suspension is written as 400 mg/5 ml, so one dose would be 400 mg.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the dosage based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage regimen.
Choice D rationale:
This choice is incorrect because it suggests a higher dose than what is prescribed. The correct dosage, based on the child's weight and prescription, is 800 mg per day, split into two doses of 400 mg each.
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