Antihypertensives and Cardiovascular Medications > Pharmacology
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Showing 19 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is prescribed metoprolol, a beta blocker. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Explanation
This is because metoprolol is a beta blocker, which can block the beta-2 receptors in the lungs and cause constriction of the airways.This can lead to breathing problems such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing. Bronchospasm is more likely to occur in people who have asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice A is wrong because tachycardia, or fast heart rate, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. In fact, metoprolol can lower the heart rate by blocking the beta-1 receptors in the heart.A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).Metoprolol can cause bradycardia, or slow heart rate, which can be a serious side effect if it is too low.
Choice B is wrong because hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol does not affect the insulin secretion or glucose metabolism in the body.A normal blood sugar level for adults without diabetes is less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. Metoprolol can cause hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, in people who have diabetes and take insulin or other glucose-lowering medications.This is because metoprolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as palpitations and tremors.
Choice D is wrong because hyperkalemia, or high potassium, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol does not affect the potassium balance in the body.
A normal blood potassium level for adults is 3.6 to 5.2 millimoles per liter (mmol/L)
A nurse is evaluating a client who has hypertension and is taking lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
Explanation
The client has a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg. This indicates that the medication is effective because it lowers the blood pressure below the hypertensive levels.In adults 60 years of age or older, this is typically defined as a systolic pressure below 150 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure below 90 mm Hg.
Choice A is wrong because the client has no edema in the lower extremities. This is not a specific outcome of lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Edema can be caused by many factors, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or venous insufficiency. Lisinopril does not directly affect fluid retention or edema.
Choice B is wrong because the client has a urine output of 30 mL/hr. This is a low urine output that may indicate dehydration, kidney impairment, or urinary obstruction. Lisinopril is expected to increase urine output by reducing the blood pressure and improving the renal blood flow.
Choice D is wrong because the client has a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL. This is a high serum creatinine level that may indicate kidney damage or reduced kidney function. Lisinopril is expected to lower the serum creatinine level by preventing the progression of kidney disease and protecting the kidney from further injury.
Normal ranges of urine output, blood pressure, and serum creatinine are:
• Urine output: 800 to 2000 mL/day or 40 to 80 mL/hr
• Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mm Hg for adults
• Serum creatinine: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for females
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and is prescribed nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, about self-care measures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that lowers blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart.
The following instructions should be included in the teaching:
• Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.Alcohol can increase the risk of side effects such as dizziness, flushing, headache, and low blood pressure.
• Monitor your blood pressure and pulse regularly.This will help to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication and detect any abnormal changes.Normal blood pressure for adults is less than 130/80 mm Hg and normal pulse rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute.
• Report any swelling in your ankles or feet to your provider.This can be a sign of fluid retention or heart failure, which are possible complications of nifedipine.
• Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.This can cause a rebound increase in blood pressure and chest pain.The dose should be tapered gradually under the supervision of the provider.
Choice E is wrong because chewing or crushing the sustained-release tablet can cause too much of the drug to be released at once, which can lead to overdose or severe side effects.
The tablet should be swallowed whole with a glass of water.
Which drug blocks the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors on blood vessels and adrenal glands, preventing its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-stimulating effects?
Explanation
Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) block the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors on blood vessels and adrenal glands, preventing its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-stimulating effects
Choice A is wrong because beta blockers do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather beta-adrenergic receptors, which are involved in the sympathetic nervous system.Beta blockers reduce heart rate and blood pressure by inhibiting the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline
Choice B is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather calcium channels, which are involved in the contraction of smooth muscle cells.Calcium channel blockers relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure by reducing the influx of calcium into the cells
Choice D is wrong because direct acting vasodilators do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather act directly on the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, causing them to relax and dilate.Direct acting vasodilators lower blood pressure by decreasing peripheral resistance
Which drug increases the excretion of water and sodium by the kidneys, reducing blood volume and blood pressure?
Explanation
Diuretics are drugs that increase the excretion of water and sodium by the kidneys, reducing blood volume and blood pressure.Diuretics lower blood pressure by dilating peripheral arterioles and decreasing blood volume by increasing the excretion of sodium and water.
Choice A is wrong because angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors do not increase the excretion of water and sodium by the kidneys.ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulator of aldosterone secretion.By reducing angiotensin II levels, ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by dilating blood vessels and decreasing sodium and water retention.
Choice C is wrong because adrenergic drugs do not increase the excretion of water and sodium by the kidneys. Adrenergic drugs act on the sympathetic nervous system, which regulates heart rate, blood pressure, and other functions. Depending on the type and location of adrenergic receptors, adrenergic drugs can have different effects on blood pressure. Some adrenergic drugs can increase blood pressure by stimulating alpha receptors, which cause vasoconstriction.Other adrenergic drugs can decrease blood pressure by stimulating beta receptors, which cause vasodilation and decreased cardiac output.
Choice D is wrong because direct acting vasodilators do not increase the excretion of water and sodium by the kidneys. Direct acting vasodilators are drugs that relax the smooth muscle of blood vessels, causing them to widen and lower blood pressure.Direct acting vasodilators do not affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system or the sympathetic nervous system, which regulate sodium and water balance.
Which drugs act on the sympathetic nervous system, which regulates blood pressure by controlling heart rate, cardiac output, vascular tone, and renin release?
Explanation
Adrenergic drugs.These are drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system by mimicking or enhancing the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine, the chemical messengers that activate adrenergic receptors.Adrenergic drugs can increase blood pressure, heart rate, cardiac output, vascular tone, and renin release by acting on different types of adrenergic receptors.
Choice A is wrong because beta blockers are drugs that inhibit the sympathetic nervous system by blocking the beta adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for increasing heart rate and contractility. Beta blockers can lower blood pressure and reduce cardiac workload.
Choice B is wrong because calcium channel blockers are drugs that inhibit the movement of calcium ions across the cell membrane of smooth muscle cells, which are found in blood vessels and the heart.Calcium channel blockers can relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure, as well as reduce heart rate and contractility.
Choice C is wrong because angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are drugs that block the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, which increases sodium and water retention.
ARBs can lower blood pressure by dilating blood
A patient with atrial fibrillation has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory value to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?
Explanation
Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat atrial fibrillation and heart failure.
It works by increasing the force of cardiac contraction and slowing down the heart rate.
However, digoxin can also cause toxicity, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias.
One of the risk factors for digoxin toxicity is hypokalemia, or low serum potassium level.
Potassium is an electrolyte that is essential for normal cardiac function and conduction.When the serum potassium level is low, digoxin binds more strongly to the cardiac cells and increases its effects, which can result in bradycardia, heart block, or ventricular tachycardia.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum potassium level to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of digoxin therapy.
Choice B) Serum sodium level is wrong because sodium is not directly related to digoxin action or toxicity.
Sodium is another electrolyte that is important for fluid balance and blood pressure regulation.However, sodium does not affect the binding of digoxin to the cardiac cells or its effects on the heart rate and contractility.
Therefore, the nurse does not need to monitor the serum sodium level to evaluate digoxin therapy.
Choice C) Serum magnesium level is wrong because magnesium is not directly related to digoxin action or toxicity.
Magnesium is another electrolyte that is involved in many enzymatic reactions and neuromuscular function.However, magnesium does not affect the binding of digoxin to the cardiac cells or its effects on the heart rate and contractility.
Therefore, the nurse does not need to monitor the serum magnesium level to evaluate digoxin therapy.
Choice D) Serum calcium level is wrong because calcium is not directly related to digoxin action or toxicity.
Calcium is another electrolyte that is essential for bone health and muscle contraction.However, calcium does not affect the binding of digoxin to the cardiac cells or its effects on the heart rate and contractility.
Therefore, the nurse does not need to monitor the serum calcium level to evaluate digoxin therapy.
The normal range for serum potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq
The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The patient’s INR level is 3.5, which is above therapeutic range. What action should the nurse take?
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming or growing larger. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. The INR (international normalized ratio) is a measure of how long it takes the blood to clot.The therapeutic range for INR depends on the indication for warfarin therapy, but for atrial fibrillation, it is usually between 2 and 3. An INR level of 3.5 is above the therapeutic range, which means the blood is too thin and the patient is at risk of bleeding. The nurse should hold the warfarin dose and notify the physician, who may order vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
Choice A) Administer vitamin K as ordered by physician is wrong because vitamin K is not indicated unless the physician orders it based on the patient’s condition and INR level.
Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin overdose and can reverse its anticoagulant effects.
However, administering vitamin K without a physician’s order may cause the INR to drop below the therapeutic range and increase the risk of clotting.
Choice B) Administer heparin as ordered by physician is wrong because heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin, a natural inhibitor of clotting factors.
Heparin is used for acute treatment of thromboembolic disorders, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
It is not indicated for atrial fibrillation unless there is evidence of acute thrombosis.
Administering heparin to a patient with an elevated INR would increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C) Administer warfarin as ordered by physician is wrong because warfarin is the cause of the elevated INR and should be withheld until the INR returns to the therapeutic range.
Continuing to administer warfarin would further increase the INR and the risk of bleeding.
The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation who has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem). The patient reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded when standing up quickly from a sitting position or when getting out of bed in the morning. What action should the nurse take?
Explanation
This is because diltiazem (Cardizem) is a calcium channel blocker that lowers blood pressure and can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position. This can lead to dizziness and lightheadedness, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Changing positions slowly can help prevent or reduce these symptoms by allowing the body to adjust to the change in blood pressure.
Choice A) Administer diltiazem as ordered by physician is wrong because it does not address the patient’s complaint of dizziness and lightheadedness, which are side effects of the medication.
The nurse should monitor the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate before and after administering diltiazem, and report any abnormal findings to the physician.
Choice C) Notify physician immediately is wrong because it is not necessary to notify the physician immediately for a common and mild side effect of diltiazem, unless the patient has other signs of severe hypotension, such as fainting, chest pain, or confusion.
The nurse should educate the patient about the possible side effects of diltiazem and how to prevent or manage them.
Choice D) Hold diltiazem and notify physician if symptoms persist is wrong because it is not appropriate to hold a prescribed medication without a valid reason or an order from the physician.
Holding diltiazem could cause the patient’s blood pressure to rise and increase the risk of complications from atrial fibrillation, such as stroke or heart failure.
The nurse should administer diltiazem as ordered and monitor the patient’s response.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine therapeutic effectiveness of this medication?
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the serum potassium level to determine the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin (Lanoxin), a cardiac glycoside that improves the contractility and pumping ability of the heart. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause toxicity if the serum level is too high or if the patient has hypokalemia (low potassium).Hypokalemia can result from diuretic therapy, which is often prescribed for heart failure patients to reduce fluid overload.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum potassium level and report any abnormal values to the provider.The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
Choice B) Serum sodium level is wrong because sodium level is not directly affected by digoxin therapy.
Sodium level may be altered in heart failure patients due to fluid retention or diuretic use, but it does not indicate the effectiveness of digoxin.
Choice C) Serum magnesium level is wrong because magnesium level is not directly affected by digoxin therapy.
Magnesium level may be altered in heart failure patients due to diuretic use or renal impairment, but it does not indicate the effectiveness of digoxin.
Choice D) Serum calcium level is wrong because calcium level is not directly affected by digoxin therapy.
Calcium level may be altered in heart failure patients due to renal impairment or vitamin D deficiency, but it does not indicate the effectiveness of digoxin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving carvedilol (Coreg). The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine therapeutic effectiveness of this medication?
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the serum potassium level to determine the therapeutic effectiveness of carvedilol (Coreg), which is a beta-blocker that can lower the heart rate and blood pressure. Carvedilol can also cause hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum potassium level and report any values above 5.0 mEq/L to the provider.
Choice B) Serum sodium level is wrong because carvedilol does not affect the sodium level significantly.Sodium level is more relevant for diuretics, which can cause hyponatremia (low sodium) or hypernatremia (high sodium) depending on the type and dose of the medication.
Choice C) Serum magnesium level is wrong because carvedilol does not affect the magnesium level significantly.
Magnesium level is more relevant for digoxin, which is another medication used for heart failure that can cause hypomagnesemia (low magnesium) or hypermagnesemia (high magnesium).Hypomagnesemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity, while hypermagnesemia can decrease the effectiveness of digoxin.
Choice D) Serum calcium level is wrong because carvedilol does not affect the calcium level significantly.
Calcium level is more relevant for calcium channel blockers, which are another class of medications used for heart failure that can lower the heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the entry of calcium into the cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells.
Calcium channel blockers can cause hypocalcemia (low calcium) or hypercalcemia (high calcium), which can affect the cardiac contractility and conduction.
The normal ranges for serum electrolytes are:
• Potassium: 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
• Sodium: 135 to 145 mEq/L
• Magnesium: 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L
• Calcium: 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the client’s serum potassium level closely because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of cardiac arrhythmias and digitalis toxicity. The nurse should also monitor the client’s fluid status, blood pressure, and renal function.
Choice B is wrong because Serum calcium is wrong because furosemide does not affect calcium levels significantly. Calcium levels are more likely to be affected by thiazide diuretics, which can cause hypercalcemia.
Choice C is wrong because Serum albumin is wrong because furosemide does not affect albumin levels significantly. Albumin levels are more likely to be affected by liver disease, malnutrition, or nephrotic syndrome.
Choice D is wrong because Serum glucose is wrong because furosemide does not affect glucose levels significantly. Glucose levels are more likely to be affected by diabetes mellitus, corticosteroids, or stress.
Normal ranges for the laboratory values are:
• Serum potassium: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• Serum calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
• Serum albumin: 3.5-5.0 g/dL
• Serum glucose: 70-110 mg/dL
A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure and is prescribed captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.).
Explanation
Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is used to treat heart failure by lowering blood pressure and reducing the workload on the heart.
The nurse should include the following instructions when teaching a client who is prescribed captopril:
• Avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium.Captopril can increase the potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to hyperkalemia.Salt substitutes that contain potassium can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
• Report any dry cough to the provider.A dry cough is a common side effect of captopril and other ACE inhibitors.It is caused by the accumulation of bradykinin, a substance that dilates blood vessels and causes inflammation in the lungs.
The cough can be annoying and interfere with sleep and quality of life.The provider may switch the client to another type of medication if the cough is bothersome.
• Take the medication on an empty stomach.Food can decrease the absorption and effectiveness of captopril.The client should take the medication at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
• Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.Captopril can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions.
This can lead to dizziness, fainting, and falls.The client should rise slowly and sit on the edge of the bed for a few minutes before standing up.
Choice D is wrong because drinking at least 3 L of fluids per day is not recommended for clients with heart failure.
Excessive fluid intake can worsen the symptoms of heart failure, such as edema, shortness of breath, and fatigue.The client should limit fluid intake to 2 L or less per day, unless instructed otherwise by the provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving metoprolol. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Explanation
Choice B is wrong because “I can walk farther without getting tired.” This statement indicates a therapeutic effect of metoprolol, which is a beta-blocker that reduces the heart rate, blood pressure, and the workload of the heart.This helps to improve the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the heart and other organs, and reduces the symptoms of heart failure such as fatigue, dyspnea, and edema.
Choice A is wrong because “I have less swelling in my ankles.” This statement indicates a possible effect of a diuretic, which is a medication that reduces fluid retention and edema by increasing urine output.Metoprolol does not have a direct diuretic effect, although it may indirectly reduce fluid accumulation by improving cardiac function.
Choice C is wrong because “I don’t have chest pain anymore.” This statement indicates a possible effect of a nitrate, which is a medication that dilates the blood vessels and reduces the oxygen demand of the heart.Metoprolol may also help to prevent or treat angina by lowering the heart rate and blood pressure, but it is not the primary medication for chest pain relief.
Choice D is wrong because “I can breathe better at night.” This statement indicates a possible effect of an oxygen therapy, which is a treatment that delivers supplemental oxygen to the lungs and improves gas exchange.Metoprolol may also help to reduce dyspnea by improving cardiac function and reducing pulmonary congestion, but it is not the primary treatment for respiratory distress.
A nurse is evaluating a client who has heart failure and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Explanation
Choice B is wrong because “I will eat more green leafy vegetables.” This statement indicates a need for further teaching because green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can antagonize the effects of warfarin and increase the risk of clotting.The client should be advised to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden changes in their diet.
Choice A is wrong because using an electric razor for shaving is a safe practice for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it reduces the risk of bleeding from cuts or nicks.
Choice C is wrong because checking stools for blood is an important measure for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious adverse effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because having blood drawn regularly is necessary for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it allows the monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation and guides the dosage adjustment of the medication.
The normal range for INR for a client who is receiving warfarin is 2 to 3, unless otherwise specified by the provider.
A nurse is planning to administer mannitol to a client who has heart failure and pulmonary edema. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before giving the medication?
Explanation
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases urine output and decreases intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure. The nurse should check the urine output before giving the medication to ensure adequate renal function and prevent fluid overload and electrolyte imbalance. The normal urine output is 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
Choice B is wrong because checking the blood pressure is not specific to mannitol administration. Mannitol can cause hypotension or hypertension depending on the fluid status of the client, but this is not the priority action before giving the medication.
Choice C is wrong because checking the blood glucose is not relevant to mannitol administration. Mannitol does not affect blood glucose levels.
Choice D is wrong because checking the oxygen saturation is not related to mannitol administration. Mannitol does not affect oxygen saturation levels.
The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic heart failure who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). The patient’s apical pulse rate is 58 beats/min. What should the nurse do next?
Explanation
Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is used to improve the contractility of the heart and slow down the heart rate in patients with chronic heart failure. However, digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause toxicity if the dose is too high or if the patient has low potassium levels. A normal serum digoxin level is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL and a normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. A low heart rate (less than 60 beats/min) is a sign of digoxin toxicity and the nurse should withhold the medication and report it to the provider. The nurse should also check the patient’s serum digoxin and potassium levels to determine if they are within normal limits.
Choice A is wrong because administering the medication as ordered could worsen the patient’s condition and increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Choice C is wrong because checking the patient’s serum digoxin level is not enough to prevent digoxin toxicity. The nurse should also check the patient’s serum potassium level and heart rate before giving digoxin.
Choice D is wrong because giving an additional dose of digoxin could cause a fatal overdose and lead to cardiac arrest. The nurse should never give more than the prescribed dose of digoxin without consulting the provider.
The nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about dietary modifications to reduce fluid retention and improve cardiac function. Which of the following foods should the nurse advise the patient to limit or avoid?
Explanation
The nurse should advise the patient with heart failure to limit or avoid canned soups and sauces because they are high in sodium, which can cause fluid retention and worsen cardiac function.Sodium intake should be restricted to less than 2 g per day for patients with heart failure.
Choice A is wrong because fresh fruits and vegetables are good sources of potassium, magnesium, and fiber, which are beneficial for heart health.Potassium and magnesium help regulate fluid and electrolyte balance, and fiber helps lower cholesterol and blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because whole grains and cereals are also rich in fiber, as well as complex carbohydrates, which provide energy and prevent rapid fluctuations in blood glucose levels.Whole grains and cereals may also contain phytochemicals that have antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects.
Choice C is wrong because lean meats and poultry are low in saturated fat and cholesterol, which can contribute to atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. Lean meats and poultry provide protein, which is essential for tissue repair and wound healing.Protein intake should be adequate but not excessive for patients with heart failure, as too much protein can increase the workload of the kidneys.
The nurse is reviewing the discharge instructions with a patient who has heart failure and is prescribed losartan (Cozaar). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Losartan (Cozaar) is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that is used to treat heart failure by lowering blood pressure and reducing fluid retention.
Patients taking losartan should:
• Weigh themselves every morning and report any changes.
This helps to monitor fluid status and detect signs of worsening heart failure.Weight gain of more than 2 kg (4.4 lb) in a week or 1 kg (2.2 lb) in a day should be reported to the health care provider.
• Call their doctor if they have a sore throat or fever.This could indicate an infection or a rare but serious side effect of losartan called angioedema, which causes swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat.
The other choices are wrong because:
• Losartan does not need to be taken with food to prevent stomach upset.It can be taken with or without food.
• Losartan does not increase the sensitivity to sunlight.However, some other medications for heart failure, such as diuretics, may do so.
• Drinking plenty of fluids to stay hydrated is not recommended for patients with heart failure, as it may worsen fluid retention and overload the heart.Patients should follow their prescribed fluid restriction and limit their sodium intake.
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