Choice A reason: This statement is false. If the client develops facial swelling, which is a sign of angioedema, she should stop taking the medication and seek emergency care. Reducing the dose will not prevent a life-threatening reaction.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which can cause fetal harm or death if taken during pregnancy. The client should use effective contraception and inform the provider if she plans to conceive or suspects pregnancy.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Captopril can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with milk or dairy products, as they can reduce its absorption and effectiveness.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Captopril may cause a dry cough, hypotension, hyperkalemia, or renal impairment, but it is unlikely to cause anaphylaxis. An epi pen is not indicated for this medication.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure after a myocardial infarction. It can reduce the risk of mortality and recurrent events in these clients.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. Labetalol is not contraindicated in smokers, although smoking can increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases and reduce the effectiveness of antihypertensive drugs. The client should be advised to quit smoking for better health outcomes.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Labetalol is one of the preferred drugs for treating hypertension in pregnancy, as it has a low risk of adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. It can prevent complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and fetal growth restriction.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. Labetalol is contraindicated in clients with asthma, as it can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate respiratory symptoms. It can also mask the signs of hypoglycemia in diabetic clients. The nurse should question the order and suggest an alternative drug for this client.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. When mixing NPH and regular insulin, the nurse should instruct the client to withdraw air into the NPH vial first, then into the regular vial, and then withdraw the regular insulin first, followed by the NPH insulin. This prevents contamination of the regular insulin by the NPH insulin.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. NPH and regular insulin can be mixed together in the same syringe, as long as the correct order of drawing up is followed. This reduces the number of injections and improves compliance.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The client should test blood glucose at least once a day, or more frequently if indicated, while taking these meds. This helps to monitor the effectiveness and safety of the insulin therapy and adjust the dosage accordingly.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The client should take these meds 15 to 30 minutes before meals, not on an empty stomach 2 hours before breakfast. This ensures that the peak action of the regular insulin coincides with the postprandial rise in blood glucose.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The client does not need to wear light clothing or avoid hot showers after receiving radioactive iodine. However, the client should avoid close contact with others, especially children and pregnant women, for a few days to prevent radiation exposure.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The procedure is unlikely to leave the client infertile, as the dose of radioactive iodine is low and does not affect the reproductive organs. However, the client should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after the procedure, as a precaution.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The client does not need to avoid caffeinated beverages after receiving radioactive iodine. However, the client should drink plenty of fluids to flush out the excess iodine from the body.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. The procedure is very likely to cause hypothyroidism, as the radioactive iodine destroys the thyroid cells that produce thyroid hormones. The client will need to take thyroid hormone replacement therapy for the rest of their life to prevent symptoms of hypothyroidism, such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and depression.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not delay the administration of digoxin based on the heart rate alone, unless it is below 60 beats per minute. The nurse should also consider the serum potassium level, which is low in this case and increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. The nurse should hold the digoxin and call the MD, as the client has a low potassium level, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin and cause arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, or visual disturbances. The MD may order a serum digoxin level, potassium supplementation, or a dose adjustment.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse does not need to call the prescriber and ask for a chest x-ray, as this is not relevant to the digoxin order. A chest x-ray may be indicated to assess the severity of heart failure, but it does not affect the decision to administer digoxin.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not give the digoxin as ordered, as the client has a low potassium level, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the digoxin and call the MD for further instructions..

Choice A reason: This statement is false. INR level is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin is not an anticoagulant. INR level is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, which is a different medication.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Apical heart rate is a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility. The nurse should check the apical heart rate for one full minute before administering digoxin, and hold the dose if the rate is below 60 beats per minute or above 100 beats per minute.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Blood pressure is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin does not have a significant effect on blood pressure. Blood pressure is more relevant for other medications used to treat heart failure, such as diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or beta-blockers.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Temperature is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin does not cause fever or hypothermia. Temperature is more indicative of an infection or inflammation, which may worsen the condition of heart failure.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Glucagon is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia, which is unlikely to occur during the procedure. Glucagon is an injectable hormone that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. Famotidine is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as famotidine is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, or gastritis, which are not related to the procedure. Famotidine is an oral medication that reduces the production of stomach acid by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. Metformin is a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, which can interact with the contrast dye used in the procedure. Metformin is an oral medication that lowers blood glucose levels by decreasing the absorption of glucose in the intestines, increasing the uptake of glucose in the muscles, and reducing the production of glucose in the liver. However, metformin can also cause lactic acidosis, a serious condition that occurs when there is too much acid in the blood. The contrast dye can impair the kidney function and increase the risk of lactic acidosis. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's renal function tests and inform the radiologist if the client is taking metformin. The client may need to stop taking metformin before and after the procedure, depending on the instructions from the prescriber.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Forge is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as forge is not a real medication. It is a misspelling of Forxiga, which is another oral medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. Forxiga works by increasing the excretion of glucose in the urine by inhibiting a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 in the kidneys. Forxiga does not have a significant interaction with the contrast dye, but the nurse should still monitor the client's blood glucose levels and hydration status before and after the procedure.

To find the rate in mL/hr, we need to convert the time from minutes to hours and then divide the volume by the time. Here are the steps:

1. Convert 30 minutes to hours:

30 minutes/ (60 minutes/hour)= 0.5 hours

2. Calculate the rate in mL/hr:

250 mL/ 0.5 hours = 500 mL

So, the nurse will set the pump to deliver the fluid at a rate of 500 mL/hr.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Atorvastatin is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is used to lower cholesterol and prevent cardiovascular events. It does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, heart rate, or blood glucose.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Captopril is a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. However, it can also cause hyperkalemia, which is a condition where the potassium level is too high. The client has a high potassium level, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. The nurse should hold the captopril and notify the prescriber.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Atenolol is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. It can also prevent angina and reduce the risk of heart attack. The client has a normal heart rate and a slightly elevated blood pressure, which can be expected after surgery. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and administer the atenolol as ordered.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Glipizide is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is an oral antidiabetic drug that lowers blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. The client has a normal blood glucose level, which can be maintained by taking the glipizide as ordered. The nurse should also encourage the client to follow a balanced diet and exercise regimen.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid getting up without assistance, as hydralazine can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This can lead to dizziness, fainting, or falls.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The nurse does not need to monitor the heart rate with this medication, as hydralazine is not a cardiac drug. Hydralazine is a vasodilator that relaxes the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure. However, the nurse should monitor the blood pressure and adjust the dose accordingly.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse does not need to alter the medication with birth control, as hydralazine does not have a significant interaction with hormonal contraceptives. However, the nurse should advise the client to inform the prescriber if they are pregnant or planning to conceive, as hydralazine may have some effects on the fetus.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse does not need to report a dry cough, as hydralazine does not cause this side effect. A dry cough is more common with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are another class of antihypertensive drugs.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include tremors as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too low. Tremors are involuntary shaking or trembling of the body, caused by the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include diaphoresis as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is excessive sweating, caused by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood glucose.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include confusion as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is impaired mental function, caused by the lack of glucose supply to the brain.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not include polyuria as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is increased urination, caused by the excess glucose in the urine. Polyuria is more common with hyperglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too high.

Choice E reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not include polydipsia as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is increased thirst, caused by the dehydration from polyuria. Polydipsia is also more common with hyperglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too high.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not hold glipizide, as it is an oral antidiabetic drug that lowers blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. The client has a normal blood glucose level, which can be maintained by taking the glipizide as ordered. The nurse should also encourage the client to follow a balanced diet and exercise regimen.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. The nurse should check the apical heart rate prior to captopril, as it is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. However, it can also cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. The nurse should hold the captopril and notify the prescriber if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not give atenolol as ordered, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. It can also prevent angina and reduce the risk of heart attack. The client has a slightly elevated blood pressure and a normal heart rate, which can be expected after surgery. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and adjust the dose accordingly.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not call the prescriber and ask to change atorvastatin to gemfibrozil, as they are both lipid-lowering drugs that reduce cholesterol and triglycerides. However, they have different mechanisms of action and side effects. Atorvastatin is a statin that inhibits the enzyme that produces cholesterol in the liver. Gemfibrozil is a fibrate that activates the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides in the blood. The nurse should administer the atorvastatin as ordered and monitor the client's liver function and lipid profile.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. When mixing NPH and regular insulin, the nurse should instruct the client to withdraw air into the NPH vial first, then into the regular vial, and then withdraw the regular insulin first, followed by the NPH insulin. This prevents contamination of the regular insulin by the NPH insulin.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. NPH and regular insulin can be mixed together in the same syringe, as long as the correct order of drawing up is followed. This reduces the number of injections and improves compliance.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The client should test blood glucose at least once a day, or more frequently if indicated, while taking these meds. This helps to monitor the effectiveness and safety of the insulin therapy and adjust the dosage accordingly.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The client should take these meds 15 to 30 minutes before meals, not on an empty stomach 2 hours before breakfast. This ensures that the peak action of the regular insulin coincides with the postprandial rise in blood glucose.

To find the number of milliliters that the nurse will draw up for this dose, we need to use the following formula:

Volume = Dose/Concentration

In this case, the dose is 2.5 mg and the concentration is 1 mg/mL. So, we plug in these values into the formula and get:

Volume= 2.5 mg /(1 mg/mL)

To simplify this fraction, we can divide both the numerator and the denominator by the same unit (mg) and get:

Volume = 2.5 /1 mL

Now, we can reduce this fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common factor, which is 1, and get:

Volume = 2.5 mL

Therefore, the nurse will draw up 2.5 mL of metoprolol for this dose.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The client does not need to wear light clothing or avoid hot showers after receiving radioactive iodine. However, the client should avoid close contact with others, especially children and pregnant women, for a few days to prevent radiation exposure.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The procedure is unlikely to leave the client infertile, as the dose of radioactive iodine is low and does not affect the reproductive organs. However, the client should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after the procedure, as a precaution.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The client does not need to avoid caffeinated beverages after receiving radioactive iodine. However, the client should drink plenty of fluids to flush out the excess iodine from the body.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. The procedure is very likely to cause hypothyroidism, as the radioactive iodine destroys the thyroid cells that produce thyroid hormones. The client will need to take thyroid hormone replacement therapy for the rest of their life to prevent symptoms of hypothyroidism, such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and depression.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. INR level is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin is not an anticoagulant. INR level is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, which is a different medication.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Apical heart rate is a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility. The nurse should check the apical heart rate for one full minute before administering digoxin, and hold the dose if the rate is below 60 beats per minute or above 100 beats per minute.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Blood pressure is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin does not have a significant effect on blood pressure. Blood pressure is more relevant for other medications used to treat heart failure, such as diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or beta-blockers.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Temperature is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin, as digoxin does not cause fever or hypothermia. Temperature is more indicative of an infection or inflammation, which may worsen the condition of heart failure.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The nurse would not be alerted by a heart rate of 95, as this is within the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. Desmopressin is a synthetic form of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that reduces urine output and increases water retention in the body. It does not affect the heart rate significantly.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The nurse would not be alerted by an oxygen saturation of 93%, as this is within the normal range of 95% to 100%. Desmopressin is a synthetic form of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that reduces urine output and increases water retention in the body. It does not affect the oxygen level in the blood.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse would not be alerted by a hemoglobin of 14.1, as this is within the normal range of 12 to 18 grams per deciliter. Desmopressin is a synthetic form of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that reduces urine output and increases water retention in the body. It does not affect the hemoglobin level in the blood.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. The nurse would be alerted by a blood pressure of 170/90, as this is above the normal range of 120/80 or lower. Desmopressin is a synthetic form of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that reduces urine output and increases water retention in the body. However, it can also cause hypertension, which is a condition where the blood pressure is too high. Hypertension can damage the blood vessels and organs, such as the heart, kidneys, and brain. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure closely and report any changes to the prescriber.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid getting up without assistance, as hydralazine can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This can lead to dizziness, fainting, or falls.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not tell the client that upper arm pain is common with this medication, as hydralazine does not cause this side effect. Upper arm pain may be a sign of angina, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse should advise the client to report any chest or arm pain to the prescriber.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not tell the client to not alter the medication with birth control, as hydralazine does not have a significant interaction with hormonal contraceptives. However, the nurse should advise the client to inform the prescriber if they are pregnant or planning to conceive, as hydralazine may have some effects on the fetus.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not tell the client to immediately report a dry cough, as hydralazine does not cause this side effect. A dry cough is more common with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are another class of antihypertensive drugs.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Atorvastatin is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is used to lower cholesterol and prevent cardiovascular events. It does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, heart rate, or blood glucose.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Captopril is a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. However, it can also cause hyperkalemia, which is a condition where the potassium level is too high. The client has a high potassium level, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. The nurse should hold the captopril and notify the prescriber.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. Atenolol is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. It can also prevent angina and reduce the risk of heart attack. The client has a normal heart rate and a slightly elevated blood pressure, which can be expected after surgery. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and administer the atenolol as ordered.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Glipizide is not a medication that the nurse should hold, as it is an oral antidiabetic drug that lowers blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. The client has a normal blood glucose level, which can be maintained by taking the glipizide as ordered. The nurse should also encourage the client to follow a balanced diet and exercise regimen.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. Glucagon is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia, which is unlikely to occur during the procedure. Glucagon is an injectable hormone that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. Famotidine is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as famotidine is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, or gastritis, which are not related to the procedure. Famotidine is an oral medication that reduces the production of stomach acid by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. Metformin is a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, which can interact with the contrast dye used in the procedure. Metformin is an oral medication that lowers blood glucose levels by decreasing the absorption of glucose in the intestines, increasing the uptake of glucose in the muscles, and reducing the production of glucose in the liver. However, metformin can also cause lactic acidosis, a serious condition that occurs when there is too much acid in the blood. The contrast dye can impair the kidney function and increase the risk of lactic acidosis. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's renal function tests and inform the radiologist if the client is taking metformin. The client may need to stop taking metformin before and after the procedure, depending on the instructions from the prescriber.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Forge is not a drug that the nurse should assess prior to sending the client to radiology, as forge is not a real medication. It is a misspelling of Forxiga, which is another oral medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. Forxiga works by increasing the excretion of glucose in the urine by inhibiting a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 in the kidneys. Forxiga does not have a significant interaction with the contrast dye, but the nurse should still monitor the client's blood glucose levels and hydration status before and after the procedure.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include tremors as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too low. Tremors are involuntary shaking or trembling of the body, caused by the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include diaphoresis as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is excessive sweating, caused by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood glucose.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include confusion as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is impaired mental function, caused by the lack of glucose supply to the brain.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not include polyuria as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is increased urination, caused by the excess glucose in the urine. Polyuria is more common with hyperglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too high.

Choice E reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not include polydipsia as a sign of hypoglycemia, which is increased thirst, caused by the dehydration from polyuria. Polydipsia is also more common with hyperglycemia, which is a condition where the blood glucose level is too high.

Choice A reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not hold glipizide, as it is an oral antidiabetic drug that lowers blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. The client has a normal blood glucose level, which can be maintained by taking the glipizide as ordered. The nurse should also encourage the client to follow a balanced diet and exercise regimen.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. The nurse should check the apical heart rate prior to captopril, as it is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. However, it can also cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. The nurse should hold the captopril and notify the prescriber if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.

Choice C reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not give atenolol as ordered, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. It can also prevent angina and reduce the risk of heart attack. The client has a slightly elevated blood pressure and a normal heart rate, which can be expected after surgery. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and adjust the dose accordingly.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not call the prescriber and ask to change atorvastatin to gemfibrozil, as they are both lipid-lowering drugs that reduce cholesterol and triglycerides. However, they have different mechanisms of action and side effects. Atorvastatin is a statin that inhibits the enzyme that produces cholesterol in the liver. Gemfibrozil is a fibrate that activates the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides in the blood. The nurse should administer the atorvastatin as ordered and monitor the client's liver function and lipid profile.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The client should report black or bloody bowel movements, as they may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The client should not limit all fruits and vegetables, as they are important sources of vitamins, minerals, and fiber. However, the client should be consistent with their intake of foods that contain vitamin K, such as leafy greens, broccoli, and cabbage, as vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin and reduce its efficacy.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. The client should report coffee ground or bloody emesis, as they may indicate upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which is another serious complication of warfarin therapy. Coffee ground emesis is vomit that looks like coffee grounds, caused by the presence of digested blood.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. The client should use a soft-bristled toothbrush, as it can prevent gum bleeding, which is a minor side effect of warfarin therapy. The client should also avoid dental flossing or using toothpicks that may injure the gums.

Choice E reason: This statement is true. The client should shave with an electric razor instead of a razor blade, as it can prevent skin cuts or nicks, which may bleed excessively due to warfarin therapy. The client should also avoid activities that may cause bruises or injuries, such as contact sports or gardening.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include weight gain as a sign of hypothyroidism, which is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones regulate the metabolism and energy expenditure of the body. When the thyroid hormones are low, the metabolism slows down and the body tends to store more fat.

Choice B reason: This statement is false. The nurse should not include diarrhea as a sign of hypothyroidism, as diarrhea is more common with hyperthyroidism, which is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormones. When the thyroid hormones are high, the metabolism speeds up and the bowel movements become more frequent and loose.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include confusion as a sign of hypothyroidism, as confusion is caused by the lack of thyroid hormones in the brain. Thyroid hormones are essential for the normal function and development of the nervous system. When the thyroid hormones are low, the mental processes become sluggish and impaired.

Choice D reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include bradycardia as a sign of hypothyroidism, as bradycardia is a slow heart rate, usually below 60 beats per minute. Thyroid hormones affect the cardiac output and contractility of the heart. When the thyroid hormones are low, the heart rate and blood pressure decrease.

Choice E reason: This statement is true. The nurse should include cold intolerance as a sign of hypothyroidism, as cold intolerance is a reduced ability to maintain body temperature in cold environments. Thyroid hormones are involved in the thermoregulation of the body. When the thyroid hormones are low, the body produces less heat and shivers more.

Choice A reason: This statement is true. Atenolol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that blocks the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the heart and blood vessels. This lowers the blood pressure and heart rate, and prevents angina and heart attacks.

Choice B reason: This statement is true. Labetalol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that blocks the effects of adrenaline on both the alpha and beta receptors in the heart and blood vessels. This lowers the blood pressure and heart rate, and prevents hypertension and preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: This statement is true. Metoprolol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that blocks the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the heart and blood vessels. This lowers the blood pressure and heart rate, and prevents angina, heart failure, and arrhythmias.

Choice D reason: This statement is false. Captopril is not a beta blocker, but an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which is a type of medication that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a hormone that constricts the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure. This lowers the blood pressure and prevents hypertension, heart failure, and kidney damage.

Choice E reason: This statement is false. Ramipril is not a beta blocker, but an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which is a type of medication that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a hormone that constricts the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure. This lowers the blood pressure and prevents hypertension, heart failure, and stroke.