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Module 6: Dimensions of Nursing Practice

Total Questions : 50

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Question 1:

What is the primary role that the SBAR system (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) has in the clinical setting?

Explanation

A) Establishes the physician as the primary and sole source of authority during codes:
This statement is incorrect. The SBAR system does not establish the physician as the sole authority. It's a communication tool designed to enhance collaboration and understanding between healthcare professionals, ensuring effective communication during critical situations.

B) Reduces confusion in the communication between nurse and physician:
This statement is correct. One of the primary roles of the SBAR system is to reduce confusion and enhance the clarity of communication between nurses and physicians. By providing a structured framework (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), it ensures that crucial information is communicated clearly and effectively, especially during critical situations.

C) Aids nurses in independent practice when necessary:
This statement is partially correct. While the SBAR system aids in communication, it does not specifically address independent practice. It focuses on improving interprofessional communication, which is essential for collaborative care.

D) Reduces the number of lawsuits associated with the care of critically ill clients:
This statement is incorrect. While clear communication can contribute to better patient outcomes and potentially reduce the risk of errors, the SBAR system itself does not directly impact the number of lawsuits. Lawsuits are influenced by various factors, including the quality of care, documentation, and adherence to established protocols.


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Question 2:

What is the primary goal of tertiary intervention?

Explanation

A) Restore the client's system to an optimal state of balance:
This statement is not accurate for tertiary intervention. Tertiary intervention primarily focuses on managing and preventing complications or disabilities resulting from an illness or condition. It does not necessarily aim to restore the client's system to an optimal state of balance, as that is more aligned with primary and secondary prevention strategies.

B) Treating symptoms that stressors have already produced:
This statement is correct. Tertiary intervention aims to address and manage the symptoms, disabilities, or complications that have resulted from stressors or illnesses. It focuses on providing appropriate treatments, rehabilitation, and support to improve the client's quality of life and prevent further complications.

C) Preventing symptoms caused by environmental stressors:
This statement is not accurate for tertiary intervention. Tertiary intervention deals with managing existing symptoms or complications rather than preventing new symptoms caused by environmental stressors.

D) Teaching cultural perspectives of environmental stressors:
This statement is not directly related to tertiary intervention. Tertiary intervention focuses on providing medical treatments, therapies, and support to individuals with existing conditions, rather than teaching cultural perspectives.


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Question 3:

A 9-month-old baby who is developmentally delayed is tested for genetic abnormalities. A representative from the client's medical insurance company calls the nurses' station on the phone and asks for the results of the tests. How can the nurse best respond to this request?

Explanation

A) Refuse to give the information over the phone:
This option respects the patient's confidentiality and is the best course of action. Sharing sensitive medical information over the phone without proper verification and consent is not appropriate.

B) Give a noncommittal response that "everything is normal" even though it is untrue:
Providing false information compromises the integrity of the healthcare professional and can lead to serious consequences if discovered. It's essential to be honest and accurate when sharing medical information.

C) Give the results as they are reported on the laboratory sheet because the insurance company is paying for the test anyway:
Sharing medical information without proper consent, especially over the phone, is a violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. Insurance payment does not negate the need for patient consent and confidentiality.

D) Tell the representative that the test results are not back yet:
If the results are not yet available, it is appropriate to inform the insurance representative truthfully. However, if the results are available, the nurse should not provide them without proper authorization.


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Question 4:

What is the Under 12 rule?

Explanation

A) Children under 12, under special circumstances, may give consent:
In medical settings, especially involving serious procedures or treatments, children typically cannot provide informed consent without parental or guardian approval. There might be specific cases where mature minors, regardless of age, can provide consent, but this is generally determined by the individual's capacity to understand the implications of the decision.

B) Children under 12 are not allowed to be organ donors:
The ability for children under 12 to be organ donors is determined by various factors, including the specific organ, medical suitability, and the consent of parents or legal guardians. In some situations, organs from pediatric donors can be used for transplantation.

C) Children under 12 cannot be placed on an adult transplant list:
The decision to place a child on an adult transplant list depends on several factors, such as the severity of the medical condition, organ availability, and compatibility. Children can be placed on adult transplant lists in some cases, especially when there are medical considerations that make it necessary.

D) Children under 12 are not allowed to make decisions for themselves:
Children under 12 usually lack legal capacity to make major medical decisions without parental or guardian consent. In specific situations, mature minors might be involved in medical decision-making, but this is determined on a case-by-case basis and varies by jurisdiction.


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Question 5:

What is the primary function of a code of ethics?

Explanation

A) A framework for decision-making:
A code of ethics provides a framework that guides professionals in making ethical decisions. It offers principles and standards to help individuals navigate complex ethical dilemmas in their practice.

B) A collection of static rules:
While a code of ethics does contain specific rules and guidelines, it's not merely a static collection of rules. It includes broader ethical principles and values that professionals are expected to uphold.

C) A group of legally binding values:
While the principles in a code of ethics are important and often supported by laws and regulations, the code itself is not a set of legally binding rules. Violating the code might have professional consequences but doesn't necessarily result in legal penalties.

D) The "ball and chain" of the profession:
This phrase is not an accurate or respectful description of a code of ethics. A code of ethics is a professional responsibility and helps maintain high standards of practice and ethical conduct.


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Question 6:

How can a nurse acknowledge a client's autonomy?

Explanation

A) Follow only the instructions of the client's family:
This option does not acknowledge the client's autonomy. Autonomy means respecting the individual's right to make decisions about their own care, not decisions made solely by the family.

B) Know and understand the state's laws that address living wills:
Understanding laws related to living wills is essential. It ensures that the nurse respects the client's autonomous decisions regarding their healthcare preferences, as outlined in their living will.

C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client's care needs:
Using the principle of best interest does not necessarily acknowledge the client's autonomy. Best interest often involves making decisions that are in the client's overall best interest, which might conflict with the client's autonomous choices.

D) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities:
Paternalism involves making decisions for the client based on what the healthcare professional believes is best. It does not respect the client's autonomy as it involves overriding the client's choices.


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Question 7:

What key concepts are commonly found in nursing theories and models? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

Client: Clients or patients are at the center of nursing care, and their well-being is a primary focus of nursing theories and models.

Environment: The environment in which the client exists, including physical, social, and cultural factors, is often considered in nursing models. It can influence a client's health and well-being.

Health: Health is a central concept in nursing theories. Different models may define health in various ways, such as the absence of disease, a state of well-being, or the ability to function at one's fullest potential.

Nursing: Nursing itself is a key concept in nursing theories and models. These theories often outline the role of the nurse, their responsibilities, and their impact on the client's health and well-being.


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Question 8:

What are the rules of social conduct made by humans to protect society?

Explanation

Morals: Morals are individual beliefs or principles regarding what is right or wrong in behavior. They are personal and can be influenced by cultural, religious, or personal values. Morals guide an individual's actions based on their internal sense of right and wrong.

Values: Values are broader than morals. They refer to a set of beliefs and principles that guide an individual's attitudes and behavior. Values can include moral beliefs but also encompass other aspects such as social, political, or professional values. Values influence how a person interacts with others and society.

Laws: Laws are formal, established rules within a society that are created and enforced by governmental authorities. Laws are binding and applicable to all members of the society. They are designed to regulate behavior, maintain order, and protect the rights and safety of individuals.

Ethics: Ethics refers to a system of moral principles or values that guide the behavior of individuals or groups. In professional contexts, such as nursing, ethics often refers to the principles and standards that govern the conduct of healthcare professionals. Ethical guidelines help professionals make decisions that are morally sound and in the best interest of the patient. Ethics can be influenced by both personal moral beliefs and professional standards.


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Question 9:

Which is not a characteristic of Medicare?

Explanation

Covers services of nurse practitioners: Medicare does cover services provided by nurse practitioners within their scope of practice.

Does not pay full costs of certain services: Medicare often does not cover the full cost of certain services, and beneficiaries are responsible for copayments, deductibles, and sometimes premiums.

Finances a large portion of maternal and clinical care for the poor: Medicare, along with Medicaid, plays a significant role in financing healthcare services, including maternal and clinical care, for low-income individuals and families.

Supplemental insurance is necessary: While Medicare covers a wide range of services, there are gaps in coverage. Many beneficiaries choose to purchase supplemental insurance, also known as Medigap, to help cover the costs that Medicare doesn't, such as copayments and deductibles.


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Question 10:

Which statement is true concerning advanced directives?

Explanation

The document will name a durable power of attorney for health care (DPOAHC), who will make all medical decisions for the client, regardless of the client's mental status: This statement is partially correct. Advanced directives may include naming a healthcare proxy or DPOAHC, but their decisions are typically in line with the client's expressed wishes, especially if those wishes are documented in the advanced directive.

The document means nothing to the nurse because the attending physician will decide the client's care: This statement is incorrect. Advanced directives are legally binding documents that guide medical decisions when the client is unable to communicate or make decisions.

The document is a tool for client self-determination. It allows the client to express their desire for life-sustaining care when they are incapacitated: This statement is true. Advanced directives empower clients to make decisions about their healthcare preferences, including the desire for life-sustaining measures, in the event they become unable to communicate their wishes.

The nurse may assume the client is dying, and he or she will not call a "Rapid Response" or "Code Blue" if the client's status deteriorates: This statement is incorrect. The nurse should always follow appropriate protocols and initiate necessary interventions regardless of the presence of advanced directives, especially if the client's condition deteriorates.


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Question 11:

A physician writes a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

Explanation

A) The client's spouse: This choice suggests that the client's spouse has the authority to give permission for a DNR order. In most cases, it is the competent client themselves who has the authority to make decisions about their own medical treatment, including DNR orders. Spouses may have a say and their input is considered, but the ultimate decision typically lies with the competent client.

B) The client's only child: This choice suggests that the client's only child can give permission for a DNR order. Similar to the explanation for choice A, the decision-making authority for a DNR order generally rests with the competent client, not their child. However, a client may choose to discuss their medical decisions with their child and take their wishes into consideration.

C) The client: This choice correctly identifies that the competent client themselves is the one who typically has the legal and ethical authority to make decisions about their medical treatment, including DNR orders. This is based on principles of autonomy and respect for the individual's wishes.

D) Any close blood-related relative: This choice suggests that any close blood-related relative has the authority to give permission for a DNR order. Similar to choices A and B, the decision-making authority is typically with the competent client. While family members' input is valuable and should be considered, they do not have the ultimate decision-making power for the client's medical treatment.


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Question 12:

What are best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person's life?

Explanation

A) Morals: Morals refer to the principles or habits with respect to right or wrong conduct. While related to values, they are narrower in scope, focusing on individual beliefs about right and wrong.

B) Values: Values are the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that guide and give meaning to a person's life. They are the principles or standards of behavior that individuals or groups consider important in their lives. Morals are closely related but usually refer to an individual's specific beliefs about what is right and wrong. Laws are rules or regulations established and enforced by a government, while ethics are the study of what is morally right and wrong.

C) Laws: Laws are rules or regulations established and enforced by a government. They are not concepts or ideals but formal regulations.

D) Ethics: Ethics refers to the study of what is morally right and wrong. It is a broader field that encompasses moral values and principles.


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Question 13:

Which ethical principle protects clients from harm?

Explanation

A) Beneficence: Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good for the patient and promote their well-being. While related, it's not specifically about avoiding harm.

B) Nonmaleficence: Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation of healthcare providers to do no harm to the patient. It involves avoiding the infliction of harm, preventing harm, and removing harm.

C) Autonomy: Autonomy refers to respecting the patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. It's about informed consent and self-determination, not specifically about preventing harm.

D) Veracity: Veracity refers to truthfulness and honesty in communication with patients. While important, it doesn't directly address the principle of preventing harm.


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Question 14:

Which describes Middle Range Theory the best?

Explanation

A) An accepted method for understanding the world and what is in it: This option is a general description of theory but does not specifically define middle-range theory. Middle-range theory is a specific type of theory within the nursing field.

B) An in-depth review of the literature concerning a particular item of study: This option describes a literature review, not a middle-range theory. While literature reviews are an essential part of developing theories, they are not the definition of a middle-range theory.

C) A set of relatively concrete concepts that lie between minor working hypotheses: Middle-range theories are more specific and focused than grand theories but broader than minor working hypotheses. They consist of concrete concepts and propositions that help explain and predict limited aspects of nursing practice. They serve as bridges between theoretical nursing models and actual nursing practice.

D) An organized unit with a set of components that interact and affect each other, a system that acts as a whole: This option describes a general concept of a system but does not specifically define middle-range theory.


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Question 15:

What distinguishes a middle-range theory from a grand theory of nursing?

Explanation

Middle-range theories have a large number of variables, while grand theories have only a few:Both middle-range theories and grand theories can have varying numbers of variables. The number of variables is not the distinguishing factor between them.

Grand theories are socially significant, while middle-range theories have theoretical significance: Grand theories often have a broader scope and are more abstract, addressing fundamental concepts related to nursing and health. They tend to be more theoretical and less focused on specific practical applications. Middle-range theories, on the other hand, are more specific and are developed to explain and predict limited aspects of nursing practice, making them applicable to particular situations. While grand theories might be seen as socially significant due to their broader concepts, middle-range theories are valuable for their theoretical significance in guiding specific areas of practice.

Middle-range theories form a theoretical framework for evidence-based practice (EBP) research projects: Middle-range theories are often used in nursing research and practice to guide specific research questions and interventions. They provide a structured framework for understanding and addressing specific phenomena, making them valuable in evidence-based practice initiatives.

There are fewer middle-range theories than there are grand theories: The number of theories in both categories can vary, and it's not accurate to say that there are inherently fewer middle-range theories than grand theories. Both categories have contributed significantly to the development of nursing knowledge, and the quantity of theories in each category does not define their value or impact.


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Question 16:

Which of the following would not be appropriate documentation in the client chart?

Explanation

The client missed his follow-up appointment:This information is relevant to the client's care, indicating a missed appointment and potential need for rescheduling or follow-up.

The client stopped taking his medications: This is crucial information about the client's medication adherence, which can impact their health outcomes and treatment plan.

The client refused to go to therapy: Documenting the client's refusal of therapy is essential for continuity of care and ensuring that the healthcare team is aware of the client's decisions regarding their treatment.

The nurse thinks the client is hostile: Documenting the nurse's personal opinion about the client being hostile is not appropriate in the client's chart. Objective, observable behaviors should be documented, but subjective judgments or personal opinions about the client's demeanor or attitude should not be included in the chart. It is important to maintain professionalism and objectivity in documentation.


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Question 17:

What belief forms the basis for the Orem Self-Care Model?

Explanation

The nurse helps the client adapt to his or her illness: This statement refers to the nursing role in supporting patients in coping with their illnesses. Nurses provide education, emotional support, and strategies for adaptation, helping clients adjust to their health conditions. However, this statement does not capture the essence of the Orem Self-Care Model, which focuses on the individual's responsibility for their own health and self-care.

The primary goal of healthcare is a cure for the client: While curing diseases is a fundamental goal in healthcare, not all conditions are curable. The Orem Self-Care Model goes beyond the curative aspect and emphasizes the individual's active involvement in maintaining their health, whether they are ill or not. It places importance on the daily activities and routines that individuals can perform to enhance their well-being.

Healthcare is the responsibility of each individual: This statement reflects the core principle of the Orem Self-Care Model. It emphasizes that individuals have a personal responsibility for their own health and well-being. This responsibility includes taking actions to maintain health, prevent illness, and manage existing health conditions. The model provides a framework for understanding and assessing self-care abilities and needs.

Healthcare goals must be established for each client: While setting healthcare goals is an essential part of nursing care, the Orem Self-Care Model focuses more on empowering individuals to establish and achieve their own self-care goals. It emphasizes the individual's ability to identify their needs and develop strategies to meet those needs. The model guides nurses in assessing a person's self-care abilities and helping them improve their self-care skills.


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Question 18:

he newborn nursery is desperately short of staff. During the 14th hour on duty, the nurse makes a medication error. What is the nurse's legal responsibility?

Explanation

The hospital accepts full responsibility for the negligent act: While the hospital does have a shared responsibility for the safety of patients, individual healthcare professionals are accountable for their actions. Hospitals may face consequences as well, but individual practitioners are legally responsible for their own actions.

No legal action can be brought against the nurse: If a nurse makes a medication error, legal action can be taken. Healthcare professionals are accountable for their actions, and legal consequences can follow if negligence or malpractice occurs.

The nurse's legal responsibilities are met if an incident report is filed: Filing an incident report is an important step in addressing errors, but it does not absolve the nurse of legal responsibility. It is a tool used within healthcare institutions to improve patient safety and learn from mistakes, but it does not eliminate the legal consequences of an error.

The nurse is held to the same standard of care as any nurse with her education and experience: Nurses are held to a standard of care based on their education, experience, and the specific circumstances of the situation. If a nurse fails to meet this standard, they can be held legally responsible for their actions.


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Question 19:

What is the best definition of assault?

Explanation

Application of force to another person without lawful justification: This describes battery, not assault. Battery involves the actual application of force or harmful contact with another person.

Threats to do bodily harm to the person or another person: Assault refers to the intentional act of causing someone to fear that they will be physically harmed. It involves the threat of harm, not the actual physical contact.

A legal wrong committed by one person against the property of another: This describes trespass to property, which involves interfering with another person's property without permission.

A legal wrong committed against the public and punishable by law: This is a broad description of a crime, but it does not specifically define assault. Assault is a specific type of crime involving the threat of bodily harm.


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Question 20:

Which is the best description of battery?

Explanation

Doing something that a reasonable person with the same education or preparation would not do: This describes negligence, not battery. Negligence refers to the failure to act with the same level of care that a reasonable person with similar education and preparation would have taken in the same situation.

A legal wrong committed by one person against the property of another: This describes trespass to property, not battery. Trespass to property involves intentionally interfering with another person's property without permission.

Application of force to the person or another person without lawful justification or permission: Battery is a deliberate physical contact with another person without their consent. It involves the intentional application of force or harmful or offensive contact with another person, regardless of the extent of injury caused.

Maligning the character of an individual: This refers to defamation, not battery. Defamation involves making false statements that harm the reputation of an individual.


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Question 21:

A nurse tells several friends and coworkers that a client, who is also a physician, is unsafe for medical practice because he is paralyzed from the waist down and acts "slightly silly." What type of tort did the nurse commit?

Explanation

Libel: Libel is a form of defamation that occurs in written or printed words, pictures, or any form other than spoken words or gestures. Since the nurse's actions involved spoken words, it doesn't constitute libel.

Fraud: Fraud involves intentional deception to secure unfair or unlawful gain, or to deprive someone of a legal right. While the nurse's actions were inappropriate and unprofessional, they don't necessarily involve financial or material deception, which is a characteristic of fraud.

Slander: Slander is a form of defamation that involves making false spoken statements that harm the reputation of another person. In this case, the nurse verbally spread false and damaging information about the client, harming their professional reputation.

Malpractice: Malpractice refers to professional negligence or a professional misconduct that results in harm to a patient. While the nurse's actions were inappropriate, they might not directly fall under the category of malpractice unless the client suffered harm due to the nurse's statements impacting their medical care.


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Question 22:

Do not resuscitate (DNR) orders are legally separate from advance directives.

Explanation

A Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order is indeed legally separate from advance directives. While both deal with medical interventions, they are distinct concepts:
Advance directives are legal documents that allow individuals to specify their medical treatment preferences in case they become unable to communicate or make decisions. These can include living wills, durable power of attorney for healthcare, and healthcare proxies. Advance directives provide a broader set of instructions regarding medical care and decision-making.

DNR orders, on the other hand, specifically address the issue of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A DNR order instructs healthcare providers not to attempt CPR if a person's heart stops beating or they stop breathing. DNR orders are often a part of a person's broader advance directives, but they focus specifically on resuscitation efforts.


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Question 23:

How is the "client" most accurately described in Johnson's Behavioral System Model?

Explanation

An individual who is responsible for his or her health care: While client responsibility is a concept in healthcare, it is not the primary focus of Johnson's Behavioral System Model. The model primarily focuses on the client as a dynamic system.

A behavioral system that is an integrated whole: This statement is partly correct; however, it doesn't fully capture the essence of Johnson's model. Johnson does focus on behavioral systems, but the model is more comprehensive, considering the client as a dynamic entity with inputs, processes, and outputs.

A dynamic entity with both input and output: This accurately reflects the essence of Johnson's Behavioral System Model. In this model, the client is seen as a dynamic system that processes inputs (stimuli from the internal and external environment) and produces outputs (responses or behaviors). The interactions between these inputs and outputs determine the client's adaptation and overall health.

An individual who must adapt to illness: While adaptation is a central concept in Johnson's model, it doesn't solely focus on illness adaptation. It encompasses a broader view of the individual's behavioral responses to various stimuli and stressors in both health and illness contexts.


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Question 24:

What are the ethical principles sometimes overlooked in identifying and reporting suspected child abuse?

Explanation

Best interest and nonmaleficence: These principles are typically not overlooked in child abuse cases. Ensuring the best interest of the child and avoiding harm are fundamental principles in child protection.

Privacy and self-determination: These principles can sometimes conflict with the need to report child abuse. Privacy concerns might make individuals hesitant to report suspicions, especially if they fear repercussions. Self-determination, especially in cases involving older children or teenagers, can complicate reporting if the child denies the abuse or refuses intervention.

Paternalism and beneficence: These principles, which involve acting in the best interest of the child even without their consent, are usually not overlooked. In cases of suspected child abuse, acting in the child's best interest often takes precedence.

Veracity and obligation: Veracity (truthfulness) is important in reporting child abuse, but it's not typically overlooked. Obligation to protect the child's safety and well-being often overrides concerns about confidentiality in suspected cases of abuse.


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Question 25:

What is the primary role of the nurse in Swanson's Theory of Caring?

Explanation

To motivate clients to maintain and improve their health: This role does not directly align with Swanson's Theory of Caring. Swanson's theory focuses more on understanding the patient's perspective and addressing their individual needs, rather than solely motivating them to improve their health.

To guide the client through discussions of their experiences so that they believe that their problems are understood: This statement is partially aligned with Swanson's Theory of Caring. Swanson emphasizes understanding the patient's experiences and concerns, but the theory goes beyond mere discussions. It encompasses empathetic understanding and meaningful interaction with the patient to comprehend their needs deeply.

To reinforce all of the client's actions that they undertake to protect themselves from harm, either internal or external, and are shown in actions toward others and the environment in general: This statement does not represent the primary role in Swanson's Theory of Caring. Swanson's theory emphasizes the nurse's role in understanding the patient's experiences, emotions, and life context, which goes beyond reinforcing actions for self-protection.

To guide clients in finding and understanding the meaning of their lives: This statement aligns with Swanson's Theory of Caring. According to Swanson, the nurse's primary role is to guide the client in exploring and understanding the meaning of their lives. This involves deep engagement, active listening, and empathy to help patients make sense of their experiences and find meaning in their situations.


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