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Showing 18 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is assessing a newborn at birth using Apgar scoring system and notes that he has no respiratory effort, no heart rate, no muscle tone, no reflex irritability, and is blue all over his body.
What Apgar score would you give this patient?
Explanation
The Apgar score is a scoring system that assesses the condition of the newborn at one and five minutes after birth based on five parameters: activity, pulse, grimace, appearance, and respiration.Each parameter is given a score of 0, 1, or 2, with a maximum total score of 10.A score of 7 to 10 is considered normal, a score of 4 to 6 is moderately abnormal, and a score of 0 to 3 is severely abnormal.
In this case, the newborn has no respiratory effort, no heart rate, no muscle tone, no reflex irritability, and is blue all over his body.
Therefore, he would receive a score of 0 for each parameter, resulting in a total Apgar score of 0.
Choice B is wrong because a score of 1 means that the newborn has at least one parameter with a score of 1.For example, if the newborn has a heart rate of less than 100 beats per minute but no other signs of life, he would receive a score of 1 for pulse and 0 for the rest, resulting in a total Apgar score of 1.
Choice C is wrong because a score of 2 means that the newborn has at least one parameter with a score of 2 or two parameters with a score of 1.
For example, if the newborn has a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute and some
A nurse is caring for a newborn who has an Apgar score of 8 at one minute after birth and an Apgar score of 10 at five minutes after birth.
Which statement best describes this newborn’s condition?
Explanation
The newborn had some problems at birth but is now in excellent condition.
The Apgar score is a method of assessing the health of a newborn on a scale of 0 to 10 based on five criteria: appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration.
A score of 7 to 10 indicates that the newborn is in good condition and does not need any special care.
A score of 4 to 6 indicates that the newborn has some problems and may need some assistance.
A score of 0 to 3 indicates that the newborn is in serious trouble and needs immediate medical attention.
Choice A is wrong because a score of 8 at one minute after birth does not indicate a difficult transition.
It means that the newborn had only minor problems and was in good condition.
Choice B is wrong because a score of 10 at five minutes after birth does not indicate an improvement from a score of 8.
It means that the newborn had no problems and was in excellent condition.
Choice D is wrong because a score of 10 at five minutes after birth does not indicate a deterioration from a score of 8.
It means that the newborn had no problems and was in excellent condition.
Normal ranges for the Apgar score are:
• At one minute after birth: 7 to 10
• At five minutes after birth: 8 to 10
A nurse is teaching a class on Apgar scoring to nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching
Explanation
This is wrong because acrocyanosis means that the body is pink but the extremities are blue, which indicates poor circulation.A normal Apgar score for color is two points, which means that the baby is pink all over.
Choice A is correct because a heart rate below 100 beats per minute is considered moderately abnormal and receives one point.
Choice C is correct because active motion of extremities indicates good muscle tone and receives two points.
Choice D is correct because a vigorous cry when stimulated indicates good reflex irritability and receives two points.
A nurse is assessing a newborn's gestational age using the New Ballard Scale.
Which of the following signs would indicate prematurity?
Explanation
Thin and transparent skin is a sign of prematurity in newborns.The New Ballard Scale is a scale that estimates the gestational age of a newborn infant based on physical and neuromuscular characteristics.
The other choices are signs of maturity or postmaturity in newborns:
• Choice B: Well-developed breastbuds indicate a gestational age of 38 to 44 weeks.
• Choice C: Creases on the bottom of feet indicate a gestational age of 32 to 44 weeks.
• Choice D: Developed labia indicate a gestational age of 40 to 44 weeks.
The normal range for gestational age is 37 to 42 weeks.Premature infants are those born before 37 weeks, and postmature infants are those born after 42 weeks.
A client asks the nurse about the purpose of the New Ballard Scale.
How should the nurse respond?
Explanation
It helps identify potential developmental delays.The New Ballard Scale is a scale that estimates the gestational age of a newborn infant based on physical and neuromuscular characteristics.The scale can be used when there is no reliable obstetrical information or a major discrepancy between the estimated date of delivery and the infant’s appearance.The scale is accurate only within plus or minus 2 weeks and can be used up to 4 days after birth, but usually within the first 24 hours.The scale has been refined and expanded to include extremely premature neonates.
Choice A is wrong because the New Ballard Scale does not determine the newborn’s nutritional needs.It only assesses the gestational maturity of the newborn based on physical and neuromuscular signs.
Choice B is wrong because the New Ballard Scale does not assess the baby’s cognitive development.It only estimates the gestational age of the newborn, which is the primary determinant of organ maturity.
Choice D is wrong because the New Ballard Scale does not measure the newborn’s respiratory function.It only evaluates the physical and neuromuscular characteristics of the newborn, such as skin texture, lanugo, plantar surface, breast tissue, eye/ear development and genitalia.
A nurse is performing the physical maturity test on a newborn using the New Ballard Scale.
What characteristic would the nurse assess?
Explanation
Flexion in different positions.The New Ballard Scale is a scale that estimates the gestational age of a newborn infant based on physical and neuromuscular characteristics.Flexion in different positions is one of the six neuromuscular signs that are assessed using the scale.The other neuromuscular signs are square window, arm recoil, popliteal angle, scarf sign, and heel to ear.
The other statements are wrong because:
Skin thickness and presence of lanugo are physical signs, not neuromuscular signs.They are also assessed using the New Ballard Scale, along with plantar surface, breast, eye/ear, and genitals.
Creases on the bottom of feet are part of the plantar surface assessment, which is a physical sign, not a neuromuscular sign.
Scrotum development is part of the genital assessment, which is a physical sign, not a neuromuscular sign.
The New Ballard Scale can be used up to 4 days after birth, but usually within the first 24 hours.The scale is accurate only within plus or minus 2 weeks.The total score determines the gestational maturity in weeks.
A nurse palpates an infant’s anterior fontanelle and notes that it feels soft and flat when lying down, but slightly elevated when sitting up or crying.
What should be included in documentation?
Explanation
Normal finding.
The anterior fontanelle is the soft spot on the top of an infant’s head that allows for brain growth and skull expansion.
It normally feels soft and flat when the infant is lying down, and may bulge slightly when the infant is sitting up or crying due to increased blood flow and pressure.
This is not a sign of any problem and should be documented as a normal finding.
Dehydration is wrong because dehydration would cause the fontanelle to feel sunken or depressed, not elevated. Dehydration can also cause other signs such as dry mouth, decreased urine output, and lethargy.
Increased intracranial pressure is wrong because increased intracranial pressure would cause the fontanelle to feel tense or bulging at all times, not only when sitting up or crying. Increased intracranial pressure can also cause other signs such as vomiting, irritability, seizures, and altered level of consciousness.
Infection is wrong because infection would cause the fontanelle to feel warm or tender, not elevated. Infection can also cause other signs such as fever, rash, poor feeding, and fussiness.
A nurse observes that an infant has an elongated head shape due to molding during delivery.
The nurse explains to the parents that this condition is called:
Explanation
Plagiocephaly.
This condition is also known as flat head syndrome and it occurs when an infant’s head shape becomes flattened due to external pressure.It can be caused by molding during delivery or by sleeping in the same position for a long time.
Choice A is wrong because caput succedaneum is a swelling of the scalp that results from pressure on the baby’s head during childbirth.It does not affect the shape of the head, but only causes temporary puffiness and bruising.
Choice B is wrong because cephalohematoma is bleeding under the scalp that occurs when blood vessels are damaged during delivery.It causes a firm lump on one side of the head that does not cross the suture lines.
Choice C is wrong because craniosynostosis is a condition where one or more of the sutures (joints) between the skull bones close prematurely, preventing normal growth of the head.It can cause an abnormal head shape, but it is not related to molding during delivery.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has a cephalohematoma on the left side of his skull.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Monitor for signs of jaundice.A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood under the scalp that occurs due to trauma or pressure during delivery.It may increase the risk of jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of red blood cells and the release of bilirubin.Jaundice is a condition that causes yellowing of the skin and eyes due to high levels of bilirubin in the blood.Monitoring for signs of jaundice is important to prevent complications such as brain damage or kernicterus.
Apply pressure dressing over the area.This is wrong because applying pressure may increase the bleeding and cause more damage to the scalp and skull.A cephalohematoma does not require any treatment and usually resolves on its own within weeks or months.
Administer antibiotics as prescribed.This is wrong because antibiotics are not indicated for a cephalohematoma unless there is evidence of infection.Infection is a rare complication that may lead to osteomyelitis or meningitis.Antibiotics should be used only if prescribed by a doctor based on clinical signs and laboratory tests.
Elevate the head of the bed.This is wrong because elevating the head of the bed may not have any effect on a cephalohematoma.It may also cause discomfort or compromise the airway of the newborn.The position of the baby should be adjusted according to their comfort and safety.
A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s mouth.
The nurse should identify that which of the following is an expected variation for this client?
Explanation
Darkening of the mucosa.This is an expected variation for an older adult client because the melanin production increases with age.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
• Choice A.White patches on the tongue could indicate candidiasis, an oral fungal infection.
• Choice B.Bleeding of the gums could indicate gingivitis, periodontitis, or vitamin C deficiency.
• Choice C.Red spots on the hard palate could indicate petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by trauma, infection, or bleeding disorders.
Normal ranges for oral mucosa color vary depending on the skin tone and ethnicity of the client.Generally, the oral mucosa should be pink and moist without lesions or discolorations.
A nurse is preparing to assess a client’s conjunctiva.
Identify the sequence the nurse should follow when taking the following actions.
1) Apply examination gloves.
2) Instruct the client to look up.
3) Place the thumbs below each of the client’s lower eyelids.
4) Gently pull the client’s skin down to the top edge of the bony orbital rim.
5) Inspect the color and condition of the conductive and sclera, noting any color change, swelling, drainage, or lesions.
Explanation
The nurse should follow the sequence of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 when assessing the client’s conjunctiva.This is because the nurse should first apply examination gloves to prevent contamination and infection.Then, the nurse should instruct the client to look up to expose the lower eyelid and conjunctiva.Next, the nurse should place the thumbs below each of the client’s lower eyelids and gently pull the skin down to the top edge of the bony orbital rim.This allows the nurse to inspect the color and condition of the conjunctiva and sclera, noting any color change, swelling, drainage, or lesions.The sclera should be white and the conjunctiva should be pink.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not pull down the skin before instructing the client to look up.
This could cause discomfort and injury to the eye.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should not instruct the client to look up after pulling down the skin.
This could also cause discomfort and injury to the eye.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not place the thumbs below each of the client’s lower eyelids before applying examination gloves.
This could introduce infection and irritants to the eye.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports that he has a headache and vertigo after turning on his furnace for the first time this season.
The nurse suspect which of the following?
Explanation
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
This is because the client reports having a headache and vertigo after turning on his furnace for the first time this season.These are common symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can occur when carbon monoxide, a colorless and odorless gas, builds up in the blood due to exposure to combustion fumes.
The furnace may have been a source of carbon monoxide if it was not well vented or maintained.
The other statements are wrong because:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that causes vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and ear fullness. It is not related to carbon monoxide exposure or furnace use.
Migraine is a type of headache that causes throbbing pain, nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and sometimes visual disturbances. It is not caused by carbon monoxide exposure or furnace use, but by genetic and environmental factors.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a condition that causes brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It is caused by tiny crystals in the inner ear that become dislodged and stimulate the balance sensors. It is not related to carbon monoxide exposure or furnace use.
A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin ointment to a newborn’s eyes as prophylaxis for gonorrhea and chlamydia infections.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Apply a thin ribbon of ointment along the inner canthus of each eye.This is the recommended method for administering erythromycin ointment to a newborn’s eyes as prophylaxis for gonorrhea and chlamydia infections.The ointment should be applied into the conjunctival sac to avoid accidental injury to the eye.
ChoiceBis wrong because the eyes should not be wiped off after applying the ointment.The ointment will gradually dissolve and disperse over the eye surface.
ChoiceCis wrong because the medication is an ointment, not a drop.
A drop would not provide adequate coverage of the eye and would be more likely to cause irritation
A nurse is caring for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and is receiving phototherapy.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Cover the newborn’s eyes with eye shields or patches.This is because phototherapy can cause eye damage and irritation to the newborn, so the eyes should be protected while the lights are on.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
• Choice A is wrong because applying sunscreen to the newborn’s skin before placing under the lights can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.
• Choice C is wrong because turning off the phototherapy lights during feedings can reduce the exposure time and delay the clearance of bilirubin from the newborn’s blood.
• Choice D is wrong because keeping the newborn fully clothed to prevent heat loss can also interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and increase the risk of overheating and dehydration.
Normal ranges for bilirubin levels in newborns vary depending on the age, gestational age, and risk factors of the newborn.Generally, a total serum bilirubin level of less than 12 mg/dL (205 micromol/L) is considered normal for term newborns in the first week of life.Phototherapy is usually indicated when the total serum bilirubin level exceeds 15 mg/dL (257 micromol/L) for term newborns or 10 mg/dL (171 micromol/L) for preterm newborns.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a newborn who was born to a mother who has type O positive blood and tested negative for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
The newborn has type A positive blood and tested positive for Coombs antibody (anti-A).
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Monitor the newborn for signs of jaundice and anemia.
This is because the newborn has a positive Coombs test, which means that there are antibodies against the newborn’s red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood.
These antibodies can cause hemolysis (destruction) of the RBCs, leading to jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes due to high bilirubin levels) and anemia (low RBC count and hemoglobin levels).The most likely cause of the positive Coombs test in this case is ABO incompatibility, which occurs when the mother has type O blood and the newborn has type A or B blood.
Choice A is wrong because administering hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) to the newborn within 12 hours of birth is indicated for newborns whose mothers are positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), which is not the case here.
Choice C is wrong because obtaining a blood sample from the newborn for blood typing and crossmatching is not necessary, as the newborn’s blood type is already known to be A positive.
Choice D is wrong because preparing the newborn for exchange transfusion with type O negative blood is a treatment option for severe cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), which is not evident in this scenario.Exchange transfusion involves replacing the newborn’s blood with donor blood to remove antibodies and bilirubin.
A nurse is performing a head-to-toe assessment of a newborn.
What finding should alert the nurse to a potential problem with the newborn’s fontanelles?
Explanation
Bulging fontanelles.Bulging fontanelles can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure or intracranial and extracranial tumors.This is a potential problem for the newborn’s brain and health and should be evaluated by imaging studies.
Choice A is wrong because sunken fontanelles are usually a sign of dehydration, which is not a problem with the fontanelles themselves, but with the fluid balance of the newborn.
Choice C is wrong because a diamond-shaped anterior fontanelle is normal for a newborn.The anterior fontanelle is the largest and most important for clinical evaluation.It has an average size of 2.1 cm and a median time of closure of 13.8 months.
Choice D is wrong because a triangular posterior fontanelle is also normal for a newborn.The posterior fontanelle is smaller than the anterior one and normally closes by 8 weeks.
A nurse is supporting bonding and attachment between parents and their newborn.
What intervention should the nurse implement to promote skin-to-skin contact?
Explanation
Place the newborn on the mother’s chest after delivery.This is because skin-to-skin contact between mother and baby promotes bonding and attachment, which are essential for the baby’s emotional and psychological development.Skin-to-skin contact also helps regulate the baby’s body temperature, heart rate, breathing and blood sugar levels.
Choice B is wrong because wrapping the newborn in a blanket reduces the skin-to-skin contact and may interfere with the bonding process.The father can also bond with the baby by holding him or her against his own skin.
Choice C is wrong because placing the newborn in an isolette separates the baby from the mother and prevents close interaction and communication.The baby may feel insecure and isolated in an isolette.
Choice D is wrong because dressing the newborn in a gown and hat also reduces the skin-to-skin contact and may delay the initiation of breastfeeding.The baby may also lose more heat through clothing than through direct contact with the mother’s body.
Select all that apply.
A nurse is providing comfort measures to a newborn during an assessment.
What non-pharmacological interventions can the nurse use to soothe the newborn?
Explanation
Swaddling, pacifiers, gentle touch and music therapy are all non-pharmacological interventions that can help soothe a newborn during an assessment.
These methods can provide comfort, security, distraction and stimulation for the newborn.
Choice D is wrong because glucose water is a pharmacological intervention that can be used to reduce pain during procedures such as heel sticks or circumcision.Glucose water should not be given routinely to newborns as it can interfere with breastfeeding and cause electrolyte imbalances.
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