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Ivytech Fundamental Exam 2

Total Questions : 39

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Question 1:

A nurse in the ER is caring for a patient who had fallen at home. She reviews the blood pressure reading of 160/80 mm Hg. The client denies any history of hypertension. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

A. Ask the client if she is having pain.

This option recognizes the potential relationship between pain and elevated blood pressure. Assessing the client for pain is crucial, as pain can contribute to increased blood pressure.

B. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.

This option assumes that anxiety might be the cause of the elevated blood pressure. However, without further assessment, it may not be appropriate to jump to prescribing medication for anxiety.

C. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.

Initiating antihypertensive medication without further assessment may not be the most appropriate first step, especially if the elevated blood pressure is related to pain or another temporary factor.

D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s blood pressure.

While monitoring blood pressure is important, waiting 30 minutes without further assessment or intervention might delay addressing the underlying issue, especially if it is related to pain or another acute problem.


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Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a large group of patients. She checks on her post-op patient and starts the IV fluids. While programing the pump the nurse is interrupted by another staff member. Three two hours later the nurse rounds and finds that the patient is short of breath, requiring more oxygen and has crackles in her lungs.

The nurse then realizes that the IV fluids were running at twice the ordered rate. What should the nurse do next?

Explanation

A. Assess the client.

This is the immediate priority. The nurse should assess the patient's current condition to determine the extent of the impact of the error on the patient's health, focusing on respiratory status, vital signs, and signs of fluid overload.

B. Notify the nurse manager.

Once the patient has been assessed and stabilized, the nurse should inform the nurse manager or supervisor about the error. This helps ensure appropriate reporting, investigation, and follow-up actions.

C. Complete an incident report.

After assessing and stabilizing the patient, the nurse should document the error in an incident report. Incident reports are important for organizational learning, identifying patterns, and implementing improvements to prevent future errors.

D. Call the client’s provider.

If the patient's condition is deteriorating or requires immediate attention, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the situation, report the error, and collaborate on necessary interventions.


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Question 3:

A nurse is preparing to measure a client’s level of oxygen saturation on a patient who has had a bilateral lower leg amputation. He noticed the patient’s hands are very edematous.

The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

Explanation

A. Skin fold:

This may not be the best choice in this situation because the skin fold might not provide an accurate reading, especially if the hands are edematous.

B. Toe:

While the toe is a common site for pulse oximetry, in a patient with bilateral lower leg amputations, it might not be the most practical option. The nurse might face challenges in securing the pulse oximeter probe on the toe, and the accuracy of the reading could be affected.

C. Earlobe:

This is often a suitable alternative site for pulse oximetry when peripheral perfusion is compromised in the extremities. In this case, with bilateral lower leg amputations and edematous hands, applying the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe is a good choice.

D. Finger:

In a patient with edematous hands, the finger might not be the best choice as the edema could affect the accuracy of the measurement. Additionally, if the patient has lower leg amputations, using the earlobe or another alternative site may be more appropriate.


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Question 4:

A nurse is assessing the level of consciousness of a patient who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse notes that the patient appears drowsy most of the time but makes spontaneous movements. The nurse is able to wake the patient by gently shaking him and calling his name.

What level of consciousness would the nurse document?

Explanation

A. Comatose:

Coma refers to a state of deep unconsciousness where the individual is unresponsive to stimuli, including pain or external stimulation. In the scenario described, the patient is not comatose because they can be awakened by gentle shaking and calling their name.

B. Awake and alert:

This term describes a state of full alertness and responsiveness to the environment. The patient in the scenario is not fully awake and alert since they appear drowsy most of the time and require external stimuli to be awakened.

C. Lethargic:

Lethargy is characterized by drowsiness, reduced alertness, and a sluggish response to stimuli. In the scenario, the patient is described as drowsy most of the time but can be awakened by gentle shaking and calling their name. This aligns with the characteristics of lethargy.

D. Stuporous:

Stupor is a state of reduced responsiveness where the individual can be aroused only by vigorous or painful stimuli. The patient in the scenario does not fit the criteria for stupor as they can be awakened by gentle shaking and calling their name.


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Question 5:

A nurse is assessing a client’s radial pulse and determines that the pulse is irregular. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Assess the pedal pulses with a Doppler device:

Assessing the pedal pulses with a Doppler device may be useful in certain situations, but when the radial pulse is irregular, it's more important to assess the central (apical) pulse to get a more accurate representation of the heart's rhythm.

B. Assess the apical pulse with a Doppler device:

While using a Doppler device on the apical pulse is an option, it's generally not the first choice when assessing irregular pulses. The apical pulse can often be palpated manually, and it's more practical to assess it directly for irregularities.

C. Assess the apical pulse for a full minute:

This is the recommended action when the radial pulse is irregular. By assessing the apical pulse for a full minute, the nurse can accurately determine the heart rate and identify any irregularities in rhythm, providing a comprehensive assessment of the cardiac status.

D. Assess the pedal pulses for a full minute:

While assessing the pedal pulses is important in certain situations, it may not be the priority when dealing with an irregular radial pulse. Assessing the apical pulse for a full minute gives a more direct and accurate reflection of the heart's rhythm.


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Question 6:

A nursing student in clinical asks her instructor what the primary purpose of nursing diagnoses is?

What is the appropriate response by the instructor?

Explanation

A. Mutually establish desired outcomes of the plan of care:

While establishing desired outcomes is an important part of the nursing process, nursing diagnoses themselves do not necessarily focus on mutually establishing these outcomes. Nursing diagnoses help identify health problems and needs, which then guide the development of outcomes during the planning phase.

B. Guide selection of nursing interventions to meet expected outcomes:

This is the correct answer. Nursing diagnoses help determine the specific needs and problems a patient is facing. Once identified, nursing interventions can be chosen to address these needs and work towards achieving expected outcomes.

C. Establish a database of information for future comparison:

Establishing a database of information is more related to the assessment phase of the nursing process. Nursing diagnoses are formulated based on the analysis of the collected data and serve to guide subsequent steps in the nursing process, particularly planning and intervention.

D. Evaluate the effectiveness of the established plan of care:

Evaluating the effectiveness of the established plan of care is part of the later stages of the nursing process. Nursing diagnoses help in planning and implementing interventions, and evaluating their effectiveness comes after these interventions have been carried out.


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Question 7:

A nurse is measuring a client’s oral temperature. The thermometer reads 33 C (91.4F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

A. Wait 30 min and return to measure the oral temperature:

Waiting 30 minutes may not be necessary. It's more practical to take immediate steps to address potential factors affecting the reading.

B. Provide the client a sip of warm water, wait 5 min, and measure the temperature:

This can be a reasonable and practical approach to stimulate blood flow in the oral cavity and achieve a more accurate oral temperature reading.

C. Document that the nurse was unable to measure the client’s temperature:

Before documenting an inability to measure the temperature, the nurse should attempt appropriate interventions, such as warming the oral cavity or using an alternate route

D. Determine if the client has eaten or drank within the last 15 minutes:

Eating or drinking something cold shortly before taking an oral temperature can result in a lower reading. Checking for recent intake is important to ensure the accuracy of the measurement.

E. Use an alternate route (i.e., axillary, rectal) to take the client’s temperature:

If the oral temperature reading remains difficult to obtain or is not reliable, using an alternate route may be necessary. However, this depends on the client's condition, the reason for the temperature measurement, and the healthcare facility's protocols.


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Question 8:

A nurse is auscultating a client’s lung sounds and identifies crackles in the left lower lobe. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Place the client on bed rest in supine position:

While bed rest might be appropriate for certain respiratory conditions, it is not a specific intervention for crackles. In fact, changing the client's position, such as having them sit up, may enhance lung function and help with breathing.

B. Repeat auscultation after asking the client to breathe deeply and cough:

This is the correct action. Repeating auscultation after having the client take deep breaths and cough can provide additional information about the nature of the crackles and may help clear the airways temporarily.

C. Prepare to administer antibiotics:

Administering antibiotics would be considered if the crackles are indicative of a respiratory infection. However, determining the need for antibiotics would require a more comprehensive assessment, including diagnostic tests.

D. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to less than 2,000 mL/day:

Limiting fluid intake is not a direct intervention for crackles. This action is typically considered in conditions like heart failure where there is a risk of fluid overload. It is not the primary intervention for addressing crackles in the lungs.


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Question 9:

A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students in measuring a client’s respiratory rate. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

A. Place the client in semi-Fowler’s position:

While the semi-Fowler's position can be helpful in assessing respiratory function, it is not specifically required for measuring the respiratory rate. The key is to ensure the client is comfortable and able to breathe easily.

B. Have the client rest an arm across the abdomen:

Placing the arm across the abdomen is not a standard practice for measuring respiratory rate. The key is to allow the client to breathe naturally, and this position is not necessary for accurate measurement.

C. Observe one full respiratory cycle before counting the rate:

This ensures that the count is accurate and reflective of the client's typical breathing pattern.

D. Count the rate for 30 seconds if it is irregular:

When measuring the respiratory rate, it is generally recommended to count for a full minute to obtain an accurate representation of the client's breathing pattern. Counting for 30 seconds may underestimate or overestimate the rate, especially if the irregularity is not consistent.

E. Count and report any sighs the client demonstrates:

Sighs can be indicative of emotional or physiological stress, and noting them is important for a comprehensive respiratory assessment.


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Question 10:

By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?

Explanation

A. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions:

While changing the plan of care may be necessary, it should be based on a thorough reassessment. Simply changing the plan without understanding the reasons for inadequate pain relief may not lead to effective outcomes.

B. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.

Reassessment is a crucial step in the nursing process, especially when the desired outcomes are not achieved. By reassessing the client, the nurse can identify any factors contributing to the inadequate pain relief. This might include reevaluating the effectiveness of the current pain relief interventions, ensuring proper administration of medications, considering changes in the client's condition, or exploring any new factors affecting pain.

C. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing his pain:

Teaching is an important aspect, but in this case, reassessment takes precedence. Once the reasons for inadequate pain relief are determined, teaching can be tailored to address specific needs.

D. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours:

If the pain is not adequately controlled, waiting for another 24 hours without action may prolong the client's discomfort and delay appropriate interventions. Reassessment and prompt adjustments to the plan of care are crucial for effective pain management.


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Question 11:

Ordered: Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 35 mg IM stat

Available: Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 50 mg/mL

Administer: ____ ml

Explanation

To calculate the amount of hydroxyzine (Vistaril) to administer, use the formula:

D (desired dose) / H (have dose) x Q (quantity) = X (amount to give)

In this case, D = 35 mg, H = 50 mg/mL, and Q = 1 mL. Plug in the values and solve for X:

35 mg / 50 mg/mL x 1 mL = 0.7 mL

Therefore, the amount of hydroxyzine (Vistaril) to administer is 0.7 mL.


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Question 12:

Ordered: Potassium chloride (K-Dur) 60 mEq

Available: Potassium chloride (K-Dur) 20 mEq/15 mL

Administer: _____mL

Explanation

To calculate the amount of potassium chloride (K-Dur) solution to administer, we need to use the following formula:

mL to administer = ordered dose (mEq) / available dose (mEq/mL) x mL

Plugging in the values from the question, we get:

mL to administer = 60 mEq / (20 mEq / 15 mL) x 15 mL

Simplifying the equation, we get:

mL to administer = 60 mEq x 15 mL / 20 mEq

mL to administer = 45 mL

Therefore, the nurse should administer 45 mL of potassium chloride (K-Dur) solution to the patient.


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Question 13:

Ordered: Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg

Available: Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.125 mg per tablet

Administer: _____tab(s)

Explanation

To administer the ordered dose of digoxin, you need to calculate how many tablets of the available strength are equivalent to 0.25 mg. You can use the formula:

Ordered dose / Available dose = Number of tablets

Plugging in the values, you get:

0.25 mg / 0.125 mg = 2 tablets

Therefore, you need to administer two tablets of digoxin 0.125 mg to give the ordered dose of 0.25 mg.


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Question 14:

The clinic nurse prepares to perform a focused assessment on a client who is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion. Which should the nurse include for this type of assessment? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

A. Auscultating lung sounds:

Auscultating lung sounds is essential to assess for any abnormal sounds such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can provide information about the extent and nature of lung congestion.

B. Obtaining the client’s temperature:

Obtaining the client's temperature is important to assess for the presence of fever, which is a common symptom associated with respiratory infections.

C. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses:

Assessing peripheral pulses is not directly related to cold, cough, and lung congestion symptoms. This type of assessment is more relevant in cardiovascular or peripheral vascular assessments.

D. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations:

Assessing the rate, depth, and rhythm of respirations is crucial when dealing with respiratory symptoms. This information helps determine the severity and nature of the respiratory distress.

E. Asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease:

Family history is important for a comprehensive health assessment, but for the focused assessment of a cold, cough, and lung congestion, obtaining information about the current symptoms and associated factors takes precedence.


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Question 15:

A nurse is filling out an incident report after finding a client lying on the floor. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Explanation

A. The client attempted to climb over the side rails and fell:

This statement includes an interpretation of the client's actions. It's important to focus on factual information without making assumptions about the client's intentions or actions.

B. The client was restless and trying to get out of bed all evening:

Describing the client as restless and trying to get out of bed is a subjective interpretation of the client's behavior. Factual and objective observations are preferred when documenting incidents.

C. The presence of a bed alarm could have prevented the client from falling:

This statement includes an interpretation and a suggestion for prevention. While prevention strategies are important to consider, an incident report should primarily focus on describing what actually occurred rather than suggesting what could have prevented it.

D. The client was lying on the floor next to his bed:

This statement provides a clear and objective description of the situation without making assumptions or interpretations. It is important to document the actual events and the client's current condition.


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Question 16:

A nursing student is preforming a head-to-toe assessment on his patient with a history of mitral regurgitation. Instead of hearing normal heart sounds the student hears a murmur.

Which of the following best describes the sound of a heart murmur?

Explanation

A. Lub-dub sounds:

This describes the normal heart sounds, with the "lub" representing the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves (S1) and the "dub" representing the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves (S2). This is the typical and expected sound of a healthy heart.

B. Gentle blowing or swooshing noise:

This describes the characteristic sound of a heart murmur. Murmurs are abnormal sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, and they are often described as a gentle blowing or swooshing noise heard between the normal heart sounds.

C. Scratchy, leathery heart noise:

This description is not typical for heart sounds or murmurs. Heart sounds are usually described in terms of tones, clicks, or swooshing rather than scratchy or leathery.

D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise:

This description is not typical for heart sounds or murmurs. Heart murmurs are generally characterized by a more continuous, blowing, or swooshing quality, rather than abrupt, high-pitched snapping noises.


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Question 17:

A nurse is auscultating the breath sounds of a client who has congestive heart failure. When the client exhales, the nurse hears bubbling, popping like sounds. The nurse should document this as which of the following adventitious breath sounds?

Explanation

A. Wheezes:

Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds that occur during inspiration or expiration and are often associated with narrowed airways, such as in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

B. Stridor:

Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound that is typically heard during inspiration and can be associated with upper airway obstruction, such as in croup or epiglottitis.

C. Rhonchi:

Rhonchi are low-pitched, snoring or rattling sounds that can occur during inspiration or expiration. They are often associated with the presence of mucus or other airway obstruction and can be heard in conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia.

D. Crackles:

Crackles are bubbling, popping sounds heard during inspiration or expiration. They can be further classified as fine or coarse. Fine crackles are often associated with conditions like pulmonary fibrosis, while coarse crackles can be heard in conditions like congestive heart failure or pneumonia.


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Question 18:

A nurse is assisting with the admission of an alert and oriented client to the orthopedic surgical unit.

Which of the following sources of information should the nurse rely on for accurate information about the client?

Explanation

A. The client:

The client is the most reliable source of information about their own health. Direct communication with the client allows the nurse to gather details about their symptoms, medical history, current health status, and any other relevant information. This is crucial for accurate assessment and care planning.

B. Progress note:

Progress notes are documentation by healthcare providers that summarize the client's clinical status, interventions, and responses to care. While progress notes can provide valuable information, they are not always as up-to-date as direct communication with the client.

C. Medical history:

The medical history contains information about the client's past health conditions, treatments, and surgeries. While important, medical history may not capture the most recent or current information, especially if there have been recent changes in the client's health.

D. Family information:

Family information can provide additional context, support, and insights into the client's health. However, it may not always be as accurate or comprehensive as the information obtained directly from the client. Family members may not be aware of recent changes or may have different perspectives on the client's health.


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Question 19:

Ordered: furosemide (Lasix) 20mg

Available: furosemide (Lasix) 2 mg/2 mL

Administer: ____mL

Explanation

To administer the ordered dose of furosemide (Lasix) 20mg, you need to calculate the amount of mL required from the available solution. The available solution has a concentration of 2 mg/2 mL, which means that for every 2 mL of solution, there are 2 mg of furosemide. To find the amount of mL needed to deliver 20 mg of furosemide, you can use the following formula:

mL = (ordered dose / available dose) x available volume

Plugging in the values, we get:

mL = (20 mg / 2 mg) x 2 mL

mL = 10 x 2 mL

mL = 20 mL

Therefore, you need to administer 20 mL of the available solution to give the patient 20 mg of furosemide.


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Question 20:

A nurse is completing a client abdominal assessment for admission to the medical unit. Which of the following abdominal assessment findings require further investigation by the nurse?

Explanation

A. Round and Taut:

A round and taut abdomen may be normal, depending on the individual's body habitus and muscle tone. It might indicate normal abdominal distension associated with gas or a meal.

B. White Striae (Stretch Marks)

White striae, commonly known as stretch marks, on the abdomen may warrant further investigation. While they are often benign and associated with conditions like weight gain or pregnancy, they can sometimes be indicative of underlying issues such as Cushing's syndrome or other factors. Further inquiry or investigation into the client's medical history may be needed to understand the cause of the white striae.

C. Symmetrical, Rounded Shape:

A symmetrical and rounded abdominal shape is generally considered a normal finding. It suggests that the abdominal muscles are intact and that there is no obvious asymmetry or abnormal protrusion.

D. Soft and Non-Tender:

A soft and non-tender abdomen is a normal finding. It suggests that the abdominal


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Question 21:

The nurse is surprised to detect an elevated temperature (102 °F) in a patient scheduled for surgery. The patient has been afebrile and shows no other signs of being febrile. What is the first thing the nurse should do?

Explanation

A. Validate the finding:

Validating the finding involves rechecking the patient's temperature using a different thermometer or method to confirm the accuracy of the initial measurement. This step is crucial to rule out any potential errors or issues with the measurement.

B. Document the finding:

Once the finding has been validated and confirmed, the nurse should document the elevated temperature accurately in the patient's medical record. Documentation is essential for communication among the healthcare team and for tracking changes in the patient's condition over time.

C. Inform the surgeon:

If the elevated temperature is confirmed and the patient is scheduled for surgery, it is important to inform the surgeon promptly. The surgeon needs to be aware of any changes in the patient's health status that may impact the decision to proceed with the scheduled surgery.

D. Inform the charge nurse:

Informing the charge nurse may be appropriate, especially if there are specific protocols or procedures in place within the healthcare facility for addressing unexpected changes in a patient's condition. The charge nurse can provide guidance and coordinate appropriate actions.


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Question 22:

A client has just been admitted to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after having a procedure to bypass arteries in the right leg. Which assessment should receive the highest priority?

Explanation

A. Adequacy of circulation:

This assessment is the highest priority for a client who has undergone a procedure to bypass arteries in the right leg. Monitoring for signs of adequate blood flow, such as color, temperature, capillary refill, and pulses in the operated leg, is critical to identify and address any circulation issues early.

B. Patency of airway:

While maintaining a patent airway is always a priority in postoperative care, it is not the immediate concern in a client who has just undergone a leg bypass procedure. Airway management is essential, but assessing circulation in the operated limb takes precedence.

C. Movement of lower leg:

Assessing movement of the lower leg is important for detecting signs of impaired motor function or complications. However, it is secondary to assessing the adequacy of circulation, which is critical for preventing ischemia and other circulatory issues.

D. Neurovascular status of the left leg:

While monitoring the neurovascular status of the left leg is a valid aspect of the overall assessment, the priority in the immediate postoperative period is to assess the surgical site (right leg) to ensure that blood flow is adequate and that there are no immediate complications.


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Question 23:

A nurse performs an integumentary assessment of a client who has recently fallen and broken his leg. The nurse notes the skin coloring on the broken leg is bluish gray. What is the term for this change in skin color?

Explanation

A. Pallor:

Pallor refers to an unusually pale or white skin color. It is often associated with reduced blood flow, anemia, or shock. Pallor is characterized by a lack of the normal rosy color of the skin.

B. Jaundice:

Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes due to an excess of bilirubin in the blood. It can be associated with liver dysfunction or other conditions affecting the normal breakdown and elimination of bilirubin.

C. Cyanosis:

Cyanosis is a bluish-gray discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by a decrease in oxygen levels in the blood. It can result from various conditions affecting oxygenation, such as respiratory or circulatory problems. In the context of a broken leg, cyanosis on the affected leg could suggest compromised blood flow or oxygenation.

D. Erythema:

Erythema refers to redness of the skin, often due to increased blood flow to the area. It can be a normal response to irritation, injury, or inflammation. Unlike bluish-gray discoloration seen in cyanosis, erythema is characterized by a red appearance.


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Question 24:

Order: Ampicillin (Principen) 150 mg PO every 6 hours

Available: Ampicillin (Principen) 125mg per 5 ml

How many mL of ampicillin are needed for one dose?

( Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. TYPE THE ANSWER ONLY, no label )

Explanation

To calculate the amount of ampicillin needed for one dose, we need to use a proportion. We can set up the proportion as follows:

150 mg / x mL = 125 mg / 5 mL

We can cross-multiply and solve for x:

150 * 5 = 125 * x

750 = 125 * x

x = 750 / 125

x = 6

Therefore, we need 6 mL of ampicillin for one dose


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Question 25:

A nurse is completing a client’s history and physical examination. Which of the following information should the nurse consider subjective data?

Explanation

A. Edema:

Edema refers to the presence of swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid. While the nurse can observe and measure edema, the sensation of swelling itself is subjective and based on the client's perception.

B. Heart Rate:

Heart rate is an objective measure of the number of heartbeats per minute. It can be measured and observed by the healthcare provider, making it an objective data point.

C. Chills

Subjective data refers to information that is based on the client's personal experiences, perceptions, and feelings. Chills, which describe a feeling of coldness often associated with shivering, are a subjective symptom that the client experiences.

D. Pallor:

Pallor refers to an unusually pale or white skin color. While the nurse can observe and assess the color of the skin, the client's perception of pallor is subjective.


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