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Exam Review

Kaplan Pathophysiology NGN

Total Questions : 45

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Question 1:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Which observation does the nurse expect to find during assessment of the client?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Enlargement of the spleen is not a common sign of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but it may occur in some cases. It is more likely to be associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia or Hodgkin lymphoma.

Choice B reason: Confusion and agitation are not typical symptoms of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but they may indicate central nervous system involvement or metabolic disturbances. They are more common in patients with brain tumors or infections.

Choice C reason: Frequent respiratory infections are a possible manifestation of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, as the disease affects the immune system and makes the client more susceptible to infections. The respiratory tract is one of the most common sites of infection in patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

Choice D reason: Painful lesions of the lips and oral mucosa are not characteristic of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but they may be caused by other conditions such as herpes simplex virus, aphthous ulcers, or oral cancer. They are more common in patients with immunodeficiency or poor oral hygiene.


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Question 2:

Which risk factor is significant for the development of prerenal acute kidney injury?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. It can cause damage to the renal tissue and lead to intrinsic acute kidney injury, not prerenal acute kidney injury.

Choice B reason: Fluid volume deficit is a condition in which the body loses more fluid than it takes in. It can cause hypovolemia, which reduces the blood flow to the kidneys and impairs their function. This is the most common cause of prerenal acute kidney injury, which is a result of decreased perfusion to the kidneys.

Choice C reason: Neurogenic bladder is a dysfunction of the bladder caused by a nerve problem. It can affect the ability to store or empty urine. It can cause urinary retention, which increases the pressure in the urinary tract and damages the kidneys. This is a type of postrenal acute kidney injury, which is a result of obstruction to the urine outflow.

Choice D reason: Renal calculus is a solid mass formed from crystals in the urine. It can block the ureter, the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. It can cause hydronephrosis, which is a swelling of the kidney due to accumulation of urine. This is another type of postrenal acute kidney injury.


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Question 3:

Which inflammatory mediators cause the clinical manifestations of asthma?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Macrophages, monocytes, and bradykinin are involved in the inflammatory response, but they do not directly cause the symptoms of asthma. They may activate other cells and mediators that contribute to bronchoconstriction and mucus production.

Choice B reason: B lymphocytes, serotonin, and immunoglobulin D are not major players in the pathophysiology of asthma. B lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins, but immunoglobulin E (IgE) is the main antibody involved in allergic asthma. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that may affect mood and sleep, but it does not cause bronchospasm. Immunoglobulin D is a rare antibody that has no known role in asthma.

Choice C reason: Histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins are the main inflammatory mediators that cause the clinical manifestations of asthma. They are released by mast cells and other cells in response to allergens or irritants. They cause bronchial smooth muscle contraction, increased vascular permeability, edema, mucus secretion, and airway inflammation.

Choice D reason: Helper T lymphocytes, natural killer cells, and interleukin-1 are involved in the immune response, but they do not directly cause the symptoms of asthma. They may modulate the activation and differentiation of other cells and mediators that contribute to airway hyperresponsiveness and inflammation.


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Question 4:

During assessment of a client diagnosed with severe anemia, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and mucous membranes. Which explanation is the best rationale for this finding?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Blood clots in the peripheral blood vessels are not a cause of anemia, but a complication of it. They may occur due to increased blood viscosity, reduced blood flow, or hypercoagulability. They may cause tissue ischemia, pain, and necrosis.

Choice B reason: Decrease in bone marrow platelet production is not a cause of anemia, but a result of it. It may occur due to bone marrow suppression, infiltration, or destruction. It may cause bleeding, bruising, and petechiae.

Choice C reason: Increase in the number of circulating reticulocytes is not a cause of anemia, but a sign of it. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are released from the bone marrow to compensate for the loss of mature red blood cells. They indicate a regenerative response to anemia.

Choice D reason: Redistribution of blood to the heart and brain is a compensatory mechanism for anemia. It occurs to maintain adequate oxygen delivery to the vital organs. It causes vasoconstriction and shunting of blood away from the skin and mucous membranes, resulting in pallor.

Vasoconstriction: What Is It, Symptoms, Causes & Treatment


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Question 5:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with pulmonary emphysema. The nurse observes the following: respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute, use of intercostal muscles, and decreased mental alertness. Which is the best explanation for these observations?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Bronchial constriction after inhalation of an irritant is a possible trigger for an asthma attack, not emphysema. It causes wheezing, coughing, and dyspnea, but it does not affect the alveolar structure or function.

Choice B reason: Damage to the mucociliary lining of the segmental bronchi is a consequence of chronic bronchitis, not emphysema. It impairs the clearance of mucus and pathogens from the airways, leading to recurrent infections and inflammation.

Choice C reason: Infiltration of bacteria and inflammatory exudates into the alveoli is a sign of pneumonia, not emphysema. It causes fever, chills, productive cough, and chest pain, but it does not cause permanent damage to the alveoli.

Choice D reason: Enlargement of the alveoli with destruction of the alveolar walls is the hallmark of emphysema. It reduces the surface area for gas exchange, increases the dead space, and decreases the elastic recoil of the lungs. It causes tachypnea, use of accessory muscles, and hypoxia, which can lead to decreased mental alertness.


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Question 6:

Which explanation does the nurse know best describes the role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Initiates the fibrinolytic process in the arteries is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a protective mechanism against it. Fibrinolysis is the breakdown of blood clots by enzymes such as plasmin. It prevents the formation of thrombi that can occlude the arteries and cause ischemia.

Choice B reason: Decreases highly sensitive C-reactive protein (hsCRP) levels is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but an indicator of it. hsCRP is a marker of systemic inflammation that is produced by the liver in response to cytokines. It is elevated in patients with atherosclerosis and correlates with the risk of cardiovascular events.

Choice C reason: Damages the endothelium of the arteries is the main role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis. Endothelial injury exposes the subendothelial layer to the blood, which triggers the adhesion of monocytes and platelets. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and engulf oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL), forming foam cells. Foam cells accumulate in the intima and form fatty streaks, which are the earliest lesions of atherosclerosis.

Choice D reason: Causes diffuse arterial vasoconstriction is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a consequence of it. Atherosclerosis narrows the lumen of the arteries and reduces the blood flow to the tissues. This causes ischemia, which stimulates the release of vasoconstrictors such as angiotensin II and endothelin. Vasoconstriction further worsens the ischemia and increases the blood pressure.


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Question 7:

The nurse cares for the client with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Two granulomas were present in the chest x-ray. Which explanation does the nurse understand best describes the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Infected macrophages and lymphocytes surround the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and form a tuberculous granuloma is the best explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. A granuloma is a collection of immune cells that wall off the bacteria and prevent their spread. It is a protective mechanism that limits the infection and preserves the lung function.

Choice B reason: Tumor necrosis factor is released by T lymphocytes and lyses the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria in the alveoli is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. Tumor necrosis factor is a cytokine that activates macrophages and induces inflammation, but it does not directly kill the bacteria. It may also have harmful effects by causing tissue damage and weight loss.

Choice C reason: Natural killer cells and neutrophils form a thick purulent debris, which becomes a caseous necrosis is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. Natural killer cells and neutrophils are part of the innate immune system, which is not very effective against intracellular bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Caseous necrosis is a type of tissue death that results from the liquefaction of the granuloma. It is a sign of progressive disease, not primary infection.

Choice D reason: The inflammatory response of cytokines activates the complement system and causes permanent lung tissue damage is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. The inflammatory response of cytokines and the complement system are part of the innate immune system, which is not very effective against intracellular bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Permanent lung tissue damage is a complication of chronic or reactivated tuberculosis, not primary infection.


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Question 8:

Which explanation does the nurse know best describes the role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Initiates the fibrinolytic process in the arteries is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a protective mechanism against it. Fibrinolysis is the breakdown of blood clots by enzymes such as plasmin. It prevents the formation of thrombi that can occlude the arteries and cause ischemia.

Choice B reason: Decreases highly sensitive C-reactive protein (hsCRP) levels is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but an indicator of it. hsCRP is a marker of systemic inflammation that is produced by the liver in response to cytokines. It is elevated in patients with atherosclerosis and correlates with the risk of cardiovascular events.

Choice C reason: Damages the endothelium of the arteries is the main role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis. Endothelial injury exposes the subendothelial layer to the blood, which triggers the adhesion of monocytes and platelets. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and engulf oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL), forming foam cells. Foam cells accumulate in the intima and form fatty streaks, which are the earliest lesions of atherosclerosis.

Choice D reason: Causes diffuse arterial vasoconstriction is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a consequence of it. Atherosclerosis narrows the lumen of the arteries and reduces the blood flow to the tissues. This causes ischemia, which stimulates the release of vasoconstrictors such as angiotensin II and endothelin. Vasoconstriction further worsens the ischemia and increases the blood pressure.


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Question 9:

During review of a client's history, the nurse notes that a goiter is present. Which statement best describes a goiter?

Explanation

Choice A reason: The thyroid gland is cancerous is not a correct description of a goiter. A goiter is a non-specific term that refers to any enlargement of the thyroid gland, which may have various causes and may or may not be associated with thyroid cancer.

Choice B reason: The client has a low serum calcium level is not a correct description of a goiter. A low serum calcium level is a sign of hypoparathyroidism, which is a condition that affects the parathyroid glands, not the thyroid gland. The parathyroid glands are located behind the thyroid gland and regulate the calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood.

Choice C reason: The thyroid gland has been surgically removed is not a correct description of a goiter. A goiter is a condition that involves the presence of an enlarged thyroid gland, not the absence of it. A surgical removal of the thyroid gland is called a thyroidectomy, which may be done for various reasons such as thyroid cancer, hyperthyroidism, or large goiters.

Choice D reason: The thyroid gland is enlarged is the best description of a goiter. A goiter is a condition that involves the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which may be due to iodine deficiency, autoimmune disease, inflammation, infection, benign nodules, or thyroid hormone imbalance. A goiter may cause symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, breathing, or speaking, hoarseness, cough, or neck discomfort.


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Question 10:

A client is admitted with the diagnosis of "left-sided embolic stroke". Which explanation best describes the most likely cause of the stroke?

Explanation

Choice A reason: A sacculated aneurysm in the circle of Willis is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. A sacculated aneurysm is a bulging of a weak spot in the wall of an artery, which may occur in the circle of Willis, a network of arteries at the base of the brain. A sacculated aneurysm may cause a hemorrhagic stroke, which is a bleeding into the brain, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot.

Choice B reason: Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels may occur due to hypertension, diabetes, or aging, which may damage the integrity of the blood vessel walls. Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels may cause a hemorrhagic stroke, which is a bleeding into the brain, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot.

Choice C reason: Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels may occur due to vasculitis, which is an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and narrowing of the blood vessels. Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels may cause a thrombotic stroke, which is a formation of a clot within the blood vessel, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot that travels from another site.

Choice D reason: Migration of a clot from the left atrium of the heart is the best explanation for the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. An embolic stroke is a type of ischemic stroke, which is a lack of blood flow to the brain due to a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot. A clot may form in the left atrium of the heart due to conditions such as atrial fibrillation, which is an irregular heartbeat that causes blood to pool and clot in the heart. A clot may then break off and travel through the bloodstream until it reaches a smaller blood vessel in the brain, where it causes an embolic stroke.

Embolic stroke - Embolic Ischemic Stroke Causes, Symptoms & Treatment


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Question 11:

The client has a diagnosis of systolic heart failure. Which statement does the nurse anticipate during the assessment?

Explanation

Choice A reason: "My feet swell up during the evening." is not a specific statement for systolic heart failure, but a general sign of fluid retention. Fluid retention may occur in both systolic and diastolic heart failure, as well as other conditions such as kidney disease, liver disease, or venous insufficiency.

Choice B reason: "It's harder to breathe during hot and humid weather." is not a specific statement for systolic heart failure, but a common complaint of many people with respiratory problems. Hot and humid weather may increase the workload of the lungs and the heart, but it does not indicate a reduced ejection fraction, which is the hallmark of systolic heart failure.

Choice C reason: "I wake up at night being short of breath." is the best statement for systolic heart failure, as it indicates a condition called paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a sudden onset of breathlessness that occurs during sleep, usually due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. It is a sign of left-sided systolic heart failure, which is a failure of the left ventricle to pump blood effectively to the body.

Choice D reason: "I have stomach pain that is worse after meals." is not a specific statement for systolic heart failure, but a possible symptom of gastrointestinal disorders. Stomach pain may be caused by gastritis, ulcers, gallstones, or pancreatitis, among other conditions. It does not reflect the cardiac function or output, which are impaired in systolic heart failure.


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Question 12:

A client has an acute adrenal (addisonian) crisis. Which observation is the most significant during the nursing assessment?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Serum glucose 158 mg/dL (8.77 mmol/L) is not the most significant observation for an acute adrenal crisis, but a mild elevation of blood sugar. A mild elevation of blood sugar may occur due to stress, infection, medication, or diet, among other factors. It does not indicate a severe deficiency of adrenal hormones, which is the cause of an acute adrenal crisis.

Choice B reason: Blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg is the most significant observation for an acute adrenal crisis, as it indicates a condition called hypotension. Hypotension is a low blood pressure that may cause dizziness, fainting, shock, or organ failure. It is a sign of an acute adrenal crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency that occurs when the adrenal glands fail to produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. Cortisol and aldosterone are hormones that regulate blood pressure, blood sugar, and electrolyte balance.

Choice C reason: Weight gain 3 pounds (1.36 kg) in 24 hours is not the most significant observation for an acute adrenal crisis, but a possible sign of fluid retention. Fluid retention may occur due to heart failure, kidney disease, liver disease, or medication, among other causes. It does not indicate a severe deficiency of adrenal hormones, which is the cause of an acute adrenal crisis.

Choice D reason: Insomnia and restlessness are not the most significant observations for an acute adrenal crisis, but possible symptoms of anxiety, stress, or hyperthyroidism. Anxiety, stress, and hyperthyroidism may cause difficulty sleeping, nervousness, or agitation, among other effects. They do not indicate a severe deficiency of adrenal hormones, which is the cause of an acute adrenal crisis.


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Question 13:

Which risk factor is significant for development of prerenal acute kidney injury?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. It can cause damage to the renal tissue and lead to intrinsic acute kidney injury, not prerenal acute kidney injury.

Choice B reason: Fluid volume deficit is a condition in which the body loses more fluid than it takes in. It can cause hypovolemia, which reduces the blood flow to the kidneys and impairs their function. This is the most common cause of prerenal acute kidney injury, which is a result of decreased perfusion to the kidneys.

Choice C reason: Neurogenic bladder is a dysfunction of the bladder caused by a nerve problem. It can affect the ability to store or empty urine. It can cause urinary retention, which increases the pressure in the urinary tract and damages the kidneys. This is a type of postrenal acute kidney injury, which is a result of obstruction to the urine outflow.

Choice D reason: Renal calculus is a solid mass formed from crystals in the urine. It can block the ureter, the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. It can cause hydronephrosis, which is a swelling of the kidney due to accumulation of urine. This is another type of postrenal acute kidney injury.


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Question 14:

Which term describes the inflammatory mediator released during the early phase of type 1 hypersensitivity response causing immediate bronchoconstriction and vasodilation?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Prostaglandins are inflammatory mediators that are derived from arachidonic acid. They are involved in both the early and late phases of type 1 hypersensitivity response, but they do not cause immediate bronchoconstriction and vasodilation. They mainly cause pain, fever, and inflammation.

Choice B reason: Histamine is an inflammatory mediator that is stored in mast cells and basophils. It is released during the early phase of type 1 hypersensitivity response, which occurs within minutes of exposure to an allergen. It causes immediate bronchoconstriction and vasodilation, as well as increased vascular permeability, mucus secretion, and itching.

Choice C reason: Leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators that are derived from arachidonic acid. They are involved in the late phase of type 1 hypersensitivity response, which occurs several hours after exposure to an allergen. They cause sustained bronchoconstriction and inflammation, as well as increased mucus production and airway edema.

Choice D reason: Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator that is formed from plasma proteins. It is not directly involved in type 1 hypersensitivity response, but it may be activated by the complement system, which is part of the innate immune system. It causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and pain.


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Question 15:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. The client has bilateral muscle weakness, frequent muscle spasms, and urinary retention. Which best describes the cause of these manifestations?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Ischemia of the motor and sensory neurons in the brain is not the cause of multiple sclerosis, but a possible consequence of it. Ischemia is a lack of blood supply to the tissues, which may result from inflammation, thrombosis, or embolism. It may cause neuronal death, stroke, or dementia.

Choice B reason: Damage and scarring of the white matter in the brain is the best description of the cause of multiple sclerosis. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder that causes the immune system to attack the myelin sheath, which is a protective layer that covers the nerve fibers. The damage and scarring of the myelin sheath, also called demyelination, disrupts the transmission of nerve impulses and causes various neurological symptoms.

Choice C reason: Infection of the parietal and temporal lobes of the brain is not the cause of multiple sclerosis, but a rare complication of it. Infection of the brain, also called encephalitis, may occur due to viral, bacterial, or fungal agents. It may cause fever, headache, confusion, seizures, or coma.

Choice D reason: Increased amounts of epinephrine and acetylcholine in the brain are not the cause of multiple sclerosis, but a possible effect of it. Epinephrine and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters that regulate the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, respectively. They may be affected by the demyelination of the nerve fibers, which may alter the autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, or bladder control.


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Question 16:

The nurse cares for a client recently diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which explanation best describes the microorganism that causes this disease?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Herpes simplex 2 virus is not the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis, but a different type of herpes virus that causes genital herpes. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection that causes painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area.

Choice B reason: Epstein-Barr virus is the best explanation for the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis. Epstein-Barr virus is a type of herpes virus that infects the B lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cells. It causes infectious mononucleosis, also known as mono or the kissing disease, which is a common infection that causes fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and fatigue.

Choice C reason: Hepatitis C virus is not the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis, but a different type of virus that causes hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is a blood-borne infection that affects the liver. It causes inflammation, scarring, and cirrhosis of the liver, which may lead to liver failure or cancer.

Choice D reason: Rubella virus is not the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis, but a different type of virus that causes rubella. Rubella, also known as German measles, is a mild infection that causes a rash, fever, and swollen glands. It is preventable by vaccination and can be dangerous for pregnant women, as it may cause birth defects or miscarriage.

Viruses | Free Full-Text | Inflammation and Epstein–Barr Virus at the  Crossroads of Multiple Sclerosis and Post-Acute Sequelae of COVID-19  Infection


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Question 17:

The nurse provides care for a patient with an 8-year history of Parkinson's disease. The patient has difficulty getting out of chairs, makes tremulous movements, and mumbles words. What is the best explanation for these clinical manifestations?

Explanation

Choice A:
Thrombosis of the small blood vessels in the substantia nigra is the best explanation for the clinical manifestations observed in the patient. The substantia nigra is an area in the brain responsible for producing dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in motor control. Thrombosis, or the formation of blood clots, in the small blood vessels of the substantia nigra can lead to a decrease in dopamine production, resulting in the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

Choice B:
Increased acetylcholine levels and cholinergic activity in the brain are not the primary factors causing the manifestations of Parkinson's disease. In fact, Parkinson's disease is characterized by a decrease in dopamine levels, not an increase in acetylcholine.

Choice C:
Cell-mediated immune response and muscle fiber damage are not the main mechanisms underlying the clinical manifestations of Parkinson's disease. While inflammation and immune responses may play a role in the progression of the disease, they are not the primary cause of the symptoms observed.

Choice D:
Increased production of dopamine in the motor cortex is not the cause of the symptoms in Parkinson's disease. In fact, patients with Parkinson's disease experience a decrease in dopamine production due to the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra.

Overall, the most plausible explanation for the patient's clinical manifestations is thrombosis of the small blood vessels in the substantia nigra, leading to a decrease in dopamine production.


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Question 18:

The nurse observes bilateral 3+ pitting edema on a client diagnosed with severe malnutrition. Which explanation is the best explanation for the edema?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Increased serum hydrostatic pressure is not the best explanation for the edema because it is caused by fluid overload, not malnutrition. Fluid overload can result from heart failure, kidney failure, or excessive fluid intake.

Choice B reason: Increased kidney filtration pressure is not the best explanation for the edema because it is caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, not malnutrition. Increased blood flow to the kidneys can result from hypertension, diabetes, or renal artery stenosis.

Choice C reason: Decreased capillary osmotic pressure is the best explanation for the edema because it is caused by low plasma protein levels, which are common in malnutrition. Low plasma protein levels reduce the force that pulls fluid back into the capillaries from the interstitial space, leading to fluid accumulation in the tissues.

Choice D reason: Intracellular dehydration is not the best explanation for the edema because it is caused by loss of water from the cells, not malnutrition. Loss of water from the cells can result from hypernatremia, hyperglycemia, or osmotic diuresis.


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Question 19:

The nurse provides care for several clients. Which client is most at risk to develop metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: A client with a 10-year history of chronic lung disease is not the most at risk to develop metabolic acidosis because chronic lung disease causes respiratory acidosis, not metabolic acidosis. Respiratory acidosis is a condition where the lungs cannot eliminate enough carbon dioxide, resulting in a low pH and a high bicarbonate level in the blood.

Choice B reason: A client receiving parenteral nutrition for 2 weeks is not the most at risk to develop metabolic acidosis because parenteral nutrition does not affect the acid-base balance of the body, unless there is an infection or a complication. Parenteral nutrition is a method of providing nutrients through a vein, bypassing the digestive system.

Choice C reason: A client with a history of severe diarrhea for 5 days is the most at risk to develop metabolic acidosis because diarrhea causes loss of bicarbonate, which is a base that helps maintain the pH of the blood. Loss of bicarbonate leads to a low pH and a low bicarbonate level in the blood, indicating metabolic acidosis.

Choice D reason: A client with a temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) for 48 hours is not the most at risk to develop metabolic acidosis because fever does not directly cause metabolic acidosis, unless there is dehydration or sepsis. Fever is a symptom of an infection or inflammation, which can increase the metabolic rate and the production of carbon dioxide, but the lungs can usually compensate by increasing the ventilation.


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Question 20:

The nurse provides care for a client with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease. Which finding best describes a common complication of Crohn's disease?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Weight gain is not a common complication of Crohn's disease because Crohn's disease causes inflammation and ulceration of the digestive tract, which can lead to malabsorption, diarrhea, and weight loss.

Choice B reason: Perianal fistula is a common complication of Crohn's disease because Crohn's disease can cause deep ulcers that penetrate the bowel wall and create abnormal connections between the bowel and the skin around the anus. Perianal fistulas can cause pain, bleeding, infection, and fecal incontinence.

Choice C reason: Vomiting after meals is not a common complication of Crohn's disease because Crohn's disease mainly affects the small intestine and the colon, not the stomach. Vomiting after meals can be a sign of gastric ulcers, gastritis, or gastroparesis.

Choice D reason: Urinary tract infections are not a common complication of Crohn's disease because Crohn's disease does not directly affect the urinary system. However, some people with Crohn's disease may develop enterovesical fistulas, which are abnormal connections between the bowel and the bladder. Enterovesical fistulas can cause urinary tract infections, hematuria, and pneumaturia.

Anal Fistula: What It Is, Symptoms, Treatment & Surgery


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Question 21:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with bronchitis. Which statement is most significant during the assessment of a client diagnosed with chronic bronchitis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: "I was short of breath when I walked around the block yesterday." is not the most significant statement because it is a common symptom of chronic bronchitis, but it does not indicate the severity or the progression of the condition. Shortness of breath is caused by the inflammation and narrowing of the airways, which reduce the airflow and oxygen delivery to the lungs.

Choice B reason: "I have a loose sounding cough every day when I get up in the morning." is the most significant statement because it indicates the presence of excessive mucus production, which is a hallmark of chronic bronchitis. Mucus traps bacteria and other irritants, which can lead to infections and further inflammation of the airways. A chronic cough is defined as a cough that lasts for at least three months in two consecutive years.

Choice C reason: "My respiratory secretions are greenish-yellow colored today." is not the most significant statement because it is a sign of a possible infection, but it does not necessarily indicate chronic bronchitis. Greenish-yellow colored sputum can be caused by various respiratory conditions, such as pneumonia, tuberculosis, or cystic fibrosis.

Choice D reason: "My feet are swollen and painful at the end of the afternoon." is not the most significant statement because it is a sign of a possible complication of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly relate to the condition. Swollen and painful feet can be caused by right-sided heart failure, which can result from chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can increase the pressure in the pulmonary arteries, which can strain the right ventricle and cause it to fail. This can lead to fluid retention and edema in the lower extremities.


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Question 22:

A client develops edema of the left arm and hand following a left radical mastectomy. The nurse explains the cause of the edema. Which explanation is correct?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lymph structures were removed and fluid cannot move out of the area easily is the correct explanation because a radical mastectomy involves the removal of the breast, the underlying chest muscles, and the lymph nodes in the axilla. The lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for draining excess fluid from the tissues and returning it to the bloodstream. When the lymph nodes are removed, the fluid cannot be drained properly and accumulates in the affected arm and hand, causing edema.

Choice B reason: There is still too much swelling in the area of the surgery and fluid is accumulating is not the correct explanation because it does not address the underlying cause of the edema. Swelling is a normal response to surgery, but it usually subsides within a few days or weeks. The edema caused by lymph node removal is chronic and persistent, and it does not improve with time.

Choice C reason: The veins were removed from the axilla during surgery and there is poor circulation now is not the correct explanation because it is not true. The veins are not removed during a radical mastectomy, only the lymph nodes are. The veins are part of the circulatory system, which carries blood throughout the body. The blood flow to the arm and hand is not affected by the surgery, unless there is a complication such as a blood clot or an infection.

Choice D reason: You will need to wear a compression bandage to help fluids move from the area is not the correct explanation because it is a treatment, not a cause. A compression bandage is a type of elastic bandage that applies pressure to the arm and hand, which helps to reduce the swelling and prevent further fluid accumulation. However, it does not address the root cause of the edema, which is the removal of the lymph nodes.


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Question 23:

The nurse provides care for a client immediately after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse notes BP 90/52 mmHg, absent breath sounds over the right lung, shallow RR 28 breaths/minute, and displacement of the trachea to the left side. Which explanation is correct for these findings?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Hemothorax is not the correct explanation because it is a condition where blood accumulates in the pleural space, which is the area between the lungs and the chest wall. Hemothorax can cause low blood pressure, rapid breathing, and reduced breath sounds, but it does not cause tracheal deviation, which is a sign of increased pressure in the chest.

Choice B reason: Absorption atelectasis is not the correct explanation because it is a condition where the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs, collapse due to lack of oxygen. Absorption atelectasis can cause reduced breath sounds, but it does not cause low blood pressure, rapid breathing, or tracheal deviation, which are signs of a life-threatening emergency.

Choice C reason: Tension pneumothorax is the correct explanation because it is a condition where air leaks into the pleural space and creates a one-way valve that prevents the air from escaping. This causes the pressure in the chest to increase, which compresses the lung, the heart, and the great vessels. Tension pneumothorax can cause low blood pressure, rapid breathing, absent breath sounds, and tracheal deviation, which are signs of a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment.

Choice D reason: Hypovolemic shock is not the correct explanation because it is a condition where the body loses a large amount of blood or fluid, which reduces the blood volume and the blood pressure. Hypovolemic shock can cause low blood pressure and rapid breathing, but it does not cause absent breath sounds or tracheal deviation, which are signs of a chest injury.


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Question 24:

A previously healthy, young adult had cardiopulmonary arrest during a football game and died. The nurse knows which explanation is the most likely cause of death?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Formation of a clot in the middle cerebral artery is not the most likely cause of death because it is a condition that affects the brain, not the heart. A clot in the middle cerebral artery can cause a stroke, which is a sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in brain damage and neurological deficits. A stroke can be fatal, but it does not usually cause cardiopulmonary arrest, which is a sudden cessation of heart and lung function.

Choice B reason: Obstruction of left ventricular blood flow and cardiac dysrhythmias is the most likely cause of death because it is a condition that affects the heart, which is the organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. Obstruction of left ventricular blood flow can be caused by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which is a genetic disorder that causes the heart muscle to become abnormally thick and stiff, reducing the amount of blood that the heart can pump. Cardiac dysrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can interfere with the electrical signals that control the heart's contractions. Both conditions can lead to sudden cardiac death, which is a sudden and unexpected loss of heart function, resulting in cardiopulmonary arrest.

Choice C reason: Fluid volume overload and decreased serum potassium levels are not the most likely cause of death because they are conditions that affect the fluid and electrolyte balance of the body, not the heart. Fluid volume overload is a condition where the body retains too much fluid, which can cause edema, hypertension, and heart failure. Decreased serum potassium levels are a condition where the blood has too little potassium, which is an electrolyte that helps regulate the nerve and muscle function, including the heart. Both conditions can affect the heart function, but they are not usually the direct cause of cardiopulmonary arrest.

Choice D reason: Diffuse atherosclerosis in the left main coronary artery circulation is not the most likely cause of death because it is a condition that affects the blood vessels, not the heart. Atherosclerosis is a disease that causes the buildup of plaque, which is a fatty substance, in the walls of the arteries, which are the blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood to the organs. Diffuse atherosclerosis in the left main coronary artery circulation means that the plaque affects the entire length of the artery that supplies blood to the left side of the heart, which is the side that pumps blood to the rest of the body. Atherosclerosis can cause coronary artery disease, which is a condition where the heart does not receive enough blood and oxygen, leading to chest pain, angina, or heart attack. A heart attack can cause cardiopulmonary arrest, but it is not as common as sudden cardiac death in young adults.


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Question 25:

The nurse provides care for a client with a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL (80 g/L) due to acute blood loss. Which finding does the nurse expect to assess?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Shallow respirations and a smooth, beefy red tongue are not the expected findings because they are signs of pernicious anemia, not acute blood loss. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body cannot produce enough red blood cells due to a lack of vitamin B12, which is needed for DNA synthesis and cell division. Pernicious anemia can cause shallow respirations due to hypoxia, which is a low level of oxygen in the tissues, and a smooth, beefy red tongue due to atrophy of the tongue papillae, which are the small projections that give the tongue its rough texture.

Choice B reason: Facial flushing with distended neck veins are not the expected findings because they are signs of polycythemia, not acute blood loss. Polycythemia is a condition where the body produces too many red blood cells, which increases the blood volume and the blood viscosity, making the blood thicker and harder to flow. Polycythemia can cause facial flushing due to increased blood flow to the skin, and distended neck veins due to increased pressure in the venous system.

Choice C reason: Bilateral numbness and tingling of the extremities are not the expected findings because they are signs of peripheral neuropathy, not acute blood loss. Peripheral neuropathy is a condition where the nerves that carry signals from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body are damaged or impaired, causing sensory and motor disturbances. Peripheral neuropathy can cause bilateral numbness and tingling of the extremities due to reduced nerve conduction and sensation.

Choice D reason: Increased heart rate and decreased mental alertness are the expected findings because they are signs of acute blood loss. Acute blood loss is a condition where the body loses a large amount of blood in a short period of time, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the tissue perfusion. Acute blood loss can cause increased heart rate due to the compensatory mechanism of the body to increase the cardiac output and maintain the blood pressure, and decreased mental alertness due to the reduced oxygen delivery to the brain.


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